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Systemic Pathology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Where in the GI tract are Peyer’s patches located?

A

Ileum

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2
Q

Function of M cells in GALT?

A

Uptake of antigens, therefore can be exploited for pathogen entry if GALT or intestinal epithelium is damaged

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3
Q

Defense mechanisms of the oral cavity (4)

A
  1. Taste buds - reject toxic materials
  2. Indigenous micro flora - compete for attachment site
  3. Saliva - flushing, protective coating, antimicrobial, anti foaming
  4. Rapid healing ability
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4
Q

Cleft palate = ?

A

Palatoschisis

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5
Q

Palatoschisis = ?

A

Cleft palate

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6
Q

Cleft lip = ?

A

Cheiloschisis

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7
Q

Cheiloschisis = ?

A

Cleft lip

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8
Q

Prognathia = ?

A

Underbite, mandible extends past maxilla

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9
Q

Brachygnathia = ?

A

Overbite, maxilla extends past mandible

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10
Q

Layers of teeth outer to inner?

A

Outer = enamel
Dentin
Cementum
Pulp

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11
Q

Anondontia = ?

A

No teeth

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12
Q

Oligodontia = ?

A

Fewer than normal number of teeth

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13
Q

Polydontia = ?

A

Excessive number of teeth

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14
Q

Pseudopolydontia = ?

A

Retention of deciduous teeth

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15
Q

Heterotrophic polydontia = ?

A

Extra teeth, or teeth outside the dental arcade (“ear tooth”)

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16
Q

Dentigerous cyst = ?

A

Cyst containing malformed tooth

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17
Q

Malocclusion = ?. Common in what species?

A

Abnormal jaw configuration or rarely abnormal tooth eruption patterns. Rabbits and rodents because teeth are continuously erupting, can overgrow if not receiving enough roughage in diet.

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18
Q

Enamel hypoplasia = ?

A

Enamel fails to develop to normal size

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19
Q

During tooth development, what factors can result in ameloblast damage that causes defects in enamel or abnormal enamel?

A

CDV, fluoride toxicosis, malnutrition, Vit A deficiency

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20
Q

What factors can cause tooth discoloration?

A

Tetracycline antibiotics, congenital porphyria

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21
Q

What is tartar/calculus composed of?

A

Sloughed epithelial cells, inflammatory cells, food, bacteria. These form calcium salts

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22
Q

What does tartar predispose an animal to?

A

Gingivitis and periodontitis

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23
Q

Microanatomical changes seen with periodontal disease?

A

Gingival crest recession, inflammatory infiltration, subgingival calculus, resorption of bone, loss of epithelial attachment, edema, degeneration of peri dental membrane, deepening of pocket

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24
Q

Dental attrition = ?

A

Wearing down/degeneration of teeth so that there is unevenness

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25
Q

What is the difference between a Ranula and a Mucocele?

A

Ranula = cystic distention of a salivary duct in the floor of the mouth. The lining epithelium is intact!
Mucocele = accumulation of salivary secretion in single non-epithelial lined cyst adjacent to ducts.

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26
Q

Ranula = ? Is lining epithelium intact?

A

Cystic distention of a salivary duct in the floor of the mouth, lining epithelium intact.

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27
Q

Salivary mucocele = ? Is lining epithelium intact?

A

Accumulation of salivary secretion in single non-epithelial lined cyst adjacent to ducts. No

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28
Q

Stomatitis = ?

A

Inflammation of oral mucosa

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29
Q

Cheilitis = ?

A

Ki-litis. Inflammation of the lips

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30
Q

Glossitis =

A

Inflammation of tongue

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31
Q

Gingivitis =

A

Inflammation of gingiva

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32
Q

5 morphologic types of stomatitis?

A
  1. Vesicles
  2. Deep necrosis
  3. Erosions
  4. Ulcers
  5. Papules
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33
Q

Erosions can develop from …

A

Vesicles

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34
Q

Vesicles in the oral mucosa can develop into ..

