Exam 1 Flashcards
(198 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is true of the microbial world?
A. All microbes are harmful.
B. Humans could survive without microbes.
C. Many microbes are helpful.
D. Most microbes are pathogenic.
A
C. Many microbes are helpful
2
Q
Which of the following is when humans first suspected the existence of microbes?
A. during the Industrial Revolution
B. in prehistoric times
C. in the last century
D. within the last 500 years
A
B. in prehistoric times
3
Q
Which individual first observed unicellular organisms, which he called “animalcules,” using
a microscope he developed?
A. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Thucydides
D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
A
D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
4
Q
To reduce the risk of open flame from Bunsen burners, microbiologists are increasingly using
which of the following devices for easy, rapid benchtop sterilization of small pieces of
equipment?
A. autoclaves
B. ethylene oxide
C. incubators
D. microincinerators
A
D. microincinerators
5
Q
The Swedish botanist known for having developed an important biological classification
system is which of the following people?
A. Ernst Haeckel
B. Carolus Linnaeus
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Whittaker
A
B. Carolus Linnaeus
6
Q
Which kingdom was the only one found in Empire Prokaryota?
A. Animalia
B. Fungi
C. Monera
D. Protista
A
C. Monera
7
Q
Which are the three currently accepted domains?
A. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
B. Archaea, Prokaryota, and Eukaryota
C. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protista
D. Bacteria, Prokaryota, and Eukarya
A
A. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya
8
Q
Which two taxonomic units are typically used to identify an organism when using binomial
nomenclature?
A. domain and kingdom
B. genus and family
C. genus and species
D. phylum and class
A
C. genus and species
9
Q
Which of the following is not true about the process of fermentation?
A. It can help preserve foods, preventing spoilage.
B. It converts sugars to organic acids, alcohols, and/or gases such as carbon dioxide.
C. It is carried out exclusively by unicellular eukaryotes such as yeast.
D. It is used to make foods such as cheese and bread.
A
C. It is carried out exclusively by unicellular eukaryotes such as yeast.
10
Q
The Romans may have reduced their risk of waterborne infectious diseases by using which of
the following?
A. a variety of pharmaceutical products
B. aqueducts and a sewer system
C. prophylactic antibiotics
D. quarantine of people with leprosy
A
B. aqueducts and a sewer system
11
Q
For which of the following is Thucydides known?
A. developing an effective sewer system in ancient Greece, helping to reduce levels of
disease in cities
B. observing microbes, using a microscope, for the first time, even distinguishing between
bacteria and fungi
C. proposing that disease was caused by microorganisms
D. realizing that people who had been infected by the Athenian plague had immunity to
reinfection
A
D. realizing that people who had been infected by the Athenian plague had immunity to
reinfection
12
Q
Ernst Haeckel proposed a classification system consisting of which of the following
subgroups?
A. five kingdoms
B. four kingdoms
C. two domains and three kingdoms
D. two domains and five kingdoms
A
B. four kingdoms
13
Q
Viruses not included in phylogenetic trees for which of the following reasons?
A. It is too difficult to observe their characteristics.
B. They are acellular and nonliving.
C. They do not have any genes, which prevents genetic analysis.
D. They lack a nucleus.
A
B. They are acellular and nonliving.
14
Q
Which is the best description of the primary purpose of a phylogeny?
A. Phylogenies show all the alterative names for each species.
B. Phylogenies show all the common names for each species.
C. Phylogenies show evolutionary relatedness between organisms.
D. Phylogenies show interactions between species in a shared habitat.
A
C. Phylogenies show evolutionary relatedness between organisms.
15
Q
Current phylogenetic analyses include which of the following?
A. information from a range of sources, including morphological, genetic, and biochemical
data
B. information on visible similarities only
C. information regarding how to classify organisms on the basis of external morphological
characteristics and visible behaviors
D. varied morphological and structural characteristics, with preference for leaving historical
classifications to prevent confusion
A
A. information from a range of sources, including morphological, genetic, and biochemical
data
16
Q
. Diatoms are classified within which of the following domains?
A. Archaea
B. Bacteria
C. Eukarya
D. Prokaryota
A
C. Eukarya
17
Q
Horizontal gene transfer involves which of the following?
A. any transfer of genes in a laboratory setting
B. the transfer of genes from a virus to a bacterium or vice versa but not any other form of
gene transfer
C. the transfer of genes from one individual to another, including from one species to
another, but not from parent to offspring
D. the transfer of genes from parent to offspring
A
C. the transfer of genes from one individual to another, including from one species to
another, but not from parent to offspring
18
Q
Bacteria are generally identified to species by using which of the following?
A. a combination of genetic, biochemical, and microscopic approaches
B. a combination of microscopic and physiological approaches, but not genetics
C. primarily characteristics such as motility that can be visualized using microscopy
D. primarily morphological characteristics of individual cells
A
A. a combination of genetic, biochemical, and microscopic approaches
19
Q
For taxonomic classification of microbes, serological tests typically are used to do which of
the following?
A. determine complete genome sequences for microbes
B. identify proteins on the basis of their reaction with specific antibodies
C. run analyses to identify whether particular genes are present
D. visualize microbial external morphology
A
B. identify proteins on the basis of their reaction with specific antibodies
20
Q
Which of the following is true of bacterial strains?
A. They are closely related subtypes within a bacterial species that may or may not have similar properties.
B. They are informal bacterial groupings used for medical distinctions but not recognized for
classification purposes.
C. They are more distantly related to each other than are members of a single bacterial
species.
D. They are very similar bacteria with almost identical properties
A
A. They are closely related subtypes within a bacterial species that may or may not have similar properties.
21
Q
Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is used primarily as which of the following?
A. a guide to bacterial shapes
B. a historical account of changes in classification techniques
C. a list and characterization of all known medically relevant microbes
D. a reference for bacterial classification
A
D. a reference for bacterial classification
22
Q
Which of the following indicates how bacteria and viruses typically compare in size?
