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BIOL450 - Cancer Biology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Deadliest cancer

A

Lung

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2
Q

Most common cancer

A

Non-melanoma skin

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3
Q

2nd most common cancer

A

Prostate in men, breast in women

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4
Q

3rd most common cancer

A

Lung

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5
Q

4th most common cancer

A

Colorectal

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6
Q

5th most common cancer

A

Bladder in men, uterine corpus in women

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7
Q

2nd deadliest

A

Prostate in men, breast in women

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8
Q

3rd deadliest

A

Colorectal

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9
Q

6th most common cancer

A

Melanoma

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10
Q

4th deadliest

A

Pancreatic

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11
Q

5th deadliest

A

Liver in men, ovarian in women

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12
Q

Adenoma

A

Benign glandular tumor

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13
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Malignant glandular tumor

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14
Q

Basal cell adenoma

A

Benign basal cell tumor

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15
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

Malignant basal cell tumor

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16
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Benign squamous cell tumor

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17
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Malignant squamous cell tumor

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18
Q

Mole

A

Benign pigmented cell tumor

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19
Q

Melanoma

A

Malignant pigmented cell tumor

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20
Q

Teratoma

A

Benign multipotential cell tumor

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21
Q

Teratocarcinoma

A

Malignant multipotential cell tumor

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22
Q

Chondroma

A

Benign cartilaginous tumor

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23
Q

Chondrosarcoma

A

Malignant cartilaginous tumor

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24
Q

Fibroma

A

Benign fibroblast tumor

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25
Q

Fibrosarcoma

A

Malignant fibroblast tumor

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26
Q

Hemangioma

A

Benign blood vessel tumor

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27
Q

Hemangiosarcoma

A

Malignant blood vessel tumor

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28
Q

Leiomyoma

A

Benign smooth muscle tumor

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29
Q

Leiomyosarcoma

A

Malignant smooth muscle tumor

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30
Q

Lipoma

A

Benign adipose tumor

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31
Q

Liposarcoma

A

Malignant adipose tumor

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32
Q

Meningioma

A

Benign Meninges tumor

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33
Q

Meningiosarcoma

A

Malignant meninges tumor

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34
Q

Myoma

A

Benign muscle tumor

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35
Q

Myosarcoma

A

Malignant muscle tumor

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36
Q

Osteoma

A

Benign bone tumor

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37
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Malignant bone tumor

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38
Q

Rhabdomyoma

A

Benign striated muscle tumor

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39
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

Malignant striated muscle tumor

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40
Q

Lymphoma

A

Malignant lymphocyte tumor (lymphocytic leukemia)

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41
Q

Erythrocytic leukemia

A

Malignant erythrocyte tumor

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42
Q

Myeloma

A

Malignant bone marrow tumor (myelogenous leukemia)

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43
Q

Carcinoma

A

Malignant cancer of epithelial tissue

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44
Q

Sarcoma

A

Malignant cancer of mesoderm-derived tissue

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45
Q

Leukemia

A

Malignant cancer of blood/lymphatic origin

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46
Q

Which types of skin cancer are so common that they are usually counted in most data sets?

A

Basal cell carcinomas and squamous cell carcinomas

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47
Q

What percentage of estimated new cancer cases are lung cancers?

A

12.2%

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48
Q

What percentage of lung cancers are a result of tobacco use?

A

~80-90%

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49
Q

How are cancer data sets compared between different populations?

A

Age-adjusted incidence per 100,00 people per year

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50
Q

Benign tissue histology

A

Normal tissue organization

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51
Q

Malignant tumor histology

A

tissue is disorganized; tumor borders are irregular

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52
Q

Normal nucleus:cytoplasm

A

low; lots of cytoplasm

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53
Q

Cancer nucleus:cytoplasm

A

high, barely any cytoplasm around nucleus

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54
Q

Normal cell growth

A

slow

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55
Q

Cancerous cell growth

A

can be slow or very rapid

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56
Q

What is one In vitro experiment used to determine anchorage-independent growth?

A

If cells grow well after settling AND while being suspended, they are anchorage-independent and likely cancerous

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57
Q

What is an In vitro experiment used to determine contact inhibition?

A

Cells are allowed to grow in flask. If cells form a monolayer and stop dividing, contact inhibition occurs. If cells continue dividing, they are likely cancerous

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58
Q

What are nude mice?

A

Athymic mice lack thymus and T cells and are immunodeficient. Used to test if cells are cancerous In vivo

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59
Q

What is anoikis?

A

When cells that become unanchored from the ECM undergo apoptosis

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60
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size, normal tissue organization

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61
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number, normal tissue organization

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62
Q

Dysplasia

A

Disorganized growth

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63
Q

Neoplasia

A

Disorganized growth and net increase in number of dividing cells

64
Q

Metaplasia

A

The replacement of differentiated somatic cells with different differentiated somatic cells

65
Q

Anaplasia

A

Loss of specialized features of a cell or tissue

66
Q

How does malignant growth affect the basement membrane?

A

Cells break through the basal lamina and can spread to other body regions

67
Q

What are the main cause of human cancer?