A

Erosions

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35
Q

Erosions vs. ulcers?

A

E - BM intact, can repair
U - BM not intact

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36
Q

How do vesicles form? What happens if they rupture above the basement membrane?

A

Epithelial cell infection with ballooning degeneration, cell lysis - intraepithelial vesicles - clear watery fluid.
If ruptures above BM, erosion occurs. Erosion can heal completely

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37
Q

Examples of epitheliotropic viruses (which are vesicular stomatitides)?

A

Foot and mouth disease, vesicular stomatitis, swine vesicular disease, feline calico virus, vesicular exanthema of swine, herpes B stomatitis

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38
Q

What is the only vesicular stomatitides that affects horses?

A

Rhabdovirus

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39
Q

Macroscopic lesions of vesicular stomatitis in horses?

A

Would be rhabdovirus. Vesicles and erosions in the mucous membranes of mouth or on skin of the teats and feet. Lesions resemble foot and mouth disease.

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40
Q

Examples of viral erosive/ulcerative stomatitis? What cells do these viruses cause apoptosis/necrosis of?

A

BVD, malignant catarrhal fever (herpesvirus), rinderpest, adenovirus in deer, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, feline calicivirus and herpesvirus, orbivirus
Epithelial cells!

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41
Q

Uremic stomatitis is due to what toxin’s effect on epithelial cells or capillaries? What condition could this be associated with?

A

Urea - causes fibrinoid necrosis and ischemia/infarction.
Renal disease - increased BUN - endothelial necrosis with thrombosis and infarction.

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42
Q

Examples of viral papular “proliferative” stomatitis?

A

Bovine papular stomatitis (parapoxvirus)
Ovine contagious ecthyma = Orf

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43
Q

Papule = ? What type of cells become swollen and proliferating?

A

Small, solid raised epithelial dome.
Keratinocytes

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44
Q

Necrotizing “deep” stomatitis is often caused by what?

A

Trauma - then opportunistic infections

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45
Q

Examples of necrotizing “deep” stomatitis?

A
  1. Oral necrobacillosis
  2. Actinobacillosis (wooden tongue) - actinobacillus lignieresi
  3. Actinomycetes (lumpy jaw)
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46
Q

What agent causes wooden tongue on cows? What type of stomatitis is this?

A

Actinobacillus lignieresi. Necrotizing/deep.

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47
Q

T/F there are many afferent lymphatic vessels to the tonsils

A

False - there are none

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48
Q

By what means can the tonsils become infected?

A

Tonsils have no afferent lymphatic vessels, so are affected either by hematogenous spread or primary/direct spread.

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49
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT expected to cause vesicular oral lesions?
A. Foot and mouth disease
B. Blue tongue
C. Vesicular exanthema of swine
D. Contagious ecthyma

A

D - contagious ecthyma is a viral popular “proliferative” stomatitis, so would cause papule formation

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50
Q

Which of the following oral neoplasms is generally self-limiting and can regress over time?
A. Melanoma
B. Maxillofacial Fibrosarcoma
C. Papillomatosis
D. Fibrous
E. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

C

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51
Q

What is the most common oral malignancy in cats?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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52
Q

What is the most common oral malignancy in dogs?

A

Melanoma

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53
Q

Examples of oral neoplasms?

A

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma, Fibrosarcoma, oral papillomas, lymphoma, plasmacytoma

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54
Q

What type of cancer arises from the periodontal ligament in the oral cavity of dogs and cats?

A

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

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55
Q

What is a ddx for peripheral odontogenic fibroma in cats and dogs?

A

Gingival hyperplasia and other neoplasms

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56
Q

Peripheral odontogenic fibroma’s arise from the … ligament

A

Periodontal

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57
Q

T/F in cats, squamous cell carcinomas are self-limiting and non-invasive.

A

False - they are locally invasive and often invade adjacent bone and metastasize to mandibular lymph nodes

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58
Q

What do squamous cell carcinoma’s typically look like microscopically?