A. Bacteria are indistinguishable from viruses.
B. Bacteria are much larger than viruses.
C. Bacteria are much smaller than viruses.
D. Bacteria are similar in size to viruses.
A
B. Bacteria are much larger than viruses.
23
Q
- Viruses are classified as which of the following?
A. Archaea
B. Bacteria
C. Eukarya
D. distinct from the three-domain system
A
D. distinct from the three-domain system
24
Q
Which of the following is not a curved bacterial shape?
A. bacillus
B. spirillum
C. spirochete
D. vibrio
A
A. bacillus
25
Based just on the name, which of the following groups of bacteria contains entirely species
that consume organic compounds for food?
A. cyanobacteria
B. green nonsulfur bacteria
C. green sulfur bacteria
D. nonphotosynthetic bacteria
D. nonphotosynthetic bacteria
26
Chitin cell walls are characteristic of which taxonomic group?
A. algae
B. archaea
C. bacteria
D. fungi
D. fungi
27
Yeasts are which of the following?
A. a type of algae
B. a type of protist
C. any unicellular microbe
D. unicellular fungi
D. unicellular fungi
28
The cell walls of archaeans often contain which of the following substances?
A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. peptidoglycan
D. pseudopeptidoglycan
D. pseudopeptidoglycan
29
Which of the following is not true of archaeans?
A. Some species live on the human body.
B. They are genetically distinct from bacteria.
C. They are only found in extreme environments.
D. They have substantial metabolic differences from bacteria.
C. They are only found in extreme environments.
30
Which of the following is not true of algae?
A. All the algae are classified together in one similar group closely related to green plants.
B. Ingredients made from algae, including carrageenan, are used in food products.
C. They are being used to develop biofuels.
D. They are sometimes multicellular.
A. All the algae are classified together in one similar group closely related to green plants.
31
Oral thrush is caused by which type of organism?
A. algae
B. bacteria
C. fungi
D. protists
C. fungi
32
Mycotoxins are produced by which type of organism?
A. archaeans
B. heterotrophic protists
C. molds
D. protozoans
C. molds
33
Which of the following is not a common use of fungi?
A. the production of alcoholic beverages
B. the production of carrageenan
C. the production of cyclosporine
D. the production of penicillin
B. the production of carrageenan
34
The guinea worm is best described as which of the following?
A. a helminthic parasite transmitted by consuming contaminated water
B. a type of mold that grows into a worm-like shape and produces antimicrobial chemicals
C. a type of protist found in water that has not been properly treated
D. a type of protozoan that is unusual because it is multicellular
A. a helminthic parasite transmitted by consuming contaminated water
35
Which of the following is true of the genetics of viruses?
A. Viruses always contain DNA and force host cells to produce RNA.
B. Viruses always contain DNA and RNA.
C. Viruses always contain RNA and force host cells to produce DNA.
D. Viruses can contain either DNA or RNA, but not both.
D. Viruses can contain either DNA or RNA, but not both.
36
Which term is used to refer to a wave’s rate of vibration?
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. trough
D. wavelength
B. frequency
37
On the electromagnetic spectrum, which type of wave has the shortest wavelength?
A. cosmic ray
B. infrared ray
C. ultraviolet ray
D. visible light
A. cosmic ray
38
Dyes are often used during microscopy to increase which of the following?
A. contrast
B. magnification
C. motility
D. resolution
A. contrast
39
Which of the following was the first to use the term “cells”?
A. Robert Hooke
B. Robert Koch
C. Carolus Linnaeus
D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
A. Robert Hooke
40
Which of the following is the typical magnification of an object viewed using a 10× ocular
lens and a 100× objective lens on a brightfield microscope?
A. 1×
B. 10×
C. 100×
D. 1000×
D. 1000×
41
Most modern microscopes have two eyepieces, meaning that they are which of the
following?
A. binocular
B. monocular
C. oil immersion
D. trinocular
A. binocular
42
An annular stop is used for which type of microscopy?
A. confocal
B. darkfield
C. fluorescence
D. phase contrast
D. phase contrast
43
Which of the following is the specific name for a stain that colors the background but not the specimen?
A. acid-fast stain
B. counterstain
C. differential stain
D. negative stain
D. negative stain
44
Which type of microscopy would work best for viewing internal cell structures?
A. atomic force microscopy
B. scanning electron microscopy
C. scanning tunneling microscopy
D. transmission electron microscopy
D. transmission electron microscopy
45
The Gram-staining procedure is best described as which of the following?
A. complex staining
B. differential staining
C. negative staining
D. simple staining
B. differential staining
46
When there is a substantial difference in refractive index between two materials, which of the
following describes what will happen to light passing from one material to the other?
A. It will fail to be refracted.
B. It will undergo a large amount of refraction.
C. It will undergo a small amount of refraction.
D. It will undergo a variable amount of refraction.
B. It will undergo a large amount of refraction.
47
. In microscopy, the focal length refers to which of the following?
A. a description of the wavelength needed for an image to be in focus
B. a measure of the amount of refraction produced by a lens
C. a measure of the thickness of the lens needed for an image to be in focus
D. the distance to the image point (at which all light entering a lens is parallel)
D. the distance to the image point (at which all light entering a lens is parallel)
48
Which of the following are pigments used in microscopy to absorb and reflect light?
A. chromatographs
B. chromophores
C. oilophores
D. photophores
B. chromophores
49
Negative staining is the standard approach used to visualize which structure(s)?
A. capsules
B. endospores
C. flagella
D. nucleoid regions
A. capsules
50
Which is a standard mordant used in flagella staining?
A. basic fuchsin
B. iodine
C. safranin
D. tannic acid
D. tannic acid
51
Which of the following pairs are common acid-fast staining techniques?
