Exam 1 Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

The outer layer of the embryo is produced by which primary germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

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2
Q

The posterior region of the drosophila oocyte contains relatively high levels of which active protein?

A

The Caudal an Manos Gene (codes for Homeodomain Transcription Factor) develop posterior while Bicoid and Hunchback Gene develop anterior

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3
Q

If the surface tension of (B) is stronger than (a) cells will likely segregate as in:

A

If there is more surface tension in b, the cells will migrate more centrally towards b or go towards the middle.

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4
Q

Mutations affecting myostatin gene lead to

A

The muscle hypertrophy/hyperplasia is a rare genetic condition that reduces body fat and increases skeletal muscle size. If muscles stop dividing then it is an example of a gene having defective splicing.

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5
Q

Pioneer Transcription Factors

A
  1. Binds to condensed chromatins (heterochromatin)
  2. Open DNA
  3. Repress Chromatin and bind to DNA
  4. Recruits transcription factors and histones modifying enzymes that induce specific cell lineage
  5. Initiate regulatory events
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6
Q

Mutations affecting a splicing site can lead to:

A
  1. Developmental phenotypes, abnormalities, diseases and cell death
  2. They can have deletions that are needed to correct disruption in reading frames
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7
Q

True or false: Eukaryotic genes expressed in specific cell types are regulated by enhancer sequences that influence gene transcription in both time and space.

A

True, it tells the location and when gene expression occurs. Enhancers recruit transcription factors to start transcription after they have banded to promoter

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8
Q

Cadherins function via direct binding between cadherin molecules on one cell and

A

This is cell to cell adhesion

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9
Q

RNA transcripts are translated into an active protein after

A

Fertilization and post transcriptional regulation

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10
Q

The mediator complex

A

Aids in forming the transcription pre-initation complex. Subunit assembly is needed to regulate expression of RNA Polymerase II transcripts. Chromatin DNA that coils around nucleosome will bind and stabilize RNA Polymerase II and cofactors

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11
Q

Quail cells differ from chick cells for:

A

Quail eggs look different because they have heterochromatin that is concentrated around the nucleoli.
They put some quail embryos in a duck embryo and were able to trace the DNA.

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12
Q

Gene activation can result from

A

Transcription factors that bind to enhancers and promoters.
Enhancer will recruit the factors to start transcription.
Factor will bind to promoter, where RNA Polymerase II binds and they form the transcription complex.

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13
Q

Enhancers can

A
  1. Recruits transcription factors to start transcription
  2. Intensify the level
  3. Interacts with distal promoters
  4. Active genes on same chromosome
  5. Binds to different specific Transcription Factors
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14
Q

Transcription factors can

A
  1. Determine Cell Specific gene expression
  2. Silencers (repressors) will prevent transcription
  3. Promote transcriptions by binding to the promoter
  4. Master TF controls batteries of functional related genes (Ex: AB on all genes)
  5. Control on/off genes
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15
Q

Catherine can have a cytoplasmic region that binds directly to:

A

The actin cytoskeleton of a cell

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16
Q

Which nuclease is commonly found in transcriptionally repressed genes?

A

The 5th base
Modification of cytosine after DNA replication, cytosine is converted 5 methyl cytosine and blocks transcription

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17
Q

Tissue specific expression of genes can be controlled

A

Differential gene expression
By Enhancer regions of genes expressed cell types. Cell Differentiations leads to stem cells. Cells have specific features necessary for function. Specification is multistep process. Speciation that determination then differentiation. Is specification there’s still a possibility for change, but once determined it won’t change.

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18
Q

Which of the following processes is utilized for modulation of gene expression?

A

A modular transcriptional regulatory region is Pax6 as an activator of distinct gene. It needs specific transcription factors to happen. It has enhancer elements to express genes. They can be in different regions, with different enhancers.
Med 26, initiates the elongation complex.

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19
Q

miRNA can

A

Prevent translation during post transcription. Specific genes encode miRNA and can silence certain RNA that wants to be translated.

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20
Q

methylated DNA

A
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21
Q

In-situ hybridization and immune labelling using antibodies are techniques respectively used to label mRNA and proteins. Which of the following statements is true?

A
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22
Q

Which of the following concepts is true (somatic cells and genome…)?

A
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23
Q

Chromatin Immuno-Precipitation Sequencing (ChiP-Seq) is

A
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24
Q

A mouse cloned from nuclei derived from a B or T lymphocyte will

25
In cell dissociation and re-aggreation experiments the relative position of cells depends upon
26
MI430 in Zebrafish
27
Different combination of transcription factors can induce cells to acquire different fates
28
Which of the following cellular events is crucial for bat wing formation
29
Genomic imprinting is the phenomenon by which
30
SPlice variants of the Drosophila DsCam
31
How many types of histone proteins are in a condensed nucleosome?
32
Chimeric quail-chicken animals are generated to
33
Methylation of histones occurs on the amino acid
34
Methylation of histone H3 can result in
35
Developmental abnormalities can result fro exposure to exogenous agents including
36
Which process is utilized during tissue morphogenesis
37
The DNA methylation pattern in the zygote becomes modified during the processof differentiation
38
Which one of the listed proteins has a role in keeping chromatin condensed?
39
Whittaker experiment on tunicates proved that
40
Highest transcriptome similarities among vertebrate occur during.
41
A syndrome is
42
Which of the following characteristics makes the frog a good animal model for the study of development?
43
Degradation of mRNA molecules
44
Non uniform mRNA distribution within a cell can result from
45
c-Kit mutations lead to
46
Maternal mRNA in the developing Zebrafish is cleared as a the result of
47
Homologous structures
48
To de-differentiate somatic cells into a pluripotent stem cell
49
Which of the following sentences better defines what ribosomal selectivity is?
50
Reprogramming of somatic cells can be
51
Casein mRNA stability
52
Micro RNA inhibit translation by
53
Futile cycle mutants fail to go through pronuclear fusion
54
Autonomous specification
55
Autonomous
Inherited determinants
56
Conditional
Conditions/interactions with other cells effects development. Morphogens, molecules that trigger activation of different cell types based on concentrations.
57
Synacytial
Nuclei divides, there are factors in the cytoplasm that triggers differential, distinct gene expression based on its position in the blastoderm, anterior-posterior axis.
58
Molarity
Genes in a different part of the body have different enhancers and same DNA but read differently
59
2 ways to inhibits translation
1. Degrading RNA occurs if the seed complement is perfect. 2. Block transcription occurs if the seed complement is imperfect.