A

Like little nests of neoplastic cells with keratin at the middle

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59
Q

What are the two forms of malignant melanoma?

A

Melanotic - gray/brown/black/blue
Amelanotic - pale to red

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60
Q

T/F metastasis is not common in oral melanomas

A

False - metastasis occurs in 70-90% of oral melanomas

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61
Q

T/F metastasis is rare in fibrosarcoma’s

A

True - locally aggressive but Mets rare

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62
Q

T/F oral papillomatosis are usually self-limiting and spontaneously resolve.

A

True

63
Q

What is the tumor-like lesion that is locally invasive, usually in the rostral mandible near the canines, is composed of epithelium and CT stroma from gingival epithelium, does not metastasize, and is common in older dogs?

A

Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

64
Q

Clinical signs of esophageal dysfunction

A

Dysphagia, Cachexia, ptyalism (drooling), regurgitation, vomition, aspiration pneumonia

65
Q

Examples of congenital anomalies of the esophagus?

A

Segmental aplasias, esophageal-tracheal fistula, esophageal diverticulum, Achalasia (esophageal motility disorders)

66
Q

Esophageal stenosis =

A

Decreased diameter of the esophagus

67
Q

Esophageal obstruction/stenosis can be caused by ?

A

PRAA, ingestion of solids in cattle, dry feed or poor dentition in horses, chronic obstruction

68
Q

Congenital megaesophagus is most commonly due to what congenital abnormality?

A

Persistent right aortic arch

69
Q

What is a PRAA?

A

Persistent right aortic arch - vascular ring formed by aorta, pulmonary artery, and ligamentum arteriosum.

70
Q

Congenital megaesophagus: dilation is usually cranial to heart or stomach? Acquired megaesophagus: dilation is usually cranial to heart or stomach?

A

Heart, stomach

71
Q

Potential causes of acquired megaesophagus?

A

Myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, chronic lead toxicosis, peripheral neuropathies, esophagitis, polymyositis

72
Q

Esophageal foreign bodies can result in mucosal … necrosis

A

Compression

73
Q

“Choke” = ?

A

Traumatic esophagitis and impaction d/t foreign bodies

74
Q

What chemical do blister beetles produce?

A

Cantharidin

75
Q

Cantharidin toxicity affects herbivorous animals when they ingest …, causing erosive/ulcerative esophagitis, rumenitis, gastritis, and duodenitis.

A

Hay that was contaminated with Cantharidin from blister beetles

76
Q

Examples of parasitic esophagitis?

A

Throchomonas (canker) - protozoan, birds
Gongylonemiasis - nematodes, incidental
Spirocerca lupi - carnivores, causes mesenchymal neoplasms (Fibrosarcoma)

77
Q

Mycotic = ?

A

Fungal

78
Q

Agent that causes Mycotic esophagitis?

A

Candida albicans

79
Q

Esophageal neoplasia is rare/common. Examples?

A

Rare
Squamous cell carcinoma, canine leiomyoma, bovine papillomas, canine Fibrosarcoma, lymphoma

80
Q

A dog presents with numerous cutaneous (face) and oral warts. Which feature is NOT typical of canine papilloma virus infection?
A. The dog is middle aged
B. The warts disappear after a couple of weeks to months spontaneously
C. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies in keratinocytes
D. Marked thickening of epithelium
E. Vesicles on the tongue and gingiva

A

A

81
Q

The most common neoplasm of the oral cavity of dogs is derived from which of the following?
A. Melanocytes
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Gingiva
D. Lymphocytes
E. Salivary gland

A

B (peripheral odontogenic fibroma)

82
Q

What are the most frequent abnormalities of the ruminant forestomach?

A

Motility problems and ruminants microbial imbalances

83
Q

Ruminant tympany aka …, is what?

A

Bloat. Over-distention of the rumen and reticulum with gases of fermentation.

84
Q

Primary vs. secondary tympany in ruminants?

A

Primary = legume bloat/dietary bloat/frothy bloat. Usually occurs after switching to new diet
Secondary = physical or functional obstruction or stenosis of esophagus, failure to eructate.