A. Gram and Kinyoun
B. negative and Schaeffer-Fulton
C. Ziehl-Neelsen and Kinyoun
D. Ziehl-Neelsen and Schaeffer-Fulton
C. Ziehl-Neelsen and Kinyoun
52
Which is the primary stain used in the Ziehl-Neelsen technique?
A. acid-alcohol
B. carbolfuchsin
C. crystal violet
D. methylene blue
B. carbolfuchsin*
53
. Which is the correct order of steps in Gram staining?
A. crystal violet stain, ethanol decolorization, Gram’s iodine mordant, safranin counterstain
B. crystal violet stain, Gram’s iodine mordant, ethanol decolorization, safranin counterstain
C. ethanol stain, crystal violet rinse, safranin counterstain, Gram’s iodine mordant
D. safranin stain, Gram’s iodine mordant, ethanol decolorization, crystal violet counterstain
B. crystal violet stain, Gram’s iodine mordant, ethanol decolorization, safranin counterstain
54
It is important to fix bacterial smears on a slide for which of the following reasons?
A. to attach them to the slide
B. to cause swelling of the cell to make interior structures more visible
C. to enhance the uptake of stains
D. to provide a nutrient medium to sustain the bacteria
A. to attach them to the slide
55
Which of the following is not commonly used for chemical fixation?
A. acetic acid
B. ethanol
C. glutaraldehyde
D. iodine
D. iodine
56
Which of the following is not involved in preparing a bacterial slide for Gram staining?
A. allowing the sample to dry on the slide
B. fixing the specimen to the slide
C. placing a smear on the slide
D. preparing a wet mount
D. preparing a wet mount
57
Which of the following most specifically refers to stains with positively charged
chromophores?
A. acid-fast dyes
B. acidic dyes
C. basic dyes
D. positive dyes
C. basic dyes
58
. Which of the following most specifically refers to a stain that dyes a specimen rather than the
background?
A. counterstain
B. mordant
C. negative stain
D. positive stain
D. positive stain
59
Which of the following describes the difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen and Kinyoun
acid-fast staining techniques?
A. The Ziehl-Neelsen technique uses a counterstain and the Kinyoun technique does not.
B. The Ziehl-Neelsen technique uses an acidic dye and the Kinyoun technique does not.
C. The Ziehl-Neelsen technique uses heat and the Kinyoun technique does not.
D. The Ziehl-Neelsen technique uses two dyes and the Kinyoun technique does not.
C. The Ziehl-Neelsen technique uses heat and the Kinyoun technique does not.
60
Which of the following described the difference between gram-positive and gram-negative
cells that causes them to stain differently after Gram staining?
A. Gram-positive cells have a mycolic acid layer in their cell walls that holds in stain,
whereas gram-negative cells lack this layer.
B. Gram-positive cells have capsules and gram-negative cells have S layers.
C. Gram-positive cells have thicker cell membranes than gram-negative cells.
D. Gram-positive cells have thicker peptidoglycan layers in their cell walls than do gramnegative cells.
D. Gram-positive cells have thicker peptidoglycan layers in their cell walls than do gramnegative cells.
61
Which of the following would not potentially cause a gram-positive cell to appear gramnegative after Gram staining?
A. counterstaining with crystal violet instead of safranin
B. exposing the cells to ethanol for too long
C. using older bacterial cultures
D. using safranin as a primary stain
A. counterstaining with crystal violet instead of safranin
62
Which of the following does not cause the probe to move up and down above the specimen
in atomic force microscopy?
A. chemical bonding
B. electrostatic forces
C. van der Waals forces
D. variations in current
D. variations in current
63
Quantum tunneling of electrons is important in the mechanism underlying which microscope
type?
A. AFM
B. SEM
C. STM
D. TEM
C. STM
64
Which of the following is the chemical in some bacterial cells’ walls that makes them resist
decolorization after acid-fast staining?
A. acetic acid
B. mycolic acid
C. peptidoglycan
D. phospholipid
B. mycolic acid
65
Gram staining is useful for bacterial identification. Which of the following is another way it
is most useful?
A. Knowing Gram staining results allows a researcher to know which organisms a bacterium
can infect.
B. Knowing Gram staining results allows a researcher to select the appropriate growth
medium for optimal bacterial growth.
C. Knowing Gram staining results is helpful in choosing an effective antibiotic.
D. Knowing Gram staining results is helpful in understanding a bacterium’s metabolic
C. Knowing Gram staining results is helpful in choosing an effective antibiotic.
66
Which of the following is not true regarding capsule staining?
A. Capsules are typically stained using basic dyes.
B. Capsule staining does not require heat fixation in advance.
C. Capsule staining requires careful selection of a stain that can stain the capsule itself.
D. Capsule staining typically involves negative staining.
A. Capsules are typically stained using basic dyes.
67
Because endospores are difficult to stain, which of the following is generally needed?
A. Heat must be used to make the endospore take up stain.
B. Mycolic acid must be added to encourage the endospore to take up stain.
C. Negative staining must be used to stain endospores because they do not absorb stain.
D. The cells must be cooled to make the endospore more brittle prior to staining.
C. Negative staining must be used to stain endospores because they do not absorb stain.
68
When endospores are stained using the Schaeffer-Fulton method, which of the following
correctly describes how they appear after staining?
A. The endospore appears green within a pink cell, because only the endospore retained the
primary stain.
B. The entire cell appears green because the endospore surrounds all the vegetative material.
B. The entire cell appears pink because the endospore surrounds all the vegetative material.
C. The entire cell appears pink except for a clear area representing the endospore.
A. The endospore appears green within a pink cell, because only the endospore retained the
primary stain.
69
Specimens for TEM are prepared by doing which of the following?
