Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What type of defense mechanism is displayed when unacceptable ideas, wishes, desire, or memories are
    blocked from the consciousness?
A

b. Repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a breakdown in behavior?
A

c. Yelling obscenities and swearing at strangers on the street

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Kelly is a hard worker, who works under a very overbearing supervisor. Kelly doesn’t particularly like her
    boss and avoids him at all costs, but she believes that her boss hates her and that’s why she needs to keep
    her distance. This defense mechanism is known as what?
A

a. Projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Who was the person that developed lobotomies?
A

a. Walter Freeman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Incidence is the number of new cases that occur during a given time period.
A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What do clinical psychologists trained to do?
A

a. Research

b. Clinical work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Believing that you are a baby, when you are really 34 years old, is an example of:
A

a. Cognitive dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which careers in psychopathology typically require a PhD?
A

a. Clinical Psychologist

b. Counseling Psychologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What is the term used to describe the anticipated course of a mental disorder?
A

c. Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Who created the highly effective treatment for anxiety called systematic desensitization?
A

b. Wolpe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. What are the four humors that Hippocrates believed direct normal functioning and personality?
A

b. Blood, yellow bile, black bile, phlegm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which defense mechanism involves an individual substituting thoughts or feelings that are the opposite of
    the unacceptable ones they are thinking or feeling?
A

b. Reaction Formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is a Clinical Psychologist?
A

a. Someone who has a PhD or PsyD in psychology with both research and clinical specialization and
who is licensed and registered in the state in which they practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which term is used to describe the number of people in a population with a specific disorder at a given
    time?
A
  1. Point Prevalence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of these “sprits” (emotions) is connected to the spleen, according to Ancient Chinese medicine?
A

b. Worry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A child who had been abused by a parent has now forgotten all memories of the time, but still has
    difficulty establishing trusting relationships. What defense mechanism are they using?
A

c. Repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. In order to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder you typically must be experiencing:
A

a. Distress

b. Impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following components are typically needed to diagnose someone with a psychological
    disorder?
A

a. A breakdown in emotion, cognition, or behavioral function
b. Distress or impairment
c. A response that is atypical or not culturally expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Becky is a Nursing student who is constantly under a lot of stress due to the rigor of her coursework. When
    she is frustrated and burnt out, she goes to the gym and runs a few miles. Which type of defense
    mechanism is Becky engaging in?
A

b. Sublimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following professions require a Medical Degree (MD)?
A

e. Psychiatrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Lifetime prevalence refers to:
A

a. The percent of people in a population that have had the disorder at some point in
their lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Shane is a 21-year-old college student. He has always been very organized, kept things exceptionally clean,
    and gets enjoyment when his belongings are placed in an organized fashion. His first two years of college,
    he lived alone. In his second year, he is living with three of his closest friends, however, none of them keep
    their things organized and they leave trash around the house. Shane often cleans up after them and lies
    awake at night wondering if there are more things he did not clean. This makes him feel uncomfortable
    and anxious. Shane recently started skipping class and work so that he can organize the house in the exact
    specifications that he likes. Which components of a psychology disorder is Shane demonstrating?
A

a. Distress
b. Impairment
c. Breakdown in behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is the meaning of Etiology?
A

b. The cause of the disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Someone who takes their work stress out on their child instead of their boss is engaging in which defense
    mechanism?
A

e. Displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Prevalence is defined as
A

d. The percentage of people in the population as a whole that have a certain disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Who was the first to take an integrative approach to psychopathology (recognizing the roles of heredity
    and psychological/interpersonal dysfunction)?
A

b. Hippocrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What is Point Prevalence?
A

b. The percentage of people in the population with the disorder at any given time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. This course tends to last a long time, often a lifetime.
A

a. Chronic course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What does psychopathology mean?
A

b. Scientific study of psychological disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Who developed the Psychoanalytic Model?
A

c. Freud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. In order to be diagnosed with a psychological disorder, which aspects must be present?
A

a. Distress or impairment in functioning
b. Atypical or culturally unexpected behavior
c. Psychological dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which kind of breakdown is not part of a psychological dysfunction?
A

b. Developmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which of the following mental health professionals MUST receive a PhD (or PsyD)?
A

a. Clinical Psychologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Therapists that use unconditional positive regard are using what kind of therapy?
A

