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Bms 503 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Germ theory of disease

A

some diseases are caused by microorganisms that have gained access to the human body

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2
Q

purpose of koch’s postulates

A

to identify germs with infectious diseases; they became standards for linking a specific organism to a specific disease

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3
Q

Koch’s first postulate

A

the suspected pathogen must be present in all cases of the disease and absent from healthy animals

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4
Q

Koch’s second postulate

A

the suspected pathogen must be grown in pure culture

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5
Q

Koch’s third postulate

A

cells from a pure culture of the suspected pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal

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6
Q

Koch’s fourth postulate

A

the suspected pathogen must be reisolated and shown to be the same as the original

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7
Q

two themes of microbiology

A
  1. understanding the basic life processes
  2. applying that knowledge to the benefit of humans
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8
Q

What is microbiology?

A

microbiology is the study of microscopic life forms, called microorganisms

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9
Q

evolution

A

the process of change over time that results in new varieties and species of organisms

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10
Q

phylogeny

A

evolutionary relationships between organisms

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11
Q

Last universal common ancestor (LUCA)

A

common ancestral cell from which all cels descended

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12
Q

what are viruses composed of and what do they require?

A

They have a DNA or RNA core surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes a lipid membrane. They require a host to make copies of itself.

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13
Q

what are diversity and the abundances of microbes controlled by?

A

resources, example nutrients, and environmental conditions like temperature, pH, O2

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14
Q

microbial communities

A

microorganisms exist in nature in populations of interacting assemblages

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15
Q

nomenclature

A

gives scientific names to organisms

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16
Q

cytoplasmic (cell) membrane

A

barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside environment

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17
Q

cytoplasm

A

aqueous mixture of macromolecules, ions, and ribosome

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18
Q

ribosomes

A

protein-synthesizing structures

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19
Q

genome

A

an organism’s complete set of DNA, including all of its genes. Each genome contains all of the information needed to build and maintain that organism.

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20
Q

Differences between eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

membranes- lipid contents and lipids in prokaryotes do not contain cholesterol unlike eukaryotes, and organelles exist in eukaryotes and. not prokaryotes. Also genomes; prokaryotes have circular chromosomes and eukaryotes do not.

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21
Q

8 True or false? All cells, prokaryote or eukaryote metabolize, grow, and evolve

A

true

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22
Q

true or false? some cells, prokaryote or eukaryote, are able to differentiate, communicate with other cells, exchange genetic information with other cells, and move

A

true

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23
Q

enzymes

A

protein catalysts of then cell that accelerate chemical reactions

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24
Q

DNA replication

A

DNA chromosome is replicated

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25
Q

transcription

A

DNA gene is read to produce RNA

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26
Q

Translation

A

RNA message is read to make protein

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27
Q

What results in growth?

A

growth is the result of the activities of metabolism; cells use metabolic processes to gain mass, replicate their DNA, and divide

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28
Q

resolution

A

the smallest distance by which two objects can be separated and still be distinguished

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29
Q

light microscopy

A

useful for examining cells while they are alive

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30
Q

phase contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy

A

exploits the phase of light passing through an object varying thickness and density to produce an image

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31
Q

dark field

A

illuminating rays are directed from the side, so only scattered light enters the microscope lens

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32
Q

true or false, staining almost always kills the cells

A

true

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33
Q

What are some uses for a fluorescent microscopy

A

view a specific cell in a mixture of different cells, and view specific cell components in a cell

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34
Q

morphology

A

cell shape

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35
Q

coccus (pl. cocci)

A

spherical or ovoid

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36
Q

rod

A

cylindrical shape

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37
Q

True or false, morphology typically does NOT predict physiology, ecology, phylogeny, etc.

A

true

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38
Q

what is the advantage for a cell being small

A

support greater nutrient exchange per unit cell volume, and tend to grow faster than larger cells

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39
Q

what is the cell wall composed of

A

peptidoglycan, polysaccharides chains wrapped in circles around cell, and sugar chains

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40
Q

Gram positive

A

-Capsules
-S-Layer (made of protein)
-Thick cell wall
-Lipoteichoic acids

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41
Q

Gram negative

A

-Capsule
-Outer Membrane
-Thin cell wall
-Periplasm
-Plasma membrane

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42
Q

Cytoplasmic membrane

A

surrounds the cell and separates cytoplasm from the environment

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43
Q

hopanoids

A

pentacyclic chemicals that act to stabilize the bacterial membrane

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44
Q

What is the membrane function

A

-Permeability barrier
-Protein anchor
-Energy conservation

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45
Q

Integral membrane proteins

A

firmly embedded in the membrane

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46
Q

Peripheral membrane proteins

A

one portion anchored in the membrane

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47
Q

Channel (proteins)

A

Transports solute across membrane. Passive. Often called porins

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48
Q

Carrier (proteins)

A

Transports solute across membrane. Active or Passive

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49
Q

Receptor (proteins)

A

Binds extracellular or periplasmic molecules, confirmation change relays information to cell