A. dehydrating the specimen in ethanol and then coating it in a material that will repel
electrons
B. sputter coating with a substance such as gold to repel electrons
C. using an ultramicrotome to cut very thin sections from samples embedded in plastic resin
D. using chemical fixation, followed by standard staining techniques such as the Gram stain
C. using an ultramicrotome to cut very thin sections from samples embedded in plastic resin*
70
The idea that life could appear from nonliving materials was called which of the following?
A. the cell theory
B. the cellular genesis theory
C. the theory of biogenesis
D. the theory of spontaneous generation
D. the theory of spontaneous generation
71
The first known use of epidemiology to trace the source of a disease outbreak was the
identification of contaminated water as the cause of cholera transmission in London. Which
of the following was the physician who accomplished this?
A. Joseph Lister
B. John Needham
C. Ignaz Semmelweis
D. John Snow
D. John Snow
72
Which of the following is a series of steps for determining the causative agent of a particular
disease?
A. Koch’s postulates
B. Lister’s checklists
C. Pasteur’s principles
D. Semmelweis’ guidelines
A. Koch’s postulates
73
Which scientist performed an elegant series of experiments that finally and definitively
disproved the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. John Needham
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Francesco Redi
D. Jan Baptista van Helmont
B. Louis Pasteur
74
Prokaryotes are classified into which domain(s)?
A. Domain Archaea only
B. Domain Bacteria only
C. Domains Archaea and Bacteria only
D. Domains Bacteria and Eukarya only
C. Domains Archaea and Bacteria only
75
Which term refers to a curved rod?
A. bacillus
B. coccus
C. spirillum
D. vibrio
D. vibrio
76
When a bacterial cell with a cell wall is placed in salt water with a higher-solute
concentration than the cell cytoplasm, the cell will undergo which of the following?
A. crenation
B. crenolysis
C. lysis
D. plasmolysis
D. plasmolysis
77
The bacterial chromosome located in which of the following?
A. the capsule
B. the nucleoid region
C. the nucleus
D. the thylakoids
B. the nucleoid region
78
Which scientist thought spontaneous generation had occurred in flasks of broth after the
broth had been boiled?
A. John Needham
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Francesco Redi
D. Jan Baptista van Helmont
A. John Needham
79
Which of the following is not evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?
A. Chloroplasts and mitochondria contain ribosomes that resemble prokaryotic ribosomes.
B. Chloroplasts and mitochondria contain their own DNA that resembles prokaryotic DNA.
C. Chloroplasts and mitochondria have structures that resemble prokaryotic cell walls.
D. Chloroplasts and mitochondria reproduce using binary fission, like prokaryotic cells.
C. Chloroplasts and mitochondria have structures that resemble prokaryotic cell walls.
80
Which physician realized that doctors were causing maternal deaths by failing to wash their
hands while assisting during childbirth?
A. Girolamo Fracastoro
B. Joseph Lister
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Ignaz Semmelweis
D. Ignaz Semmelweis
81
How did Joseph Lister dramatically improve surgical outcomes?
A. by developing new antibiotics
B. by developing new ways to circulate air within surgical facilities
C. by using phenol as an antiseptic and disinfectant during surgery
D. by using vaccination against communicable diseases
C. by using phenol as an antiseptic and disinfectant during surgery
82
Sporulation generally occurs under which of the following circumstances?
A. when conditions are unfavorable or there are insufficient nutrients
B. when microbes are exposed to a new, favorable environment
C. when microbes are under little stress and can become dormant
D. when resources become highly abundant
A. when conditions are unfavorable or there are insufficient nutrients
83
Which of the following is not a difference between endospores and vegetative cells?
A. Vegetative cells are metabolically active, whereas endospores are dormant.
B. Vegetative cells are more resilient due to their metabolic activities, whereas endospores
are more sensitive to change.
C. Vegetative cells normally have enzyme activity, whereas endospores do not show
enzymatic activity
D. Vegetative cells stain easily using normal staining protocols, whereas endospores are difficult to stain without special endospore stains.
B. Vegetative cells are more resilient due to their metabolic activities, whereas endospores
are more sensitive to change.
84
Immediately following asymmetric cell division during sporulation, which of the following
structures contains the DNA and goes on to develop into an endospore?
A. cortex
B. forespore
C. hindspore
D. spore coat
B. forespore
85
Which of the following gives the correct order of the stages of sporulation?
A. Cortex formation, formation of a double layer of membrane, DNA replication, spore
release
B. DNA replication, formation of a double layer of membrane, cortex formation, spore
release
C. DNA replication, spore release, cortex formation, formation of a double layer of
membrane
D. Formation of a double layer of membrane, DNA replication, spore release, cortex
formation
B. DNA replication, formation of a double layer of membrane, cortex formation, spore
release
86
Which of the following is not a clinically significant, spore-forming bacterium?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Escherichia coli
D. Escherichia coli
87
All cells have which of the following?
A. capsule
B. cell membrane
C. cell wall
D. nucleus
B. cell membrane
88
Which term refers to proteins that extend across the plasma membrane from one side to the
other?
A. glycoproteins
B. lipoproteins
C. peripheral proteins
D. transmembrane proteins
D. transmembrane proteins
89
In which types of organisms are phospholipids with branched chains common?
A. archaea
B. bacteria
C. eukaryotes
D. all of the above
A. archaea
90
The lipopolysaccharide molecule is an important component of the cell membranes of which
organisms?
A. archaeans
B. eukaryotes
C. gram-negative bacteria
D. gram-positive bacteria
C. gram-negative bacteria
91
. Capsules and slime layers are examples of which type of structure?
A. cell walls
B. glycocalyces
C. peptidoglycan layers
D. S-layers
B. glycocalyces
92
Bacteria use flagella to move purposefully toward or away from a chemical by which of the
following?
A. having alternating runs and tumbles of equal lengths
B. increasing the length of runs and decreasing the length of tumbles
C. increasing the length of tumbles and decreasing the length of runs
D. using only runs
B. increasing the length of runs and decreasing the length of tumbles
93
. Which of the following is not a typical difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
A. Eukaryotes have ester-linked phospholipids, whereas prokaryotes have ether-linked or
ester-linked phospholipids.