c. Person-Centered Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which behaviorist was the first to apply classical conditioning to humans?
A

b. Watson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. An individual that deals with an emotional conflict or stressor by transferring his/her feelings about one
    object onto a less threatening object is using what type of defense mechanism?
A

b. Displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. What defense mechanism has to do with an individual expelling disturbing wishes, thoughts, or
    experiences from conscious awareness?
A

a. Repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which best defines the term “distress”?
A

c. The individual is extremely upset or disturbed by their symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. What is the difference between a counseling psychologist and a marriage and family therapist?
A

d. A counseling psychologist requires a Ph.D whereas a marriage and family therapist requires a
Masters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Which of the following defense mechanisms is defined as an “individual falsely attributing her/his own
    unacceptable thoughts or feelings onto another person”?
A

b. Projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Which one of these were not one of the three categories of mental disorders that Hippocrates recognized?
A

Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. After being sent to the principal’s office for his senior prank, Anthony is on the verge of getting expelled
    just days before his graduation. Deciding not to make a scene in the office to potentially save his
    education, he holds his anger and lashes out at a smaller freshman boy near the bus stop. Which type of
    defense mechanism did he use?
A

d. Displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is the anticipated course of a disorder called?
A

c. Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. What did the Behavioral Model emphasize?
A

c. The role of learning in human behavior and the importance of studying direct observable
behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. What is the term that describes the percentage of people in the population with a disorder at any given
    time?
A

c. Point prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. If a psychologist is looking into the rate of newly diagnosed cases of Schizophrenia from the past year,
    which type of statistic would they look into?
A

b. Incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Cave dwellers used a technique called trephination which involved:
A

e. using a stone instrument to chip a hole into the person’s skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Which of these defines acute onset?
A

d. The disorder begins suddenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Who emphasized the role of social environment and early learning in the development of psychological
    disorders and believed that the best treatment for a disorder was rational discussion and humane care?
A

a. Plato and Aristotle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. What is Psychological Dysfunction?
A

a. A breakdown in cognitive, emotional or behavioral functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Which follower of the Psychological Tradition believed in “animal magnetism” and treated patients with
    magnetized water?
A

c. Franz Anton Mesmer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Sally stopped drinking last week, she has started working out twice as hard in the gym to help cope with
    her cravings, this is an example of:
A

d. Sublimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. A research study was done in order to determine the amount of people that have experienced depression
    during their lifetime. This research would be done in order to discover what type of statistic?
A

c. Lifetime prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Which researcher of the 1900’s is credited for developing “systematic desensitization”?
A

c. Wolpe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Someone laying on a couch in a psychologist’s office, stating any thought that comes to their mind is most
    likely engaged in which psychoanalysis technique?
A

d. Free Association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Pick the best term that satisfies the definition of “Chronic Course” in relation to a disorder.
A

b. The disorder tends to last an extended period of time and often lasts a lifetime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. A disorder that has an insidious onset is:
A

e. A disorder that develops gradually over an extended period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Who advocated for asylum reforms and better treatment of people with mental disorders during the
    Mental Hygiene Movement?
A

c. Dorothea Dix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Olivia has never had any history of struggling with mental disorders, then all of the sudden at age 19 she
experienced a full psychotic break very suddenly. What type of onset is this?

A

b. Acute onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Micah believes that she is abducted by aliens every night and has a microchip implanted into her arm that
    the aliens use to track her throughout the day. She has often tried to remove the microchip and tells
    people about her experiences in the alien’s ship, causing her to lose her job and many of her friends.
    Micah is experiencing a breakdown in ____.
A

a. Behavior

c. Cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. What theorist believed and taught that fulfilling our basic needs must occur before we can move onto selfactualization?
A

c. Maslow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. Justin grew up with no signs of any disorders. But, as he grew, his mother began to notice more of a
    nervous side of Justin. He began to worry more and more about little things, until it started to control a
    majority of his life. He was then diagnosed with an anxiety disorder when he was a teenager. What is the
    type of onset did he experienced?
A

b. Insidious Onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Which term best describes the course of a disorder that tends to improve without treatment in a relatively
    short time?
A

a. Time-Limited course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a required component of the definition of a psychological disorder?
A

b. Individual’s normal sleep pattern is interrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. Which hormone does the pineal gland produce?
A

d. Melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter that facilitates expression of behaviors and
    emotions?
A

