Exam 1 Flashcards

(237 cards)

1
Q

What is microbiology

A

study of small living things

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2
Q

what is the working definition of microbiology

A

study of entities too small to be seen with the unaided human eye (<0.2mm=200micrometers=200,000nanometers)

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3
Q

Which of the following is cellular and which is acellular: Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Viruses

A

Cellular: Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes
Acellular: Viruses

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4
Q

Bacteria and archaea are ____

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

a) Prokaryotes

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5
Q

fungi, algae, protozoa, and helminths are _____

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

b) eukaryotes

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6
Q

bacteriophage are ___

a) prokaryotes
b) eukaryotes
c) viruses

A

c) viruses

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7
Q
Which of these sequences arranges the microbes from smallest to largest: 
1 Escherichia coli (bacterium)
2 Paramecium caudatum (Protozoa)
3 Adenovirus (virus)
4 Candida albicans (yeast)
A
  1. Adenovirus (virus)
  2. Escherichia coli (bacterium)
  3. Candida albicans (yeast)
  4. Paramecium caudatum (protozoa)
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8
Q

What characteristics do both living organisms and viruses share?

A

Ability to reproduce and evolve

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9
Q

what are the characteristics of living organisms

A

metabolism, reproduction, differentiation, communication, locomotion, evolution

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10
Q

Which of the following are reasons it is important to study microbiology:

  1. Microbes are the earliest organisms found in the fossil record
  2. They perform essential reactions in the environment
  3. microbes can be harnessed to work for us
  4. they sometimes cause infectious diseases
A

all of the above are correct

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11
Q

What is biotechnology

A

altering the use of microbes to produce useful products or modify other organisms

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12
Q

T or F: all microbes cause infectious diseases

A

F: only a few percent of all microbes are associated with disease

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13
Q

What is bacteriology

A

study of prokaryotes

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14
Q

mycology

A

study of fungi

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15
Q

phycology

A

study of algae

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16
Q

protozoology

A

study of protozoa

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17
Q

virology

A

study of viruses

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18
Q

immunology

A

study of the immune system

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19
Q

parasitology

A

study of parasites and their hosts

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20
Q

Lipoteichoic acid is found in

a) gram positive cell
b) gram negative cell
c) endospore

A

a) gram positive cell

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21
Q

____ have membranes made of mycolic acids and arabinogalactans

a) gram positive
b) endospores
c) mycobacteria
d) gram negative

A

c) mycobacteria

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22
Q

____ have thin peptidoglycan layers covered by an outer membrane with toxigenic properties on many pathogens

a) gram negative
b) gram positive
c) mycobacteria

A

a) gram negative

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of a lipopolysaccharide

a) Lipid A (six fatty acids)
b) (adaptor structure)
c) O-antigen (repeats)
d) A-antigen (singles)

A

d) A-antigen (singles)

this isn’t a real thing

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of Mycoplasma

a) true bacteria
b) ergosterol in membranes
c) very small in size
d) no peptidoglycan wall
e) variable in shape
f) are important pathogens
g) cholesterol in membranes