B. Eukaryotic cell walls lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls (if present), whereas many
prokaryotes use peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
C. Eukaryotic cells have histones for DNA organization, whereas prokaryotic cells have
histone-like proteins or nucleoid-associated proteins involved in DNA organization.
D. Eukaryotic cells typically have circular chromosomes, whereas prokaryotic cells typically
have linear chromosomes.
D. Eukaryotic cells typically have circular chromosomes, whereas prokaryotic cells typically
have linear chromosomes.
94
. In eukaryotic cells, the function of the nucleolus is which of the following?
A. It is where all the nuclear DNA is located.
B. It is where cellular respiration takes place.
C. It is where ribosomal RNA is synthesized and ribosome assembly begins.
D. It is where transcription and translation of all gene products take place
C. It is where ribosomal RNA is synthesized and ribosome assembly begins.
95
Microfilaments are composed of which structure?
A. actin
B. desmin
C. keratin
D. tubulin
A. actin
96
Which of the following are not types of inclusions in bacterial cells?
A. carboxysomes
B. magnetosomes
C. thylakoids
D. volutin granules
C. thylakoids
97
Which of the following is not true of archaeal membranes?
A. They are sometimes monolayers.
B. They have branched phospholipids.
C. They have ether linkages instead of ester linkages.
D. They have peptidoglycan linkages attaching their membranes to their cell walls.
D. They have peptidoglycan linkages attaching their membranes to their cell walls.
98
Which cell would best be able to survive in a hypotonic environment?
A. a gram-positive bacterium in a medium containing penicillin
B. a gram-positive bacterium in a medium without antibiotics
C. an animal red blood cell
D. an archaeal cell lacking a cell wall
B. a gram-positive bacterium in a medium without antibiotics
99
For a peritrichously flagellated bacterium, which of the following results in a run?
A. alternating beating of flagella
B. alternating whip-like movements of flagella
C. clockwise flagellar rotation
D. counterclockwise flagellar rotation
D. counterclockwise flagellar rotation
100
Which of the following is true of ribosomes?
A. All prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S and eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are 80S.
B. Bacterial ribosomes are 70S, whereas archaeal and eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are
80S.
C. Organelle ribosomes and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S, whereas eukaryotic cytoplasmic
ribosomes are 80S.
D. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, but eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are variable in size.
C. Organelle ribosomes and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S, whereas eukaryotic cytoplasmic
ribosomes are 80S.
101
. Which of the following is not part of the endomembrane system?
A. lysosomes
B. mitochondria
C. the Golgi apparatus
D. the rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
102
Which of the following are anchored into the plasma membrane by a basal body composed of
nine triplets of microtubules?
A. eukaryotic cilia only
B. eukaryotic flagella only
C. eukaryotic cilia and flagella only
D. prokaryotic flagella only
C. eukaryotic cilia and flagella only
103
Which best describes the function of cristae?
A. They aid in the proper trafficking of vesicles around eukaryotic cells.
B. They are compartments for digestive enzyme storage in eukaryotic cells.
C. They increase the surface area for reactions associated with cellular respiration.
D. They provide a location for the light reactions of photosynthesis in plant cells.
C. They increase the surface area for reactions associated with cellular respiration.
104
Which is the best example of a population?
A. all the microbes living in a particular area
B. all the microbes of a particular domain living in a particular area
C. all the microbes of a single species living in a particular area
D. all the microbes living within the same host
C. all the microbes of a single species living in a particular area
105
Microbial ecology is defined as the study of which of the following?
A. competitive interactions between microbes
B. cooperative interactions between microbes
C. interactions between individuals of a single species
D. interactions between microbial populations and their environment
D. interactions between microbial populations and their environment
106
Which term best describes the relationship between pathogenic bacteria and humans?
A. amensalism
B. commensalism
C. parasitism
D. predation
C. parasitism
107
Which of the following is not a class within the phylum Proteobacteria?
A. Alphaproteobacteria
B. Betaproteobacteria
C. Deltaproteobacteria
D. Omegaproteobacteria
D. Omegaproteobacteria
108
Which of the following correctly characterizes Epsilonproteobacteria?
A. They are atypical (not gram positive or gram negative).
B. They are gram negative.
C. They are gram positive.
D. They are gram variable.
B. They are gram negative.
109
Which describes bacteria that require low concentrations of oxygen to survive (less than that
in the current atmosphere)?
A. facultative anaerobes
B. microaerophiles
C. obligate aerobes
D. obligate anaerobes
B. microaerophiles
110
Cyanobacteria produce which of the following?
A. hydrogen sulfide gas
B. large quantities of ammonia
C. oxygen
D. sulfuric acid
C. oxygen
111
Which of the following bacterial groups is thought to be most closely related to the last
universal common ancestor?
A. Alphaproteobacteria
B. cyanobacteria
C. deeply branching bacteria
D. green filamentous bacteria
C. deeply branching bacteria
112
Which of the following is a phylum in Domain Archaea?
A. Crenarchaeotae
B. Deinococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Thermotogae
A. Crenarchaeotae
113
. Which genus contains the nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in legume nodules?
A. Bacillus
B. Escherichia
C. Rhizobium
D. Vibrio
C. Rhizobium
114
Approximately what percentage of prokaryotes are thought to be pathogens?
A. <1%
B. 12%
C. 26%
D. 48%
A. <1%
115
Two species of bacteria live near each other and use similar food resources. Which type of
biological interaction does this describe?
A. a competitive interaction
B. a cooperative interaction
C. a mutualistic interaction
D. a parasitic interaction
A. a competitive interaction
116
Which of the following is a source of vitamin K for humans?