85
Q

Pathogenesis of primary ruminant tympany (frothy or legume bloat)?

A

Graze on rapidly growing legumes - leaf cytoplasmic soluble proteins are primary foaming agents - lower pH - optimal for stable foam formation - bacterial overgrowth with slime production - methane and CO2

86
Q

What is foam composed of (primary ruminant tympany)?

A

Gas, soluble leaf proteins, and bacterial slime

87
Q

Is froth present in primary or secondary ruminant tympany?

A

Primary

88
Q

Two types of secondary ruminant tympany?

A

Obstructive - tumor, FB
Functional - oroganophosphate toxicosis, vagus n.

89
Q

T/F froth is present in secondary ruminant tympany

A

False

90
Q

Pathogenesis of ruminal lactic acidosis/grain overload which results in rumenitis?

A

Heavy ingestion or fermentable CHO’s - overgrowth of gram + and strep. Bovis and lactobacilli - ferment CHO’s to lactic acid - lowers ruminal pH - destroys Protozoa and ruminal micro flora and damages ruminal mucosa

91
Q

Three complications of lactic acid rumenitis?

A

Secondary bacterial rumenitis
Liver abscesses/necrosis
Mycotic rumenitis (fungi)

92
Q

Mycotic rumenitis occurs secondary to ruminal mucosa damage from lactic acidosis or following … administration.

A

Antibiotic

93
Q

What nerve, if damaged/inflamed, results in no movements of feed through the forestomach and abomasum in ruminants?

A

Vagus

94
Q

What plant has been shown to cause GI squamous cell carcinoma in horses and cats, as well as transitional cell carcinoma of urinary bladder of cattle?
A. Crotalaria
B. Japanese ewe
C. Dieffenbachia
D. Bracken fern
E. Chia pet

A

D

95
Q

The foam in frothy bloat is composed of the following except:
A. Bacterial slime
B. Methane
C. Cantharidins
D. Soluble leaf protein

A

C - this is what blister beetles produce that results in esophagitis/rumenitis/gastritis

96
Q

What type of gastric biopsy do pathologists prefer? Clinicians?

A

Path - transmural
Clinical - endoscopic

97
Q

Endoscopic mucosal vs. transmural biopsies?

A

Endoscopic - less invasive, better tolerate by patient, more samples can be taken, only mucosal layer observed (not deeper aspects)
Transmural - increased chance of diagnosis, all layers seen, fewer artifacts, more invasive and expensive

98
Q

Defense mechanisms of the gastric mucosal barrier?

A

Acid, mucus (contains IgA), epithelium, resident micro flora, pyloric sphincter (prevent SI reflux), vomiting reflex

99
Q

T/F puppies that have an enlarged belly after overeating have acute gastric dilatation

A

False - simple dilation

100
Q

Gastric dilation and rupture in horses occurs after consumption of what?

A

Fermentable feeds/grains. Typically idiopathic

101
Q

Displaced abomasum is particularly common in what types of cattle?

A

Dairy cows that recently gave birth (have lots of empty abdominal space)

102
Q

Gross appearance of pyloric stenosis in dogs/cats/horses?

A

Mucosal hypertrophy, muscle wall hypertrophy

103
Q

Potential causes of peptic ulcers

A

HCl, trauma, ischemia, NSAIDs

104
Q

Gastric ulcers that affects swine - which types of pigs mainly affected? Where in the stomach?

A

Rapidly growing pigs on finely ground grains, pigs that are stressed (have concurrent infection).
Stratified squamous portion of mucosa

105
Q

Gastric ulcers can develop in dogs due to histamine release from what type of tumor?

A

Mast cell tumors. Histamine binds to H2 receptors, secrcete HCl, mucosal damage

106
Q

Gastric ulcers can develop in horses that are on what type of medication?

A

NSAIDs

107
Q

What viral vesicular disease affects the mouth and coronary band of horses?
A. Foot and mouth disease
B. Vesicular stomatitis
C. Vesicular axanthema
D. Papular stomatitis
E. Contagious ecthyma

A

B

108
Q

Characteristic of chronic ulcers?