A

Age, environmental factors, and heredity

68
Q

Transdifferentiation

A

Transformation of cells other than stem cells into a different cell type

69
Q

epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT)

A

cells lose epithelial cell traits and gaining mesenchymal cell traits

70
Q

What percentage of cancer deaths are due to metastasis

A

> 90%

71
Q

What are some examples of tumor suppressor genes?

A

Growth inhibitors and DNA repair proteins (p53)

72
Q

What is an example of an oncogene?

A

Mutated growth inducer

73
Q

What is the main restriction point in the cell cycle?

A

The border between G1 and S

74
Q

What are the categories of chemical carcinogens

A

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, heterocyclic aromatic amines, nitrosamines and nitrosamides, alkylating agents, fibrous minerals: asbestos and erionite

75
Q

How does DMBA act as a carcinogen?

A

Forms adduct with DNA bases, causing mutation. Functions as initiator to promotion of tumor formation from croton oil

76
Q

What is the Multistep Theory of Chemical Carcinogenesis?

A

Initiation: exposure to chemical, DNA mutation, precancerous cells; Promotion: proliferation of cells; Progression: cells accumulate mutations selected for more aggressive traits

77
Q

Depurination

A

Purine base is hydrolyzed from DNA

78
Q

Deamination

A

Amine group is removed from Cytosine, forming Uracil

79
Q

Pyrimidine dimer

A

Pyrimidine bases on the same strand dimerize

80
Q

Which forms of radiation cause DNA damage

A

UV (mainly UVB and UVC) and Ionizing radiation (X-rays, gamma rays, alpha particles, and beta particles)

81
Q

Alpha particles

A

Positively charged, 2 neutrons and 2 protons, can’t penetrate paper

82
Q

Beta particles

A

Negatively charged electrons, can’t penetrate metal or wood

83
Q

gamma rays

A

EM radiation emitted by alpha and beta particles, can penetrate deep into concrete

84
Q

UVA

A

Causes skin aging and cell proliferation

85
Q

UVB

A

Causes sunburn, skin aging, and pyrimidine dimers

86
Q

UVC

A

Causes severe burns; filtered out by ozone layer

87
Q

Types of DNA damage caused by ionizing radiation

A

Base alteration, base removal, single- and double-stranded breaks

88
Q

Electron volt (eV)

A

expresses total energy

89
Q

Gray (Gy)

A

expresses the energy absorbed when radiation acts on biological tissue

90
Q

Relative Biological effectiveness (RBE)

A

expresses damage caused by radiation and is measures in sieverts (Sv)

91
Q

Background Equivalent Radiation Time (BERT)

A

Compares standard daily radiation with what will be experienced in other scenarios

92
Q

Ames test procedure

A

Bacteria requiring histidine is grown on media without histidine supplemented with the substance being tested mixed with liver homogenate

93
Q

Why are some animal carcinogens not detected by the Ames test?

A

Some carcinogens require other substances to exert their mutagenic effect

94
Q

Genetic effects of chemical carcinogens

A

Direct mutagenesis on DNA

95
Q

Epigenetic effects of chemical carcinogens

A

Carcinogenic effects without mutating effects (affects cell signaling, RNAi, etc.)

96
Q

Most lethal commercial product

A

Tobacco causes lung cancer

97
Q

2nd most lethal commercial product

A

Asbestos causes mesothelioma

98
Q

2-naphthylamine

A

Similar to aniline (purple dye) causes bladder cancer

99
Q

Butadiene

A

From ship channel; causes leukemia

100
Q

Acrylamide

A

Used in cooking, industry, and labs; binds to DNA and causes damage

101
Q

How is mesothelioma different from lung cancer?

A

Lung cancer is cancer of lung interior; mesothelioma is cancer of pleural tissue on exterior of lung

102
Q

Linear model of cancer development

A

As carcinogen dose increases, cancer rate increases linearly

103
Q

Threshold model of cancer development

A

Cancer rate increases linearly once carcinogen dose reaches a certain threshold

104
Q

Hormetic model of cancer development

A

At low doses, carcinogen may actually prevent cancer

105
Q

Iatrogenic causes

A

Prescription drugs that cause cancer

106
Q

Maximum Tolerated Dose (MTD)

A

Maximum dose of carcinogen that does not present immediate life-threatening toxicity or significant weight loss

107
Q

Dose effect

A

Longer exposure to carcinogen increases risk

108
Q

Delayed Effect

A

cancer occurs long after initial exposure to carcinogen

109
Q

How was the Rous sarcoma virus studied?

A

Sarcoma was removed form one chicken, ground into fine particles, and injected into a second chicken. The second chicken then presented the same sarcoma.

110
Q

What type of virus is the Rous sarcoma virus?

A

Retrovirus

111
Q

Provirus

A

virus that inserts its genome into the host’s genome

112
Q

What gene is key to the Rous sarcoma virus transformation process?

A

v-src (codes for constitutively active tyrosine receptor)

113
Q

What is the proposed origin of viral oncogenes?

A

Proviral DNA is replicated from host genome along with an adjacent proto-oncogene. Proto-oncogene eventually mutates into oncogene with subsequent viral replications

114
Q

Which country has highest rate of stomach cancer?