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50
Q

Enzyme

A

Facilitates chemical reaction

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51
Q

Nutrient Transport

A

-Carrier mediated transport systems
-Highly specific
-Three major classes of transport systems in prokaryotes
-All require energy in some form, usually proton motive force or ATP

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52
Q

True or false: carrier transport is faster than simple diffusion

A

true

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53
Q

Uniporters

A

transport in one direction across the membrane

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54
Q

Symporters

A

function as co-transporters

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55
Q

Antiporters

A

transport a molecule across the membrane while simultaneously transporting another molecule in the opposite direction

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56
Q

Simple transport

A

driven by the energy in the proton motive force

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57
Q

Group translocation

A

chemical modification of the transported substance driven by phosphoenolpyruvate

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58
Q

ABC transporter

A

periplasmic binding proteins are involved and energy comes from ATP

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59
Q

What two types of lipid is the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria made of?

A

Inner leaflet composed of phospholipid, outer leaflet composed of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

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60
Q
A
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61
Q
A
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62
Q

Fimbriae

A

Short, helical filamentous protein structure

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63
Q

Capsules and slime layers function

A

-assist in attachment to surfaces
-protect against phagocytosis
-resist desiccation

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64
Q

Pili

A

Thin filamentous protein structure

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65
Q

Pili function

A

allow for bacterial attachment to surfaces, and sometimes allows movement via twitching motility, and often helping bacteria to evade components of the innate immune system.

66
Q

True or false? Not all bacteria have pili

A

True

67
Q

Monotrichuous

A

single polar flagellum

68
Q

Amphitricuous

A

a flagellum at each pole

69
Q

Lophoticuous

A

multiple flagella localized at the cell pole

70
Q

Peritrichous

A

multiple flagella localized at the cell pole

71
Q

Taxis

A

directed movement in response to chemical or physical gradients

72
Q

chemotaxis

A

response to chemicals, the best studied movement system

73
Q

phototaxis

A

response to light

74
Q

aerotaxis

A

response to oxygen

75
Q

osmotaxis

A

response to ionic strength

76
Q

hydrotaxis

A

response to \water

77
Q

Conjugation

A

DNA exchange between two bacteria

78
Q

Flagella

A

long, helical protein filaments attached to a complex integral membrane protein “machine”

79
Q

True or false: not all bacteria have flagella

A

True

80
Q

Counterclockwise rotation (CCW)

A

Push cell forward; with peritrichous lophotrichous the flagella bundle together; some monotrichous cant rotate CCW

81
Q

Clockwise rotation (CW)

A

Peritrichous or lophitrichous “tumble”= change of direction; bidirectional monotrichous change direction = backtrack; unidirectional monotrichous= move forward

82
Q

Taxis

A

directed movement in response to chemical or physical gradients

83
Q

chemotaxis

A

response to chemicals, the best studied movement system

84
Q

phototaxis

A

response to light

85
Q

aerotaxis

A

response to oxygen

86
Q

osmotaxis

A

response to ionic strength

87
Q

hydrotaxis

A

response to water

88
Q

DNA is condensed by

A

supercoiling

89
Q

endospore

A

dormant, non-reproductive structure, that allows bacterial survival in harsh environmental conditions

90
Q

Metabolism

A

all the biochemical reactions taking place in an organism

91
Q

Catabolism

A

energy-releasing processes

92
Q

Anabolism

A

energy-using processes

93
Q

chemorganotrophs

A

generate ATP using oxidation of organic compounds

94
Q

chemolithotrophs

A

generate ATP using oxidation of inorganic compounds

95
Q

phototrophs

A

ATP generated from harnessing light energy

96
Q

heterotrophs

A

utilize carbon from organic compounds

97
Q

autotrophs

A

utilize carbon from CO2

98
Q

Free energy (G)

A

energy released that is available to do work

99
Q

Exergonic

A

reactions with a negative delta G zero which release free energy

100
Q

Endergonic

A

Reactions with a positive delta G zero require energy

101
Q

Activation energy

A

energy required to bring all molecules in a chemical reaction into the reactive state

102
Q

Catalyst

A

a chemical that increases the rate of a reaction without undergoing a physical change

103
Q

Enzymes function to do what

A

they act as catalysts, lowering activation energy of a specific reaction. They catalyze all chemical reactions in cells.

104
Q

true or false? Enzymes act through enzyme-substrate complexes

A

true

105
Q

cofactors

A

small non-protein molecules that participate in catalysis but are not substrates

106
Q

apoenzyme

A

if an enzyme requires a cofactor to catalyze a reaction and that cofactor is not bound to the enzyme

107
Q

holoenzyme

A

an enzyme bound to its cofactor that is active is referred to as a holoenzyme

108
Q

Feedback inhibition

A

hinders a metabolic pathway by having a product of the pathway inhibit an earlier reaction

109
Q

What does an inhibitor do ?

