Exam 1 Flashcards
(157 cards)
1
Q
Deadliest cancer
A
Lung
2
Q
Most common cancer
A
Non-melanoma skin
3
Q
2nd most common cancer
A
Prostate in men, breast in women
4
Q
3rd most common cancer
A
Lung
5
Q
4th most common cancer
A
Colorectal
6
Q
5th most common cancer
A
Bladder in men, uterine corpus in women
7
Q
2nd deadliest
A
Prostate in men, breast in women
8
Q
3rd deadliest
A
Colorectal
9
Q
6th most common cancer
A
Melanoma
10
Q
4th deadliest
A
Pancreatic
11
Q
5th deadliest
A
Liver in men, ovarian in women
12
Q
Adenoma
A
Benign glandular tumor
13
Q
Adenocarcinoma
A
Malignant glandular tumor
14
Q
Basal cell adenoma
A
Benign basal cell tumor
15
Q
Basal cell carcinoma
A
Malignant basal cell tumor
16
Q
Keratoacanthoma
A
Benign squamous cell tumor
17
Q
Squamous cell carcinoma
A
Malignant squamous cell tumor
18
Q
Mole
A
Benign pigmented cell tumor
19
Q
Melanoma
A
Malignant pigmented cell tumor
20
Q
Teratoma
A
Benign multipotential cell tumor
21
Q
Teratocarcinoma
A
Malignant multipotential cell tumor
22
Q
Chondroma
A
Benign cartilaginous tumor
23
Q
Chondrosarcoma
A
Malignant cartilaginous tumor
24
Q
Fibroma
A
Benign fibroblast tumor
25
Fibrosarcoma
Malignant fibroblast tumor
26
Hemangioma
Benign blood vessel tumor
27
Hemangiosarcoma
Malignant blood vessel tumor
28
Leiomyoma
Benign smooth muscle tumor
29
Leiomyosarcoma
Malignant smooth muscle tumor
30
Lipoma
Benign adipose tumor
31
Liposarcoma
Malignant adipose tumor
32
Meningioma
Benign Meninges tumor
33
Meningiosarcoma
Malignant meninges tumor
34
Myoma
Benign muscle tumor
35
Myosarcoma
Malignant muscle tumor
36
Osteoma
Benign bone tumor
37
Osteosarcoma
Malignant bone tumor
38
Rhabdomyoma
Benign striated muscle tumor
39
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Malignant striated muscle tumor
40
Lymphoma
Malignant lymphocyte tumor (lymphocytic leukemia)
41
Erythrocytic leukemia
Malignant erythrocyte tumor
42
Myeloma
Malignant bone marrow tumor (myelogenous leukemia)
43
Carcinoma
Malignant cancer of epithelial tissue
44
Sarcoma
Malignant cancer of mesoderm-derived tissue
45
Leukemia
Malignant cancer of blood/lymphatic origin
46
Which types of skin cancer are so common that they are usually counted in most data sets?
Basal cell carcinomas and squamous cell carcinomas
47
What percentage of estimated new cancer cases are lung cancers?
12.2%
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What percentage of lung cancers are a result of tobacco use?
~80-90%
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How are cancer data sets compared between different populations?
Age-adjusted incidence per 100,00 people per year
50
Benign tissue histology
Normal tissue organization
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Malignant tumor histology
tissue is disorganized; tumor borders are irregular
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Normal nucleus:cytoplasm
low; lots of cytoplasm
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Cancer nucleus:cytoplasm
high, barely any cytoplasm around nucleus
54
Normal cell growth
slow
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Cancerous cell growth
can be slow or very rapid
56
What is one In vitro experiment used to determine anchorage-independent growth?
If cells grow well after settling AND while being suspended, they are anchorage-independent and likely cancerous
57
What is an In vitro experiment used to determine contact inhibition?
Cells are allowed to grow in flask. If cells form a monolayer and stop dividing, contact inhibition occurs. If cells continue dividing, they are likely cancerous
58
What are nude mice?
Athymic mice lack thymus and T cells and are immunodeficient. Used to test if cells are cancerous In vivo
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What is anoikis?
When cells that become unanchored from the ECM undergo apoptosis
60
Hypertrophy
Increase in cell size, normal tissue organization
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Hyperplasia
Increase in cell number, normal tissue organization
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Dysplasia
Disorganized growth
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Neoplasia
Disorganized growth and net increase in number of dividing cells
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Metaplasia
The replacement of differentiated somatic cells with different differentiated somatic cells
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Anaplasia
Loss of specialized features of a cell or tissue
66
How does malignant growth affect the basement membrane?