A

b) ergosterol in membranes

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25
Which of the following is NOT true of flagellum structures in bacteria a) bacterial locomotion b) electric motor c) dozens of proteins d) rotates rapidly e) many are reversible f) whip back and forth g) propels the cell through its environment
f) whip back and forth
26
Which of the following best describes the flagellar arrangement monotrichous a) a single flagellum at one end b) two flagella, one at each end c) a clump of flagella at one end d) flagella all around
a) a single flagellum at one end
27
What flagellar arrangement is two flagella, one at each end? a) monotrichous b) amphitrichous c) lophotrichous d) peritrichous
b) amphitrichous
28
Aristotle favored ____ a) biogenesis b) spontaneous generation (abiogenesis)
spontaneous generation (abiogenesis)
29
Who used heat and chemicals to treat the incoming gas (air) for their boiled media broth?
Schulze and Schwann
30
Who discovered endospores a) Pasteur b) Redi c) Hooke d) Cohn
Cohn
31
Who used carbolic acid (phenol) to clean hands, wound, and operating rooms for application of germ theory a) Hooke b) Pasteur c) Lister
c) Lister
32
What are the four parts of Koch's Postulate?
1. The suspected pathogenic organism should be present in all cases of disease and absent from healthy animals 2. Isolate the pathogenic organism and grow in a pure culture 3. Cells from the pure culture of the suspected organism should cause disease in a healthy animal 4. The organism is reisolated into a pure culture that is identical to the original pure culture
33
Microbes belonged to which kingdom
monera
34
What did Woese use to classify his domains a) DNA b) 16S rRNA c) mRNA
b) 16S rRNA
35
Which of the following contain axial filaments? a) Spirochetes b) bacillus c) cocci
a) Spirochetes
36
What flagellar arrangement has a bundle of flagella at one end a. monotrichous b. amphitrichous c. lophotrichous d. peritirchous
c. lophotrichous
37
T or F: Peritrichous have flagella all around, not just at the ends
True
38
____ is the movement of a bacterium in response to chemical gradients and is described at "Run and Tumble" a) whipping b) rolling c) chemotaxis d) chemical shifts
c) chemotaxis
39
What movements is analogous to blindfolding your friend and having them walk around a) unbiased running b) planned walk c) Biased random walk d) unbiased jog
c) biased random walk
40
What attaches cells to surfaces a. fimbriae b. stalks c. pillars d. both a and b
both a and b, fimbriae and stalks
41
Most capsules/glycocalyx are made of: a) peptides b) carbohydrates
b) carbohydrates very few are made of peptides
42
What is the ability to distinguish two adjacent objects or points from one another called a) magnification b) resolution c) clarity d) distinguishing factor
b) resolution
43
What is the equation for resolving power (RP)
wavelength of light in nm/ 2 times numerical aperture
44
T or F: shorter wavelengths produce a better resolution
True
45
What is a clump of 4 cells in a single layer referred to as a. bacillus b. tetrad c. sarcina d. streptococci
b. tetrad
46
what bacterial cell shape is shaped like a bean a) coccus b) bacillus c) vibrio c) Spirillum
c) vibrio
47
which of the following is NOT an advantage of small size a) more surface area:cell volume b) faster growth rates c) faster evolution d) slower evolution
d) slower evolution
48
T or F: all cells have a cell membrane
True - this is the structure that defines the existence of a cell
49
A phospholipid consists of glycerol w/ ____ links to ___ fatty acids and a phosphoryl head group a) ether; 2 b) ester; 2 c) ether; 1 d) ester;1
b) ester; 2
50
T or F: bacterial membranes are 50% phospholipids and 50% proteins
True; bacterial membranes are equal parts phospholipids and proteins
51
Which of the following is NOT a function of a membrane a) structural support b) secretion of virulence factors c) transmission of communication signals d) ion transport and energy storage e) appear more intimidating to other cells
e) appear more intimidating to other cells
52
Membranes are ____ permeable a) fully b) non c) semi
c) semi
53