A

inhibits an enzyme in the pathway so no product is available to feed the next reaction

110
Q

Noncompetitive inhibition

A

changing the shape of an active site

111
Q

Competitive inhibition

A

blocking an active site

112
Q

True or false, feedback inhibition can also be competitive or non-competitive inhibitors

A

true

113
Q

prosthetic groups

A

cofactors that are inorganic molecules

114
Q

coenzymes

A

organic molecules which include the various NAD+, NADP+, FAD, coenzyme A

115
Q

Essential nutrients

A

those that must be supplied from the environment

116
Q

Macronutrients

A

major elements in cell macromolecules, and ions necessary for protein function

117
Q

Micronutrients

A

trace elements necessary for enzyme function

118
Q

What does liquid media allow for?

A

Allows for easily scalable growth, easy to manipulate growth conditions, and allows for continuous culture

119
Q

What does solid media allow for?

A

Allows for differentiation by morphology and separation of microbes for further pure culture.

120
Q

Pure culture

A

culture containing only a single kind of microbe

121
Q

Colony morphology

A

the physical appearance of bacteria grown on a solid media

122
Q

Selective medium

A

contains ingredients to inhibit growth of certain species and allow the growth of others

123
Q

Differential medium

A

contains specific chemicals to indicate species that possess or lack a biochemical process

124
Q

Bacterial colony

A

a visible cluster of bacteria growing on the surface of or within a solid medium, presumably cultured from a single cell

125
Q

B period

A

Cell increases in mass and size

126
Q

C period

A

The chromosome replicates and the two strands are segregated (separated)

127
Q

D period

A

synthesis of a septum forms two identical cells

128
Q

MreB

A

major shape-determining factor in prokaryotes

129
Q

Autolysins

A

sever pre-existing peptidogylcan creating breaks in the sugar backbone and peptide crosslinks

130
Q

Transglycolases

A

enzymes that interact with bactoprenol

131
Q

Transpeptidases

A

enzyme that forms the peptide cross links between adjacent glycan chains

132
Q

Binary fission

A

cell division following enlargement of a cell to twice its minimum size and the completion of one chromosome replication event!

133
Q

Fts

A

essential for cell division in all prokaryotes, and interact to form the divisome

134
Q

Ftz

A

forms ring around center of cell

135
Q

ZipA

A

anchor that connects FtsZ ring to cytoplasmic membrane

136
Q

FtsA

A

helps connect FtsZ ring to membrane and also recruits other divisome proteins

137
Q

Batch culture

A

a closed-system microbial culture of iced volume

138
Q

Lag phase

A

interval between inoculation of a culture and beginning of growth, No cell division occurs while bacteria adapt to their environment

139
Q

Logarithmic

A

when exponential growth of the population occurs. Cells are healthiest in this state. In cases of human disease symptoms usually develop during log phase.

140
Q

Stationary phase

A

population growth is limited by one of three factors: 1. exhaustion of available nutrients; 2. accumulation of inhibitory metabolites or end products; 3. exhaustion of space, in this case called a lack of biological space.

141
Q

Decline/Death phase

A

the accumulation of waste products and scarcity of resources causes the population to decline in number; Cells die, but this does not mean all of the cells in the culture lose the ability to divide

142
Q

What does continuous culture allow?

A

continuous culture allows for a scientist to keep a culture in exponential phase for longer periods than a batch culture

143
Q

what does optical density of a culture calculate?

A

the approximate number of bacteria in a sample

144
Q

Optimal prokaryotic growth is dependent on several physical factor in addition to nutrient levels in the environment

A

temperature, oxygen concentration, pH, hydrostatic pressure, osmotic pressure

145
Q

what temperature do psychrophiles grow?

A

below 15 degrees celsius and make up the largest portion of all prokaryotes on Earth

146
Q

what temperature do mesophiles live at?

A

live at the medium temperature range of 10 to 45 degrees celsius including pathogens in the human body

147
Q

What temperature do thermophiles live best at?

A

60 degrees celcius in compost heaps and hot springs

148
Q

Hyperthermophiles are?

A

archaea that grow optimally above 80 degrees celcius found in seafloor hot-water bents

149
Q

Homeostasis

A

the tendency of a biological system to maintain internal stability, owing to the coordinated response of its parts to any situation or stimulus that would tend to disturb its normal condition or function

150
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

require oxygen to grow

151
Q

Microaerophiles

A

grow in low oxygen environments generally rich in carbon dioxide

152
Q

anaerobes

A

Do not or cannot use oxygen during growth

153
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

insensitive to oxygen

154
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

inhibited or killed by oxygen

155
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

grow both with oxygen and without oxygen

156
Q

Capnophilic bacteria (microaerophiles)

A

require an atmosphere low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide

157
Q

Thioglycollate broth

A

can be used to test an organism’s oxygen sensitivity

158
Q

Neutralophiles

A

grow at pH 5-8, and include most human pathogens

159
Q

Acidophiles

A

grow at pH 0-5

160
Q

Alkaliphiles

A

grow at pH 9-11

161
Q

Osmosis

A

the diffusion of fluid, through a partially permeable membrane, from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration

Bms 503 (4 decks)

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