A

Raised pale lip/rim around ulcer

109
Q

Acute changes observed with gastritis and abomasitis? Chronic?

A

Acute - mucosal hyperemia, edema, hemorrhage, erosions, ulcer
Chronic - mucosal hypertrophy, ulceration, fibrosis, mineralization

110
Q

How would you test for Helicobacter spp. causing eosinophilic gastritis?

A

Urease test

111
Q

Types of parasites that cause gastritis?

A

HOT complex - Ostertagia in cattle, Trichostrongyles in sheep.
Gasterophilus in horses

112
Q

Chronic giant hypertrophic gastropathy occurs in what breeds of dogs?

A

Boxers, basenji’s, beagles, bull terrier

113
Q

Giant hypertrophic pyloric gastropahty occurs in what breeds of dog?

A

Aged small dog breeds - poodle, Pekingese, shih tzu

114
Q

What is the main benign gastric neoplasm? Malignant gastric neoplasm?

A

Benign - adenoma
Malignant - adenocarcinoma, lymphoma, squamous cell carcinoma, leiomyoma

115
Q

Rodent ulcer in cats is is caused by what inflammatory cell?

A

Eosinophils - rodent ulcer = eosinophilic granuloma complex

116
Q

Important types of cell in the intestines?

A

Epithelium, mucous cells, enterochromaffin cells, M cells, mesenchymal cells (lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, globular leukocytes)

117
Q

Non-immunologic defense mechanisms of the intestine includes?

A

Secretions (mucins, mucus) - coats and protects epithelium
Indigenous microbial flora - compete for attachment, inhibitory substances
Gastric barrier (acid and digestive enzymes)
Intestinal motility and feed movement
Epithelial turnover and repair
Bile salts - inhibit bacterial growth
Liver - second line of defense

118
Q

Immunologic defense mechanisms of the intestine includes?

A

Secretory antibodies - IgA
Cellular defense

119
Q

Diarrhea = increase in one of more of the following (3)

A

Frequency, fluid, volume

120
Q

Mechanisms of diarrhea?

A
  1. Increased permeability of mucosal epithelium
  2. Hypersecretion (mucosa is structurally intact) - usually d/t enterotoxins
  3. Exudation (increased capillary or epithelial permeability)
  4. Malabsorption/maldigestion
  5. Intestinal hypermotility
  6. Non-intestinal diseases
121
Q

Malabsorption vs. maldigestion?

A

Malabsorption = results from diminished digestion or nutrients into smaller molecules, absorptive capacity of the intestine, and/or transport of products once absorbed
Maldigestion = defective hydrolysis of nutrients, usually pancreatic in origin

122
Q

Maldigestive issues are usually pancreatic/hepatic in origin

A

Pancreatic

123
Q

Intestinal changes that could result in malabsorption?

A

Reduced mucosal SA (villus atrophy), infiltration of inflammatory and immune cells, loss of mucosal brush border enzymes, lymphatic obstruction (block transport of digested nutrients)

124
Q

Enteritis = ?
Colitis
Typhlitis
Typhlocolitis

A

Inflammation of the SI
Colon
Cecum
Colon + cecum

125
Q

Hemorrhagic enterocolitis is commonly caused by what agent?

A

Clostridium

126
Q

Fibrinonecrotic entercolitis is commonly caused by what agent?

A

Salmonella

127
Q

Ulcerative enterocolitis is commonly caused by what agent/factors?

A

BVDV, ischemia

128
Q

Suppurative or pyogranulomatous enterocolitis is commonly caused by what agent?

A

Rhodococcus

129
Q

Proliferative or hyperplastic enterocolitis is commonly caused by what agent?

A

Coccidiosis

130
Q

Granulomatous enterocolitis is commonly caused by what agent?

A

Johne’s - mycobacterium
Equine granulomatous enteritis

131
Q

Main agents that cause viral enteritis?