What is the purpose of the diffusion of weak acids and bases a) carry water into the cell b) change the structure of the cell c) change the pH of the cell d) protect the cell
c) change the pH of the cell
54
What are the two types of transport across a membrane? | Which requires transport proteins?
1. Passive transport | 2. Active transport - requires transport protein
55
____ reinforces eukaryotic membranes, ____ and _____ reinforce bacterial membranes a) hopanoids b) sterols c) hopanes c) steriods
b) sterols reinforce eukaryotic membranes | a) hopanoids and c) hopanes reinforce bacterial membranes
56
Bacteria are ____ a) diploid b) haploid
b) haploid
57
The total size of a prokaryote ribosome is 70S, which is made of two subunits ___ and ___ a) 50S and 20S b) 30S and 40S c) 60S and 10S d) 30S and 50S
d) 30S and 50S
58
What are extensively folded intracellular membraes called a) inner membranes b) endomembrane c) envelopes d) thylakoids
d) thylakoids
59
Polyhedral bodies packed w/ the enzyme Rubisco for CO2 fixation are ___ a) carboxysomes b) oxidizing agents c) gas vesicles
a) carboxysomes
60
What is the function of gas vesicles in phototrophs? a) nutrient storage b) transport c) increase buoyancy
c) increase buoyancy
61
____ ____ are inclusions bodies that store glycogen, PHB, sulfer, volutin, and magnetosomes
storage granules
62
What forms a "Z ring for septum placement" a) FtsZ b) MreB c) CreS d) DeG
a) FtsZ
63
What forms a coil inside rod-shaped cells a) bacillus b) MreB c) spirochetes d) CreS
b) MreB (b for bacillus)
64
What forms a polymer along the inner side of crescent-shaped bacterial a) cell membrane b) cell wall c) MreB d) CreS
d) CreS
65
What does the cell wall help with aside from the shape and rigidity of the cell a) transport b) protein synthesis c) withstand turgor pressure
withstand turgor presure
66
What consists of a single interlinked molecule a) cell membrane b) nuclear envelope c) bacterial endoplasmic reticulum d) bacterial cell wall/sacculus
d) bacterial cell wall/sacculus
67
Most bacterial cell walls are made of a) cellulose b) cholesterol c) peptidoglycan (murein) d) ergosterol
c) peptidoglycan (murein)
68
Peptidoglycan consists of ___ and ___ bound to a peptide of 4-6 amino acids that can form cross-bridges to parallel glycan strands
NAG and NAM
69
A bacterial envelope is additional layers that provide ____ and _____
structural support and protection
70
____ have a thick cell wall and stain the primary stain color, purple
gram-positive bacteria
71
____ have thin cell walls that and stain the secondary stain color pink
gram-negative bacteria
72
the phylum firmicutes are examples of _____-______ bacteria and the phylum proteobacteria are examples of _____-______ bacteria
gram-positive: Firmicutes | gram negative: Proteobacteria
73
Which of the following is NOT a common trait of bacteria a. RNA polymerase b. Ribosomal RNAs c. Translation factors d. all of the above are common traits of bacteria
d. all of the above are common traits of bacteria
74
What makes most bacterial cell walls? a. Chitin b. Chloropyll c. peptidoglycan
c. peptidoglycan
75
What are examples of Gram-Positive bactera
staphylococcus, streptococcus, listeria
76
Which bacteria are used in food production and preservation for things like yogurt and milk
Lactobacillus
77
What is another genera that is a fermentative bacteria
Streptococcus
78
What bacteria is used to make saurkraut
leuconostoc
79
What are the 2 key gram-positive bacteria that are nonsporulating bacillales and clostridiales
Listeria, staphylococcus
80
Staphylococcus is catalase-_______ and can tolerate ______
positive, drying
81
What are the key genera that are sporulating Bacillaes and Clostridiales (they make endospores)
Bacillus, Clostridium
82
Bacillus and Clostridium are gram-______ endospores
positive
83
What sporulating bacteria produces extracellular hydrolytic enzymes, antibiotics, and toxic insecticidal proteins
Bacillus
84
________ are pathogenic which causes botulism, tetanus, and gangrene
Clostridium
85
Tenericutes lack cells walls and include the genera _____
mycoplasma
86
Actinobacteria include _____ and _____ ______ _____