A. Bacteroides thetaiotetraiotamicron digests foods, which release vitamin K.
B. Escherichia coli in their digestive tract produces vitamin K.
C. S. epidermidis releases vitamin K from dead cells.
D. their diet only
B. Escherichia coli in their digestive tract produces vitamin K.
117
The human microbiome consists of which of the following?
A. all microbes present on or in the body
B. pathogenic microbes only
C. resident microbes only
D. transient microbes only
A. all microbes present on or in the body
118
The most common bacterial genus found in plaque on teeth is which of the following?
A. Fusobacterium
B. Haemophilus
C. Lactobacillus
D. Streptococcus
A. Fusobacterium
119
Who authored A Manual in Determinative Bacteriology, published in 1923?
A. David Bergey
B. Robert Koch
C. Barry Marshall and Robin Warren
D. Louis Pasteur
A. David Bergey
120
Which of the following cannot be classified as either gram positive or gram negative on the basis of the Gram staining protocol?
A. Bacillus
B. Escherichia
C. Mycoplasma
D. Vibrio
C. Mycoplasma
121
Bordetella pertussis is an example of which group of organisms?
A. Cytophaga-Flavobacterium-Bacteroides
B. high G+C bacteria
C. Proteobacteria
D. spirochetes
C. Proteobacteria
122
Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis, is an example of which group of
organisms?
A. CFB group
B. planctomycetes
C. proteobacteria
D. spirochetes
D. spirochetes
123
Which of the following correctly describes the microscopic morphology of Bacteroides?
A. gram-negative bacilli
B. gram-negative cocci
C. gram-positive bacilli
D. gram-positive cocci
A. gram-negative bacilli
124
Which best describes the metabolic activities of purple sulfur bacteria?
A. They are capable of nitrogen fixation, fixing nitrogen gas into nitrates and ammonia.
B. They are heterotrophic and break down organic compounds to obtain energy.
C. They use light energy to oxidize hydrogen sulfide, producing sulfur and sulfuric acid.
D. They use light energy to oxidize organic compounds such as sugars.
C. They use light energy to oxidize hydrogen sulfide, producing sulfur and sulfuric acid.
125
How do Archaea differ from Bacteria?
A. Archaea are found exclusively in extreme habitats.
B. Archaea have ether linkages in their cell membranes.
C. Archaea have peptidoglycan cell walls.
D. Archaea lack a nucleus.
B. Archaea have ether linkages in their cell membranes.
126
Which of the following correctly describes the metabolism of methanogens?
A. They oxidize CO2.
B. They oxidize H2S.
C. They produce CH4.
D. They produce N2 gas.
C. They produce CH4.
127
Which best describes Halobacterium salinarum?
A. It is a type of methanogen.
B. It is abundant in temperate environments.
C. It is an example of the deeply branching bacteria.
D. It is one of the oldest archaea.
D. It is one of the oldest archaea.
128
Which of the following is the correct classification for the methanogens?
A. Archaea
B. low G+C bacteria
C. Proteobacteria
D. spirochetes
A. Archaea
129
Which best describes Crenarchaeota?
A. aquatic archaea abundant in oceans
B. aquatic bacteria abundant in oceans
C. archaea that cause dental disease
D. pathogenic bacteria that infect animals
A. aquatic archaea abundant in oceans
130
The LPSN refers to which of the following?
A. a guide to bacterial identification
B. a list of approved bacterial names
C. a taxonomic key to aid identification of bacteria
D. an overview of current bacterial systematics
B. a list of approved bacterial names
131
Which of the following is not a genus of Betaproteobacteria?
A. Bordetella
B. Chlamydia
C. Leptothrix
D. Thiobacillus
B. Chlamydia
132
Which of the following bacterial genera is microaerophilic?
A. Bdellovibrio
B. Campylobacter
C. Klebsiella
D. Pseudomonas
B. Campylobacter
133
Rhodospirillum, a genus capable of fixing nitrogen, is a type of which of the following?
A. green nonsulfur bacteria
B. green sulfur bacteria
C. purple nonsulfur bacteria
D. purple sulfur bacteria
C. purple nonsulfur bacteria
134
Which genus, believed to be the deepest-branching archaeal genus, has flagella and is strictly
anaerobic?
A. Methanosarcina
B. Pyrolobus
C. Sulfolobus
D. Thermoproteus
D. Thermoproteus
135
Which best describes the class Halobacteria?
A. archaeans that require highly saline environments
B. archaeans that require methane-rich environments
C. bacteria that require highly arid environments
D. bacteria that require highly saline environments
A. archaeans that require highly saline environments
136
Methanobrevibacter oralis is an example of which type of organism?
A. a bacterium that takes advantage of the conditions caused by immunosuppression, as can
occur during cancer treatment
B. a pathogenic archaean
C. a pathogenic bacterium
D. an archaean that takes advantage of the conditions caused by periodontal disease to grow;
may or may not affect disease progression
D. an archaean that takes advantage of the conditions caused by periodontal disease to grow; may or may not affect disease progression
137
A toga is which of the following?
A. a structure produced by the fungus Tolypocladium inflatum that has medicinal uses
B. an outer membrane found in a taxon within the deeply branching bacteria
C. an outer peptidoglycan layer found in a taxon within the proteobacteria
D. an unusual cell wall found in some archaeans
B. an outer membrane found in a taxon within the deeply branching bacteria
138
Protozoa are best described as being:
A. nonphotosynthetic multicellular microorganisms
B. nonphotosynthetic unicellular microorganisms
C. photosynthetic multicellular microorganisms
D. photosynthetic unicellular microorganisms
B. nonphotosynthetic unicellular microorganisms
139
Which of the following best describes zooplankton?
A. eukaryotes that are nonphotosynthetic and motile
B. eukaryotes that are photosynthetic and motile
C. prokaryotes that are nonphotosynthetic and nonmotile
D. prokaryotes that are photosynthetic and nonmotile
A. eukaryotes that are nonphotosynthetic and motile
140
Where is the pellicle found within a protozoan?