A

Rotavirus and coronavirus

132
Q

Rotavirus vs. coronavirus?

A

Rota - younger calves (2-9 days), yellow diarrhea
Coronavirus - older calves (4-21 days), winter dust enters in older cattle, more virulent
Both - necrosis of apical epithelium

133
Q

Bovine viral diarrhea virus: transmission routes? Forms? Gross appearance?

A

Routes = direct contact postnatal, Viremia prenatal
Forms = acute, chronic, fetal, persistent infection
Appearance = linear ulcers throughout GI tract, well-demarcated foci of necrosis in epithelium over GALT

134
Q

What is the primary antibody of the alimentary tract?

A

IgA

135
Q

The predominant inflammatory cell associated with “rodent ulcer” of the feline lip and gingiva is:

A

Eosinophils (eosinophil granuloma complex)

136
Q

Canine parvovirus enteritis: what tissue types does it infect? What blood disorder does it cause?

A

Rapidly dividing - SI crypt enterocytes, lymph nodes, myeloid stem cells
Panleukopenia

137
Q

Enterotoxigenic colibacillosis (ETEC): mechanism of action of enterotoxins produced? causes what type of diarrhea?

A

Enterotoxins induce Na+ and Cl- secretion into lumen, pulls water with it, decreased fluid absorption, dehydration
Secretory

138
Q

Enteroinvasive colibacillosis (EIEC): name of toxin produced? Name of characteristic necropsy finding?

A

Shiga
White spotted kidney disease

139
Q

Enteropathogenic colibacillosis (EPEC)/attaching and effacing E. Coli (AAEC): what structure do they form? What do they produce/inject into host cell? What structure do they disrupt?

A

Pedestals and cups
Intimin receptor
Brush border of enterocytes

140
Q

Enterotoxemic colibacillosis (edema disease in pigs): produces widespread systemic … endothelial injury

A

Vascular

141
Q

What is the basic cause of foamy bloat in ruminants?

A

Excess soluble leaf protein in the diet

142
Q

Salmonella virulence factors? Characteristic lesion if chronic in pigs?

A

Flagella, fimbriae, LPS, intraphagocyte survival, toxins
Button ulcers

143
Q

Clostridium species are categorized in types based on what?

A

The exotoxins they produce

144
Q

Clostridium perfringens type D: produces which exotoxins? Can be related to a change in … . Can cause enterotoxemia

A

Alpha and beta, diet

145
Q

Clostridium perfringens type C: produces which toxin? Why are neonates affected more often?

A

Beta. Toxins are susceptible to trypsin but colostrum has antitrypsin effect.

146
Q

Clostridium difficile: zoonotic or not? What is major risk factor for disease? Affects what species?

A

Yes, antibiotic use, primates/foals/lab animals

147
Q

Johne’s disease agent = ? Main clinical findings?

A

Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis. Hypoproteinemia, weight loss, chronic wasting, thickened mucosal folds in ileum and LI, macrophages with acid-fast bacilli.

148
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis aka … disease

A

Tyzzer’s

149
Q

How does Rhodococcus equi infiltrate the intestines? Main clinical sign?

A

Enter via M cells overlying GALT
Pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis

150
Q

Cryptosporidiosis: most common in what species/age? Location of agent?

A

Calves, intracellular and extracytoplasmic

151
Q

Verminous arthritis in horses: caused by what agent? What vessel is affected?

A

Strongylus vulgaris
Cranial mesenteric artery - supplies the bowel

152
Q

… commonly obstruct horses at the pelvic flexure of the transverse colon

A

Enteroliths

153
Q

Which of the following is the major risk factor for gastric ulcer development in pigs?
A. Increased stress
B. Helicobacter spp. infection
C. Mast cell tumor
D. Finely ground feed

A

D

154
Q

What is one of the most characteristic lesions associated with mucosal disease caused by bovine viral diarrhea virus in cattle?

A

Linear esophageal ulcers

Systemic Pathology (5 decks)

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