Cells break through the basal lamina and can spread to other body regions
67
What are the main cause of human cancer?
Age, environmental factors, and heredity
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Transdifferentiation
Transformation of cells other than stem cells into a different cell type
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epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT)
cells lose epithelial cell traits and gaining mesenchymal cell traits
70
What percentage of cancer deaths are due to metastasis
>90%
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What are some examples of tumor suppressor genes?
Growth inhibitors and DNA repair proteins (p53)
72
What is an example of an oncogene?
Mutated growth inducer
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What is the main restriction point in the cell cycle?
The border between G1 and S
74
What are the categories of chemical carcinogens
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, heterocyclic aromatic amines, nitrosamines and nitrosamides, alkylating agents, fibrous minerals: asbestos and erionite
75
How does DMBA act as a carcinogen?
Forms adduct with DNA bases, causing mutation. Functions as initiator to promotion of tumor formation from croton oil
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What is the Multistep Theory of Chemical Carcinogenesis?
Initiation: exposure to chemical, DNA mutation, precancerous cells; Promotion: proliferation of cells; Progression: cells accumulate mutations selected for more aggressive traits
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Depurination
Purine base is hydrolyzed from DNA
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Deamination
Amine group is removed from Cytosine, forming Uracil
79
Pyrimidine dimer
Pyrimidine bases on the same strand dimerize
80
Which forms of radiation cause DNA damage
UV (mainly UVB and UVC) and Ionizing radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, alpha particles, and beta particles)
81
Alpha particles
Positively charged, 2 neutrons and 2 protons, can't penetrate paper
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Beta particles
Negatively charged electrons, can't penetrate metal or wood
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gamma rays
EM radiation emitted by alpha and beta particles, can penetrate deep into concrete
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UVA
Causes skin aging and cell proliferation
85
UVB
Causes sunburn, skin aging, and pyrimidine dimers
86
UVC
Causes severe burns; filtered out by ozone layer
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Types of DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation
Base alteration, base removal, single- and double-stranded breaks
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Electron volt (eV)
expresses total energy
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Gray (Gy)
expresses the energy absorbed when radiation acts on biological tissue
90
Relative Biological effectiveness (RBE)
expresses damage caused by radiation and is measures in sieverts (Sv)
91
Background Equivalent Radiation Time (BERT)
Compares standard daily radiation with what will be experienced in other scenarios
92
Ames test procedure
Bacteria requiring histidine is grown on media without histidine supplemented with the substance being tested mixed with liver homogenate
93
Why are some animal carcinogens not detected by the Ames test?
Some carcinogens require other substances to exert their mutagenic effect
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Genetic effects of chemical carcinogens
Direct mutagenesis on DNA
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Epigenetic effects of chemical carcinogens
Carcinogenic effects without mutating effects (affects cell signaling, RNAi, etc.)
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Most lethal commercial product
Tobacco causes lung cancer
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2nd most lethal commercial product
Asbestos causes mesothelioma
98
2-naphthylamine
Similar to aniline (purple dye) causes bladder cancer
99
Butadiene
From ship channel; causes leukemia
100
Acrylamide
Used in cooking, industry, and labs; binds to DNA and causes damage
101
How is mesothelioma different from lung cancer?
Lung cancer is cancer of lung interior; mesothelioma is cancer of pleural tissue on exterior of lung
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Linear model of cancer development
As carcinogen dose increases, cancer rate increases linearly
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Threshold model of cancer development
Cancer rate increases linearly once carcinogen dose reaches a certain threshold
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Hormetic model of cancer development
At low doses, carcinogen may actually prevent cancer
105
Iatrogenic causes
Prescription drugs that cause cancer
106
Maximum Tolerated Dose (MTD)
Maximum dose of carcinogen that does not present immediate life-threatening toxicity or significant weight loss
107
Dose effect
Longer exposure to carcinogen increases risk
108
Delayed Effect
cancer occurs long after initial exposure to carcinogen
109
How was the Rous sarcoma virus studied?
Sarcoma was removed form one chicken, ground into fine particles, and injected into a second chicken. The second chicken then presented the same sarcoma.
110
What type of virus is the Rous sarcoma virus?
Retrovirus
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Provirus
virus that inserts its genome into the host's genome
112
What gene is key to the Rous sarcoma virus transformation process?
v-src (codes for constitutively active tyrosine receptor)
113
What is the proposed origin of viral oncogenes?