A. as part of cilia
B. beneath the cell membrane
C. surrounding the nucleus
D. within chloroplasts
B. beneath the cell membrane
141
Which of the following is not a structure used for locomotion by protists?
A. cilia
B. contractile vacuoles
C. flagella
D. pseudopods
B. contractile vacuoles
142
tructures that extend from the surface of the cell?
A. cilia
B. contractile vacuoles
C. flagella
D. pseudopods
A. cilia
143
Pseudopod formation requires which cytoskeletal component?
A. actin filaments
B. collagen fibers
C. intermediate filaments
D. microtubules
A. actin filaments
144
The organelle in protists that regulates osmolarity is known as which of the following?
A. contractile vacuole
B. hydrogenosome
C. kinetoplasmid
D. plasmalemma
A. contractile vacuole
145
Cytoprocts are specialized structures that carry out which cellular process?
A. endocytosis
B. exocytosis
C. phagocytosis
D. syngamy
B. exocytosis
146
Which organism is best known as the “brain-eating amoeba”?
A. Acanthamoeba keratitis
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Naegleria fowleri
D. Naegleria fowleri
147
An important slime mold used in research is Dictyostelium discoideum. In this species,
individual amoeboid cells that aggregate into multicellular mobile slugs, each forming a
fruiting body that produces haploid spores, are known as which of the following?
A. cellular slime molds
B. plasmodium slime molds
C. pseudohyphae
D. sporangia
A. cellular slime molds
148
During the asexual life cycle described in the textbook, cellular slime molds produce which
of the following?
A. gametes
B. spores
C. gametes and spores
D. neither gametes nor spores
B. spores
149
Plasmodial slime molds produce which of the following:
A. gametes but no spores
B. gametes that divide into spores
C. spores but no gametes
D. spores that divide into gametes
D. spores that divide into gametes
150
The apical complex of Apicomplexans such as Plasmodium is involved in which cellular
process?
A. binary fission
B. entry into host cell. phagocytosis
D. photosynthesis
B. entry into host cell.
151
Which of the following is a parasitic ciliate?
A. Balantidium coli
B. Escherichia coli
C. Paramecium caudatum
D. Stentor coeruleus
A. Balantidium coli
152
. The stigma (eyespot) in members of Euglenozoa functions in which of the following?
A. chemotaxis
B. conjugation
C. photosynthesis
D. phototaxis
D. phototaxis
153
African sleeping sickness is caused by which pathogen?
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Trypanosoma bruceii
D. Trypanosoma bruceii
154
Cestodes are often transmitted via which of the following?
A. aerosols
B. open wounds in the skin
C. undercooked meats
D. water
C. undercooked meats
155
The cell walls of fungi are largely composed of which of the following?
A. cellulose
B. chitin
C. peptidoglycan
D. starch
B. chitin
156
Which of the following includes fungi used as food (such as truffles), bread molds, and
pathogenic fungi such as Trichophyton?
A. Ascomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Chytridiomycota
D. Zygomycota
A. Ascomycota
157
Most mushrooms and puffballs are members of which fungal phylum?
A. Ascomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Chytridiomycota
D. Zygomycota
B. Basidiomycota
158
Which of the following include fungi that are obligate intracellular pathogens?
A. Ascomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Microsporidia
D. Zygomycota
C. Microsporidia
159
Which fungus is common in the microbiota of a healthy individual?
A. Aspergillus aculeatus
B. Candida albicans
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Rhizopus stolonifera
B. Candida albicans
160
The mode of reproduction for chytrids (Chytridiomycota) uses which of the following?
A. asci
B. basidia
C. motile gametes
D. zygospores
C. motile gametes
161
To produce spores, some fungi use club-shaped structures called which of the following?
A. asci
B. basidia
C. plastids
D. zygospores
B. basidia
162
Fungi have an important role in nutrient cycling as which of the following?
A. decomposers
B. primary consumers
C. producers
D. secondary consumer
A. decomposers
163
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Fungi can be autotrophic or heterotrophic.
B. Fungi can be pathogenic, mutualistic, or neither.
C. Fungi can be unicellular or multicellular.
D. Fungi have eukaryotic cells.
A. Fungi can be autotrophic or heterotrophic.
164
The types of algae are mainly grouped according to which of the following?
A. the size of their cells
B. their chloroplast types
C. their pigment types
D. where they are found
C. their pigment types
165
A lichen results from the mutualistic relationship between fungi and which of the following?
A. cyanobacteria or algae
B. green plants
C. heterotrophic bacteria
D. protozoans
A. cyanobacteria or algae
166
The source of agar, which is typically used in the microbiology laboratory, is which of the
following?
A. brown algae
B. green algae
C. red algae
D. lichen
C. red algae
167
Lichens attach to a surface using which structure?
A. capsules
B. cilia
C. flagella
D. rhizines
D. rhizines
168
Which of the following is not a property of a virus?
A. It is an infectious cellular pathogen.
B. It is an obligate intracellular pathogen.
C. Its genome consists of DNA or RNA.
D. Its genome is surrounded by a protein capsid.
A. It is an infectious cellular pathogen.
169
Which of the following is the scientist responsible for first discovering viruses (specifically,
tobacco mosaic virus)?
A. Dimitri Ivanovski
B. Edward Jenner
C. Henrietta Lacks
D. Stanley Prusiner
A. Dimitri Ivanovski
170
The protein subunits that surround the nucleic acid of a virus are known as which of the
following?
A. amino acids
B. capsomeres
C. chromatins
D. telomeres
B. capsomeres
171
Arthropods typically serve as which mechanism of transmission for viruses?
A. biological vector
B. fomite
C. mechanical vector
D. both as fomites and as vectors
A. biological vector
172
Which unit of length best describes the average size of a virion?