corneyform, propionic acid bacteria
87
A key genera of Actinobacteria is _______
corynebacterium
88
Actinobateria are mostly harmless commensals with the exception of _______
mycobacterium
89
Gram-______ Actinobacteria have acid-fast cell walls
positive
90
Aerial mycelia carry _____
arthrospores
91
Streptomyces is an example of gram-positive _____
actinobacteria
92
Gram-Negative Proteobacteria are the _____ group of cultured organisms
largest
93
Rhizobium, Agrobacterium, Rickettsias are examples of _____
alpha proteobacteria
94
Nitrosomonas and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are examples of _____
Beta Proteobacteria
95
Lithotrophs are ______, which were the original phototrophs
Gamma proteobacteria
96
The anarobic rods "escherichia coli" are _______
enteric gamma proteobacteria
97
Myxococcus xanthus and Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus are ______ proteobacteria
delta
98
____ _____ are the delta proteobacteria that attacks other bacteria in "packs"
Myxococcus xanthus
99
_____ ______ is the delta proteobacteria that parasitizes other bacteria, grows in periplasm, and lyses host
Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus
100
______ are ______ proteobacteria that cause stomach ulcers
Helicobacter pylori; eplison
101
Nitrospirae is ____ shape, and oxidizes nitritie to nitrate
spiral
102
_____ are obligate anaerobes that break down toxins in food
Bacteroides
103
_____ are green sulfur bacterium
Chlorobium
104
____ are flexible, narrow spiral shape and form axial filaments
spirochetes
105
_____ has a larger reticulate body and small elementary bodies
chlamydiae
106
Reticulate bodies _______ but small elementary bodies _________ and can be _________
Reticulate bodies can not survive outside host but small elementary bodies can survive outside host cells and can be transferred to new host
107
_____ is irregular shaped, contains tubulin, and is part of Planctomycetes
verrucomicrobia
108
______ are oxygenic phototrophs that contains thylakoids and carboxysomes
cyanobacteria
109
cyanobacteria form ____
akinetes
110
Chloroflexi are _____-______ _______ that live at high temperatures and have _____
deep-branching thermophiles; chlorosomes
111
______ is a source of PCR tests and belongs to the genera _______
Thermus aquaticus; Thermus
112
______ are radiation resistant
Deinococcus radiodurans
113
_____ are prokaryotic cells that look very much like bacteria but can also be oddly shaped
archaea
114
_____ have the widest range of temperature, environments, and unique biochemistry
archaea
115
____ and ____ are the 2 major phyla of archaea
crenarchaeotes and euryarchaeotes
116
Archaeal lipids have ___ glycerol and ___links.
L; ether
117
Bacterial lipids have __ glycerol and ____ links
D; ester
118
Thermophile lipids have a lipid _____
monolayer
119
Both Archaea and ___ have circular genomes and operons
bacteria
120
Both Archaea and ____ have introns and RNA polymerase with TBP, TFB
eukaryotes
121
_____ makes up the Archaea cell wall (name of molecule)
pseudopeptidoglycan
122
The Archaea cell wall uses ___ and ____ (polymers)
NAG and NAT
123
____ have an irregular shape and contain the unique lipid Crenarchaeol. Crenarchaeol is distinct because it contains ___
Crenarchaeota; six membered ring
124
What is the upper temperature limit for life
150 deg C
125
Monomers are adaptation for life at ____ temperatures and contain ____ concentrations of cytoplasmic solutes
high; high
126
____ and ____ are structural features that improve the thermostability of archaea
highly hydrophobic cores and increased ionic interactions
127
___ is the class of proteins that refold partially denatured proteins
chaperones
128
_____ is a major chaperonin protein complex in Pyrodictium
Thermosome
129
_____ intracellular solute and polyamine levels stabilize DNA and reverse DNA gyrase
high
130
archaea have positive _____ to stabilize the DNA
supercoils
131
_____ are DNA-binding proteins that compact DNA into nucleosome-like structures
Histones
132
____ _____ _____ form a lipid monolayer membrane structure in archaea
tetraether type lipids
133