Proviral DNA is replicated from host genome along with an adjacent proto-oncogene. Proto-oncogene eventually mutates into oncogene with subsequent viral replications
114
Which country has highest rate of stomach cancer?
Japan
115
Which bacteria is linked to stomach cancers?
Heliobacter pylori
116
How does prolonged inflammation cause cancer?
By promoting mutation and proliferation
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Mutator phenotype
DNA repair genes are mutated, so mutations accumulate more easily
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One-step DNA repair
One enzyme makes simple repair. Ex: alkyltransferase removes alkyl group added to base
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Base Excision Repair (BER)
Corrects oxidation, deamination, and alkylation of base. DNA glycosylase removes the base, then endonuclease cuts backbone, then DNA pol and ligase replace base and seal strand
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Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)
Repair proteins scan DNA and identify site. Endonuclease removes several nucleotides from one strand. DNA repaired by DNA pol and ligase. Carried out by XP proteins
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Mismatch repair
MutS recognizes mismatch. MutL is recruited and excises flanking DNA on one strand (endonuclease). DNA pol and ligase repair
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Homologous Recombination
Repairs double-strand breaks. Broken ends of DNA are paired with unwound sister chromatid. Strands are repaired, disengaged, and paired. Done by BRCA1 and BRCA2
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Non-homologous end-joining
Repairs double-strand breaks. Broken ends of DNA are brought together, and strands are filled in. Some base pairs originally present are missing.
124
Endogenous mutation
spontaneous (like from replication errors)
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Exogenous mutation
from environmental factors
126
Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Arises from mutations in XP proteins responsible for NER. Unable to repair damage caused by UV
127
Which mutated DNA repair proteins are associated with inherited breast cancer
BRCA1 and BRCA2
128
Which genomic location has the highest percentage of associated SNPs in most cancers
Intergenic sequences between genes
129
Super-enhancers
large clusters of enhancer elements with high levels of TF binding; central to stimulating oncologic transcription
130
Heterochromatin
densely packed
131
Euchromatin
loosely packed
132
Histone
protein associated with DNA
133
Nucleosome
Complex of DNA wrapped around histone octamer
134
Histone acetyltransferase (HAT)
Acetylation promotes transcription
135
Histone deacetylase (HDAC)
Deacetylation inhibits transcription
136
DNA methyltransferase (DMNT)
Methylation of cytosine recruits methyl-binding proteins to interact with HDACs and inhibit transcription. Methyl cytosine spontaneously deaminates to thymine.
137
How to find methylated DNA
Treat with sodium bisulfite; causes unmethylated cytosine to convert to uracil
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Oncomir
miRNA that acts as an oncogene
139
How does miRNA regulate mRNA expression?
miRNA is transcribed and modified, eventually becoming mature ds miRNA after Dicer. The strands separate and form the RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex) with Ago (argonaut; endonuclease). RISC complex binds to mRNA at the 3' UTR and either degrades it or prevents ribosomes from binding
140
What is an example of a point mutation activating an oncogene?
RAS gene has point mutation, causing an amino acid change and disabling the protein
141
What is an example of gene amplification activating an oncogene?
ERBB2 is amplified in 25% of breast and ovarian cancers
142
Double minutes (DM)
small independent chromosome-like bodies
143
Homogenously Staining Regions (HSR)
Amplified gene stains homogenously instead of normal light and dark bands
144
Example of translocation activation of oncogene
Philadelphia chromosome resulting from fusion of BCL-ABR
145
Local gene rearrangements
Deletions, insertions, transpositions, and Inversions
146
Example of gene rearrangements activating an oncogene
NTRK1 (growth factor receptor) and TPM3 (tropomyosin) become fused, locking NTRK1 in active dimerized state
147
Example of insertional mutagenesis
Avian leukosis virus inserts near myc oncogene, causing it to be expressed
148
Inhibition of miRNA
Results in the protein being overexpressed
149
What are the three mechanisms known to activate myc?
Gene amplification, insertional mutagenesis, and chromosome translocation
150
How is Ras usually activated?
point mutation
151
Why can't all oncogenes be identified with the transfection method?
Sometimes single oncogenes are not enough to transform cells (multi-hit hypothesis)
152
What may oncogenes behave like?
Growth factors, GF receptors, Intracellular signal transducers, Transcription factors
153
Why is ecDNA more transcribed than chromosomal DNA?
ecDNA exhibits lower-order contraction
154
Molecular target of Iressa
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
155
Molecular target of Gleevec
Abl gene (Philadelphia chromosome)
156
Which amino acids can be phosphorylated?
Serine, Threonine, and Tyrosine
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