A. mm
B. µm
C. nm
D. pm
C. nm
173
Viruses can be visualized using which method?
A. compound light microscope
B. electron microscope
C. the naked eye
D. ultraviolet rays
B. electron microscope
174
The Baltimore Classification system describes viruses according to which characteristic?
A. capsid shape
B. host-cell susceptibility
C. the presence or absence of an envelope
D. the viral genome
D. the viral genome
175
Which of the following properly lists (in order) the steps of viral replication?
A.
Attachment> Lysis> Penetration> Biosynthesis >Maturation
B.
Attachment >Penetration> Biosynthesis >Maturation >Lysis
C.
Biosynthesis >Attachment >Penetration >Lysis >Maturation
D.Penetration >Biosynthesis >Lysis >Attachment >Maturation
Attachment >Penetration> Biosynthesis >Maturation >Lysis
176
In the lysogenic cycle of bacteriophages, the integrated phage genome is known as which of
the following?
A. prophage
B. provirus
C. virioid
D. virion
A. prophage
177
In retroviruses, the integrated phage genome is known as which of the following?
A. prophage
B. provirus
C. virioid
D. virion
B. provirus
178
Which mechanism of horizontal gene transfer relies on the use of viruses?
A. conjugation
B. mutation
C. transduction
D. transformation
C. transduction
179
A bacteriophage infects a host cell and the genome integrates itself into the host
chromosome. Sometime later, the phage is excised along with a short piece of DNA adjacent
to the insertion point. Both the phage DNA and the host DNA are packaged into the same
capsid. The bacteriophage then infects a new cell, delivering both phage and bacterial DNA.
Which process is being described in this scenario?
A. The lysogenic cycle, reactivating as the lytic cycle, followed by generalized transduction
B. The lysogenic cycle, reactivating as the lytic cycle, followed by specialized transduction
C. The lytic cycle, reactivating as the lysogenic cycle, followed by generalized transduction
D. The lytic cycle, reactivating as the lysogenic cycle, followed by specialized transduction
B. The lysogenic cycle, reactivating as the lytic cycle, followed by specialized transduction
180
(−)ssRNA is transcribed into (+)ssRNA using which of the following?
A. DNA polymerase encoded by the host cell
B. DNA polymerase encoded by the virus
C. RNA polymerase encoded by the host cell
D. RNA polymerase encoded by the virus
D. RNA polymerase encoded by the virus
181
Which of the following is a novel enzyme found in retroviruses?
A. forward transcriptase
B. retrotranscriptase
C. reverse transcriptase
D. Taq polymerase
C. reverse transcriptase
182
Reverse transcriptase is used to generate which nucleic acid from RNA?
A. cDNA
B. dsRNA
C. (+)ssRNA
D. (−)ssRNA
A. cDNA
183
Which of the following is the host-cell receptor that recognizes human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV)?
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. Gp120
D. sialic acid
A. CD4
184
Which of the following viruses does not cause latent infections?
A. adenovirus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. herpes simplex virus
D. varicella-zoster virus
A. adenovirus
185
Chicken pox can reemerge as which disease?
A. cowpox
B. genital warts
C. shingles
D. smallpox
C. shingles
186
The excision of the viral genome from the host chromosome is known as which of the
following?
A. induction
B. lysogeny
C. phage conversion
D. transduction
A. induction
187
Which statement regarding the introduction of virus in eggs is true?
A. Pox can form on the embryo.
B. The virus cannot be introduced into the yolk sac.
C. The virus will not kill the embryo if it is introduced early in development.
D. Virus introduction will not disrupt embryonic development.
A. Pox can form on the embryo.
188
The liquid portion of blood that does not contain clotting factors is known as which of the
following?
A. erythrocytes
B. plasma
C. platelets
D. serum
D. serum
189
Which method cannot be used to detect virus in a patient’s serum?
A. EIA
B. hemagglutinin assay
C. growth in pure culture
D. RT-PCR
C. growth in pure culture
190
You are a nurse and you suspect that you may have been exposed to a particular virus. You
and your health care provider decide to perform a hemagglutinin assay. A sample of your
serum is taken and added to a sample of virus. Next, the virus and serum sample are added to
erythrocytes. Upon examination, you do not see any agglutination occurring. Which can you
conclude from these results?
A. The test result suggests you may have been exposed to the virus, and your serum contains
antibodies against the virus.
B. The test result suggests you may have been exposed to the virus, but your serum does not
contain antibodies against the virus.
C. The test result suggests you may not have been exposed to the virus.
D. You cannot make a conclusion from the information given.
A. The test result suggests you may have been exposed to the virus, and your serum contains
antibodies against the virus.
191
Which effect does tomato planta macho viroids have on the crop?
A. browning of fruit
B. crown-gall formation
C. loss of chlorophyll
D. lysis of root cells
C. loss of chlorophyll
192
. Which scientist first discovered prions?
A. Dimitri Ivanovski
B. Edward Jenner
C. Henrietta Lacks
D. Stanley Prusiner
D. Stanley Prusiner
193
Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies, such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, are caused
by which of the following?
A. bacterium
B. fungus
C. prion
D. virus
C. prion
194
How is kuru transmitted?
A. bloodborne transmission
B. contaminated neurosurgical instruments
C. eating contaminated cattle meat
D. eating infected meat through cannibalism
D. eating infected meat through cannibalism
195
An acellular entity composed of a small circular RNA molecule without a capsid and capable
of replicating its genome is known as which of the following?
A. satellite RNA
B. virion
C. viroid
D. virusoid
C. viroid
196
An acellular entity composed of a small circular RNA molecule without a capsid and is not
capable of replicating its genome is known as which of the following?
A. provirus
B. virion
C. viroid
D. virusoid
D. Virusoid
197
Although there are no current treatments for prion infections, which of the following could
be used?
A. antibiotics
B. nucleases
C. proteases
D. sulfa drugs
C. proteases
198