A

Japan

115
Q

Which bacteria is linked to stomach cancers?

A

Heliobacter pylori

116
Q

How does prolonged inflammation cause cancer?

A

By promoting mutation and proliferation

117
Q

Mutator phenotype

A

DNA repair genes are mutated, so mutations accumulate more easily

118
Q

One-step DNA repair

A

One enzyme makes simple repair. Ex: alkyltransferase removes alkyl group added to base

119
Q

Base Excision Repair (BER)

A

Corrects oxidation, deamination, and alkylation of base. DNA glycosylase removes the base, then endonuclease cuts backbone, then DNA pol and ligase replace base and seal strand

120
Q

Nucleotide Excision Repair (NER)

A

Repair proteins scan DNA and identify site. Endonuclease removes several nucleotides from one strand. DNA repaired by DNA pol and ligase. Carried out by XP proteins

121
Q

Mismatch repair

A

MutS recognizes mismatch. MutL is recruited and excises flanking DNA on one strand (endonuclease). DNA pol and ligase repair

122
Q

Homologous Recombination

A

Repairs double-strand breaks. Broken ends of DNA are paired with unwound sister chromatid. Strands are repaired, disengaged, and paired. Done by BRCA1 and BRCA2

123
Q

Non-homologous end-joining

A

Repairs double-strand breaks. Broken ends of DNA are brought together, and strands are filled in. Some base pairs originally present are missing.

124
Q

Endogenous mutation

A

spontaneous (like from replication errors)

125
Q

Exogenous mutation

A

from environmental factors

126
Q

Xeroderma Pigmentosa

A

Arises from mutations in XP proteins responsible for NER. Unable to repair damage caused by UV

127
Q

Which mutated DNA repair proteins are associated with inherited breast cancer

A

BRCA1 and BRCA2

128
Q

Which genomic location has the highest percentage of associated SNPs in most cancers

A

Intergenic sequences between genes

129
Q

Super-enhancers

A

large clusters of enhancer elements with high levels of TF binding; central to stimulating oncologic transcription

130
Q

Heterochromatin

A

densely packed

131
Q

Euchromatin

A

loosely packed

132
Q

Histone

A

protein associated with DNA

133
Q

Nucleosome

A

Complex of DNA wrapped around histone octamer

134
Q

Histone acetyltransferase (HAT)

A

Acetylation promotes transcription

135
Q

Histone deacetylase (HDAC)

A

Deacetylation inhibits transcription

136
Q

DNA methyltransferase (DMNT)

A

Methylation of cytosine recruits methyl-binding proteins to interact with HDACs and inhibit transcription. Methyl cytosine spontaneously deaminates to thymine.

137
Q

How to find methylated DNA

A

Treat with sodium bisulfite; causes unmethylated cytosine to convert to uracil

138
Q

Oncomir

A

miRNA that acts as an oncogene

139
Q

How does miRNA regulate mRNA expression?

A

miRNA is transcribed and modified, eventually becoming mature ds miRNA after Dicer. The strands separate and form the RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex) with Ago (argonaut; endonuclease). RISC complex binds to mRNA at the 3’ UTR and either degrades it or prevents ribosomes from binding

140
Q

What is an example of a point mutation activating an oncogene?

A

RAS gene has point mutation, causing an amino acid change and disabling the protein

141
Q

What is an example of gene amplification activating an oncogene?

A

ERBB2 is amplified in 25% of breast and ovarian cancers

142
Q

Double minutes (DM)

A

small independent chromosome-like bodies

143
Q

Homogenously Staining Regions (HSR)

A

Amplified gene stains homogenously instead of normal light and dark bands

144
Q

Example of translocation activation of oncogene

A

Philadelphia chromosome resulting from fusion of BCL-ABR

145
Q

Local gene rearrangements

A

Deletions, insertions, transpositions, and Inversions

146
Q

Example of gene rearrangements activating an oncogene

A

NTRK1 (growth factor receptor) and TPM3 (tropomyosin) become fused, locking NTRK1 in active dimerized state

147
Q

Example of insertional mutagenesis

A

Avian leukosis virus inserts near myc oncogene, causing it to be expressed

148
Q

Inhibition of miRNA

A

Results in the protein being overexpressed

149
Q

What are the three mechanisms known to activate myc?

A

Gene amplification, insertional mutagenesis, and chromosome translocation

150
Q

How is Ras usually activated?

A

point mutation

151
Q

Why can’t all oncogenes be identified with the transfection method?

A

Sometimes single oncogenes are not enough to transform cells (multi-hit hypothesis)

152
Q

What may oncogenes behave like?

A

Growth factors, GF receptors, Intracellular signal transducers, Transcription factors

153
Q

Why is ecDNA more transcribed than chromosomal DNA?

A

ecDNA exhibits lower-order contraction

154
Q

Molecular target of Iressa

A

epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)

155
Q

Molecular target of Gleevec

A

Abl gene (Philadelphia chromosome)

156
Q

Which amino acids can be phosphorylated?

A

Serine, Threonine, and Tyrosine

157
Q
A

BIOL450 - Cancer Biology (2 decks)

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