rRNA ____ is another adaptation to life at high temperatures for archaea
stability
134
The Crenarchaeota "Nitrosopumilaes" ____ ammonia to fix CO2
oxidize
135
_____ are found in ice and seawater in Antarctica
crenarchaeota
136
Euryarchaeota includes the _______ which have 5 major orders
methanogens
137
_____ are elongated, round, flattened shapes that require high salt content
Halophiles
138
Most halophiles are _____
photoheterotrophs
139
Halophiles are part of______ and use _____ to pump out H+ and _____ pump in Cl-
Eukaryota; bacteriorhodopsin; halorhodopsin
140
_____ is the process by which rhodopsins signal to flagellum
phototaxis
141
Euryarchaeota includes ____, which do the opposite of methanogenesis by reducing sulfate to sulfide by oxidizing acetate to CO2
Archaeoglobales
142
____, _____, and ____ are new archaeal species being discovered
korarchaeota, thaumarchaeota, nanoarchaeota
143
____ is the emerging euryarchaeota that has a secret filament
korarchaeota
144
___ is the emerging euryarchaeota that does nitrification
thaumarchaeota
145
____ is the emergin euryarchaeota that is the hospitable fireball
nanoarchaeota
146
____ is not a living cell
virus
147
What are the 2 components that are ALWAYS in viruses
small genome and protein coat ("Capsid")
148
Viruses range from about __ to ____ nm
20 to 200 nm
149
_______ capsids have 20 triangular sides each made up of atleast 3 identical capsid proteins
icosahedral capsids
150
_____ capsids are long tubes of protein with genome inside
filamentous (helical)
151
____ capsids are a mixture of icosahedral and filamentous shapes
complex
152
Many complex capsids are ____ with ____ shapes
bacteriophages; asymmetrical
153
____ allows for fusion to the host cell for viruses
lipid envelopes
154
_____ are NON-enveloped
bacteriophages
155
Viruses can be ____ or ____ (genome type), __ or ___ (# strands), ___ or ____ (shape)
DNA or RNA; single or double stranded; linear or circular
156
what is an example of group 1
poxvirus
157
what type of genome structure does group 1 have
dsDNA
158
what is an example of a group II virus
parvovirus
159
what is the genome structure of group 2 viruses
ssDNA
160
what is an example of a group III virus
Epizootic Hemorrahagic Disease
161
what is the genome structure of a Group III virus
dsRNA
162
what is an example of a group IV virus
Poliovirus
163
what is the genome structure of group IV viruses
(+)ssRNA
164
what is an example of a group V virus
influenza virus
165
what is the genome structure of group V viruses
(-) ssRNA
166
what is an example of a group VI virus
HIV
167
what is the genome structure of VI viruses
RNA retroviruses
168
What is an example of a VII virus
Hepatitis B
169
What is the genome structure of VII
DNA pararetroviruses
170
``` Bacteriophage life cycle 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. ```
1. attach to the host cell 2. inject genome 3. replicate genome 4. synthesize capsid protein 5. assemble progeny phage 6. lyse cell wall to release progeny phase
171
In the Hershey-Chase Experiment, radioactively labeled ___ with 35S methionine and ____ with 32P Phosphate before infecting the E. coli
protein; DNA
172
In the ____ cycle, the phage quickly replicates and kills host cell
lytic
173
In the ___ cycle the phage is quiescent, meaning it integrates into host cell genome and replicates when the host genome divides. The phage later reactivates to become lytic killing host
lysogenic
174
Bacteriophage use cell components to _____ ____, assemble ____ ____, and exit from cell
synthesize capsids; progeny phages
175
What makes protein to depolymerize peptidoglycan and bursts host cell to release progeny phage
lysis
176
what uses filamentous phages that can extrude individual progenies through the cell envelope
slow release
177
In the eukaryotic virus life cycle, viruses attach to host cell receptor and enter the host cell by injecting its genome directly and being taken up via endocytosis (_______) where is it brough into cell in an endosome
viropexis
178
Genome replication: ____ viruses must go to cell nucleus
DNA
179
Genome replication: ___ viruses must encode a viral polymerase
RNA
180
Only _____ can be used as mRNA