b. Glutamate

67
Q
  1. Chemical messages secreted by terminal buttons into synapses are called:
A

c. Neurotransmitters

68
Q
  1. Some biological factors include:
A

d. Genetic factors, neurotransmitters, brain structure, and function

69
Q
  1. Which part of the neuron contains receptors that receive signals?
A

c. Dendrite

70
Q
  1. ___ has the “opposite role” of ___, and ___ transmission of chemical messages.
A

a. GABA; Glutamate; Inhibits

71
Q
  1. Which of the following neuroimaging techniques detect functional abnormalities in the brain?
A

a. PET Scan
b. SPECT Scan
c. fMRI

72
Q
  1. Where do axon terminals release chemical messages?
A

d. Synapse

73
Q
  1. Which hormone produces melatonin which affects sleep patterns and circadian rhythms?
A

d. Pineal Gland

74
Q
  1. Dopamine is associated with pleasure seeking and reward. Overactivity is associated with ___________,
    while underactivity appears to be associated with __________.
A

a. Schizophrenia; Depression

75
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the HPA axis?
A

a. Exposure to chronic, unpredictable stress during early development can sensitize this system
c. Is implicated in several psychological disorders including depression, anxiety, and PTSD

76
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter facilitates the expression of behaviors and emotions?
A

b. Glutamate

77
Q
  1. What neurotransmitter is responsible for regulating behavior, mood and thought processes?
A

c. Serotonin

78
Q
  1. Which neuroimaging technique detects structural abnormalities?
A

a. CAT scan

d. MRI

79
Q
  1. Which gland(s) in the endocrine system produces thyroxin which facilitates energy, metabolism and
    growth?
A

a. Thyroid gland

80
Q
  1. Hypothyroidism can produce symptoms of which disorder?
A

c. Depression

81
Q
  1. What part of the neuron contains receptors that receive chemical messages?
A

b. Dendrites

82
Q
  1. Which statement is true?
A

a. No matter how strong a specific genetic predisposition is, it may never be expressed

83
Q
  1. What is the function of thyroxin released by the thyroid glands?
A

d. Facilitation of energy, metabolism, and growth

84
Q
  1. Who created the theory of learned helplessness?
A

c. Martin Seligman

85
Q
  1. The thyroid gland produces what hormone?
A

Thyroxin

86
Q
  1. Bandura’s Classic Bobo Doll Experiment was an example of what learning theory?
A

c. Social Learning Theory

87
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
A

d. Dopamine is associated with reward and pleasure-seeking behaviors.

88
Q
  1. James and David were both diagnosed with depression but, were diagnosed for different underlying causal
    factors. What term is used to refer to the fact that the same disorder can present itself in different people
    for different underlying reasons?
A

c. Equifinality

89
Q
  1. Which of the following are social contributions to mental illness?
A

a. Neglect/abuse, and maladaptive peer relationships
b. The size and quality of social networks
c. Lower socioeconomic status
d. Social stigma

90
Q
  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters regulates a “fight or flight” response?
A

b. Norepinephrine

91
Q
  1. Serotonin is responsible for:
A

a. regulating behavior, mood, and thought processes

92
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with exploratory and pleasure-seeking behaviors?
A

d. Dopamine

93
Q
  1. The pituitary gland
A

c. Is a master gland that regulates other endocrine glands

94
Q
  1. Someone is told to walk and avoid different objects laid out. They say they can’t see any objects, but oddly
    they don’t run into any of the objects laid out when they walk. What neurological condition are they most
    likely suffering from?
A

c. Blindsight

95
Q
  1. All of the following detect functional abnormalities in the brain EXCEPT:
A

b. MRI

96
Q
  1. Which of the following does the HPA Axis produce?
A

c. Cortisol

97
Q
  1. Which of these are involved in the “fight or flight” response?
A

b. Norepinephrine

98
Q
  1. What is the main function of the Pituitary Gland?
A

a. Master gland which produces regulating hormones. Connected to the hypothalamus

99
Q
  1. Which is not a psychological or social contribution of psychological disorders?
A

b. Genetics

100
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter controls voluntary movements?
A

a. Dopamine

101
Q
  1. Cognitive contributions account for some psychological disorders. However, which specific memory and
    attention biases do those with depression tend to exhibit?
A

c. Attending to and remembering negative information

102
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter(s) do tricyclic antidepressants primarily target?
A

a. Serotonin

103
Q
  1. What is a synapse?
A

c. The space between the neurons

104
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a neurotransmitter?
A

e. Melatonin

105
Q
  1. This neurotransmitter is important for regulating behavior, mood, and thought processes; low levels of this
    neurotransmitter are associated with instability, aggression, and depression.
A

c. Serotonin

106
Q
  1. Claire has a counting compulsion and has been receiving cognitive behavioral therapy as part of her
    treatment. During a session, her therapist scatters a small number of marbles on the table while talking
    with her. The therapist then asks Claire to continue the conversation without counting the marbles. This
    type of cognitive behavioral therapy is known as _____.
A

b. Exposure and Response Prevention

107
Q
  1. Which neurotransmitter is associated with the inhibition of a variety of behaviors such as anxiety, arousal,
    and emotion?
A

d. GABA

108
Q
  1. What is the neurotransmitter norepinephrine responsible for?
A

d. Increasing heart rate and blood pressure

109
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes implicit memory?
A

c. Previous experiences can influence our behavior without our conscious awareness of those
previous experiences

110
Q
  1. The same disorder may present itself in different people for different reasons. The term used to describe
    this is:
A

d. Equifinality

111
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are observed during a mental status exam?
A

a. Thought processes
b. Intellectual functioning
c. Appearance and behavior
d. Sensorium

112
Q
  1. During behavioral assessment, people assess the ABCs of behavior. What does ABCs stand for?
A

e. Antecedents, Behaviors, Consequences

113
Q
  1. What approach to classification provides continuums on which people vary from high to low and
    involves quantifying an amount?
A

c. The Dimensional Approach

114
Q
  1. During a game of corn hole, your partner repeatedly misses the intended target, but always hit the same
    spot of the corn hole board, this is an example of something that is _____
A

b. Reliable but not valid

115
Q
  1. What do we assess during a behavioral assessment?
A

a. Consequences
b. Behaviors
c. Antecedents

116
Q
  1. Reliability means that the instrument measures what it is supposed to measure.
A

b. False

117
Q
  1. What is the goal of behavioral assessment?
A

c. To discover dysfunctional patterns of behavior that can then become the focus of treatment

118
Q
  1. For assessing an American who has a psychological disorder, which classification system is most likely to
    be used?
A

c. DSM 5

119
Q
  1. This describes when multiple professionals utilize the same diagnostic measure on the same individual
    and get similar results:
A

b. Inter-rater Reliability

120
Q
  1. What type of interview is the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnosis?
A

c. Semi-structured interview

121
Q
  1. What does it mean when a test is reliable?
A

a. The test provides consistent results

122
Q
  1. Which of the following psychological tests are considered to be reliable and valid?
A

a. IQ Test

c. Neuropsychological Tests

123
Q
  1. What is the current edition of the DSM?
A

d. DSM 5

124
Q
  1. Dory is experiencing anxious thoughts which prevent her from engaging in her art, her favorite activity,
    causing symptoms of depression as well. What type of assessment will most likely be used to assess
    her symptoms by a mental health professional?
A

c. Structured Clinical Interview for DSM (SCID 5); to identify the best diagnosis

125
Q
  1. ________ means the technique/measure accurately predicts behavior, while _______ means scores
    obtained using the technique/measure correlate with scores on an established measure of the same
    construct.
A

b. Predictive Validity; Concurrent Validity

126
Q
  1. Which of the following are NOT an example of a valid and reliable standardized test?
A

c. Projective Test

127
Q
  1. Which is false about the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?
A

a. It is published by the World Health Organization (WHO)

128
Q
  1. Which of the following is not assessed using the Mental Status Exam?
A

d. Reactivity

129
Q
  1. Which term is used to refer to an approach that is based heavily on results of research?
A

b. Empirical

130
Q
  1. Which approach has one set of criteria which every member of the category must meet in order to be
    classified in that category?
A

b. Classical/Categorical Approach

131
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to assess brain damage?
A

c. Neuroimaging techniques

d. Neuropsychological tests

132
Q
  1. Why might a physical examination be used during clinical assessment?
A

a. It may be necessary to rule out a medical condition or effects of a substance

133
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT suited for assessing structural abnormalities in the brain?
A

a. Rorschach inkblot test

b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence test

134
Q

What test uses ambiguous images in an attempt to gain insight into a client’s unconscious thought
processes?