(+) ssRNA
181
All viruses use ___ ____ to make proteins
host ribosomes
182
Budding is used in ____ virus life cycles
eukaryotic
183
Culturing viruses 1. 2. 3.
1. Viruses bound to host 2. eclipse period 3. rapid rise period
184
In the ____ period, viruses are making proteins, genomes, and assembling. There is no detectable virus
eclipse
185
when the virus binds to host the free virus concentration ____
drops
186
a ____ is a "colony" of viruses
plaque
187
___ are present in all environments and ___ densities
viruses; high
188
____ are single-stranded naked RNA plant pathogens; circle shape and very small
viroids
189
____ are animal pathogens that can be referred to as "slow viruses"; these have defectively folded host proteins
prions
190
what is an example of prions
creutzfeld-jakob disease
191
DNA in the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell exists as _____
chromatin
192
The genetic material of eukaryotic cells is multiple _______ ________
linear chromosomes
193
DNA in the eukaryotic cell is condensed on proteins called _______
histones
194
The total size of the eukaryote ribosome is ____
80S
195
The _____ _____ is the protein trafficking center
golgi body
196
What are the 3 components of the cytoskeleton
Actin, microtubles, intermediate filaments
197
______ are a lipid-enclosed space
vacuoles
198
Flagellum in Eukaryotes don't ____ but _______ _____ ___ ____
don't spin; waves like an oar
199
Eukaryote flagellum have a _______ core
microtubule
200
Eukaryote capsules are made of ______ ______
polymeric sugars (polysaccharides)
201
__________ includes animals and fungi
opisthokonts
202
Opisthokonts have _____ flagellum
single (eukaryotic)
203
_____ includes algae and plants
viridiplantae
204
Cryptophyte algae are _____
protists
205
the vestigial nucleus that engulfed algae still maintain their DNA in is called the ______
nucleomorph
206
The 5 multiple clades of protists are...
``` amoebozoa and cercozoa alveolates heterokonts euglenozoa excavates ```
207
the cell walls of fungi is made of _____
chitin
208
branching forms of fungi hyphal tips is called ______
mycelia
209
fungi yeasts reproduce ____ by mitosis and ______ by meiosis
asexually; sexually
210
Chytrids (a group of fungi) are motile germ cells that have a ____ reproductive form
flagellated
211
The zygomycetes that forms bread mold is
Rhizopus
212
______ have sexual spores in sac like structures and includes Neospora
ascomycetes
213
Examples of ascomycetes include _____, _____, and ______
neurospora, penicillium, and morels
214
Basidiospores are found in_______
basidiomycetes
215
Examples of basidiomycetes are ____ and ______
mushrooms and cryptococcus
216
All algae have ____, most have _____ flagella
chloroplasts, paired flagella
217
the cell wall of algae is made of _____ or _____
glycoprotein or cellulose
218
______ have contractile vacuoles
algae
219
______ concentrates CO2 for fixation in algae
pyrenoid
220
an example of chlorophyta is ______ algae
green
221
an example of rhodophya is ____ algae
red
222
Red algae is used to make ____
agar
223
Secondary endosymbionts are ________ engulfed by a ______
algae engulfed by a protist
224
Examples of secondary endosymbionts are ______ and _____ ______
diatoms and brown algae
225
an example of the secondary endosymbiont diatoms is ______
bacillariophyta
226
an example of brown algae is ______
phaeophyceae
227
amoebozoa have lobe-shaped _______
pseudopods
228
______ molds are an example of amoebozoa
slime
229
_____ are amoebas with filament-shaped pseudopods
Radiolarians
230
_____ are shelled amoebas with shells made of calcium carbonate
foraminiferans
231
_____ are flattened vacuoles at the outer cortex of Alveolates
alveola
232
____ stabilize the structure of alveolates
microtubules
233
the group of alveolates with many cilia for motility are called ____
ciliates
234
The group of alveolates that have neurotoxins that cause the red tide are _____
dinoflagellates
235
apicomplexans have a _____ derived from chloroplast
apicoplast
236
____ is a group related to photosynthetic Euglenozoa
Trypanosomes
237
the eukaryotic group ____ lack mitochondria
excavates