A

b. Rorschach Inkblot

135
Q
  1. Which of the following is a self-report scale used to assess symptoms of OCD?
A

c. Pauda Inventory

136
Q
  1. What are the types of clinical interviews?
A

b. Unstructured, structured, semi-structured

137
Q
  1. When diagnosing an individual, a clinical psychologist will conduct the Structured Clinical Interview
    (SCID) for DSM-5. The SCID follows which format of interview?
A

c. Semi-Structured Interview

138
Q
  1. Which approach to classification is most commonly used in the DSM to diagnose psychological
    disorders?
A

a. Prototypical approach

139
Q
  1. Which approach to classification of mental disorders acknowledges that disorders can lie on a
    spectrum?
A

c. Dimensional

140
Q
  1. What is it called when different people use the same technique or measure on the same person and
    acquire consistent results?
A

d. Inter-rater Reliability

141
Q
  1. Which one of these is NOT a part of the mental status exam?
A

d. Self-report inventories

142
Q
  1. Who publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders?
A

c. American Psychiatric Association

143
Q
  1. What are projective tests good for?
A

d. As ice breakers to get people to open up and start talking

144
Q
  1. If a person thinks it is 2005 but it is really 2018, and they are unaware of their name and surroundings
    then they are lacking ______________.
A

e. Sensorium

145
Q
  1. Which classification system is currently used in the United States?
A

c. DSM-5

146
Q
  1. What approach provides essential characteristics, but allows for variation in the diagnosis process?
A

a. Prototypical approach

147
Q
  1. In a study on the severity of those diagnosed with depression, an inventory was used to calculate
    scores on a numerical scale. Patients had to take the inventory three different times. The results came
    in showing greatly differing scores for each trial. The inventory is not _________.
A

b. Reliable

148
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to making sure a test measures what it says it’s going to measure?
A

b. Validity

149
Q
  1. Which of the following is used by clinicians to obtain a global picture of an individual, their
    environment, and their symptoms?
A

a. Clinical assessment

150
Q
  1. Which of the following definitions aligns correctly with the prototypical approach to classification?
A

d. This approach presents essential characteristics/criteria, but allows for variation in symptoms

151
Q
  1. Why do we need diagnoses?
A

a. So that we can properly treat and care for people.
b. Many health insurance companies require a diagnosis in order to reimburse for treatment
expenses.
c. So that we can conduct research to better understand the disorders, the causal factors

152
Q
  1. If an IQ test is given to the same participant two separate times and his scores are highly consistent
    with one another, then the test has demonstrated good
A

b. Test-retest reliability

153
Q
  1. During the mental status exam Clinical Psychologists evaluate a patient’s __________ by observing
    their awareness of their surroundings.
A

a. Sensorium

154
Q
  1. What do clinicians judge when observing appearance and behavior in a mental status exam?
A

a. Overt behavior
b. Attire
c. Appearance
d. Posture and expressions

155
Q
  1. MRI and CAT scans detect ________ abnormalities while PET, fMRI, and SPECT detect _________
    abnormalities.
A

a. structural, functional

156
Q
  1. During a Mental Examination what characteristics are assessed?
A

d. Appearance and Behavior, Thought Processes, Sensorium, Intellectual Functioning, and Mood
and Affect

157
Q
  1. During clinical assessment, a clinician notices that a client has been speaking quickly and jumping from
    topic to topic with no identifiable connection. What aspect of the mental status exam is this client
    exhibiting abnormalities in?
A

a. Thought processes

158
Q
  1. What system(s) are most commonly used for classifying mental disorders?
A

a. DSM-5

b. ICD-10

159
Q
  1. What are 2 examples of psychological projective tests?
A

b. Rorschach, Thematic Apperception

160
Q

b. Rorschach, Thematic Apperception

A

b. Empirical approach

161
Q
  1. How is clinical assessment defined?
A

a. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychology, biological, and social factors in
an individual presenting with possible psychological disorder.

162
Q
  1. What is the main difference between the DSM-5 and the ICD-11?
A

b. The ICD-11 also includes criteria for physical illnesses.

163
Q
  1. The empirical approach relies heavily on:
A

b. Results of research

164
Q
  1. What would be an appropriate test to administer if you suspect that that the cause of a patient’s
    condition is brain damage?
A

b. Neuropsychological tests

d. Neuroimaging