Exam 1

Question 1

Carstensen’s (1992) socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that, as we get older:
A. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become more important.
B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.
C. emotionally meaningful goals become less important and knowledge-related goals become more important.
D. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become less important.

Answer 1

B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-198 Answer B is correct. Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that our goals change as our future time becomes more limited. It distinguishes between two types of goals – knowledge-related and emotionally meaningful – and proposes that, as we get older, we place less importance on knowledge-related goals and more importance on emotionally meaningful goals. In terms of social relationships, this means that younger people prefer relationships that fulfill their knowledge-related goals, while older people prefer relationships that fulfill their emotionally meaningful goals.

Question 2

Following a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged woman experiences considerable anterograde and retrograde amnesia. When she begins to recall events that occurred in the past, she’ll most likely remember which of the following first?
A. where she and her family went on vacation three years ago.
B. what she gave her sister for her birthday last year.
C. the argument she had with her oldest daughter three weeks ago.
D. the events that happened on the morning of her injury.

Answer 2

A. where she and her family went on vacation three years ago.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-171 Answer A is correct. Many patients who experience retrograde amnesia as the result of a traumatic brain injury exhibit “shrinking retrograde amnesia” over time. This means that the period of retrograde amnesia gradually shortens with the most distant memories returning first.

Question 3

An advertising agency has been hired by a dog food company to re-design the labels for its products. The agency prepares seven different labels for canned dog food and, to determine which label customers prefer, has a sample of 300 dog owners choose the label they like the most. Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to use to determine if there’s a significant difference in the number of dog owners who chose each label?
A. single-sample chi-square test
B. multiple-sample chi-square test
C. one-way ANOVA
D. factorial ANOVA

Answer 3

A. single-sample chi-square test
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-059 Answer A is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. However, this study has only one variable and, in this situation, it’s just necessary to identify that variable’s scale of measurement: The variable is type of label and it’s measured on a nominal scale. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s only one variable, the single-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the single-sample chi-square test is also known as the one-sample chi-square test and the chi-square goodness-of-fit test.

Question 4

Dr. Dennis, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop and validate a new selection test for customer service representatives. When she conducts a concurrent validity study on the test she develops, Dr. Dennis finds that it has a validity coefficient of .65 for men and a validity coefficient of .20 for women. This suggests that the test has:
A. differential validity for men and women.
B. divergent validity for men and women.
C. differential selection for men and women.
D. inadequate validity for both men and women.

Answer 4

A. differential validity for men and women.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-096 Answer A is correct. A selection test or other employment procedure has differential validity when it has significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups. Differential validity is a potential cause of adverse impact.

Question 5

An advanced sleep phase is most characteristic of:
A. adults deprived of REM sleep.
B. individuals who are blind.
C. older adults.
D. infants.

Answer 5

C. older adults.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-165 Answer C is correct. Advanced sleep phase is also known as circadian phase advance and refers to a shift in the sleep-wake cycle that involves falling asleep and waking up earlier than at the conventional times. Many older adults experience an advanced sleep phase.

Question 6

A picture of a knife is projected onto a screen so that it’s briefly presented only to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, and a picture of a fork is then briefly presented only to the patient’s left visual field. When asked to verbally identify what he has seen, the patient:
A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.
B. will be able to say “fork” and, although he can’t say “knife,” will be able to pick out a knife with his right hand.
C. will be able to say “knife” but won’t be able to say “fork” or pick out a fork with his right or left hand.
D. will be able to say “fork” but won’t be able to say “knife” or pick out a knife with his right or left hand.

Answer 6

A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-079 Answer A is correct. Ordinarily information received by the left hemisphere is shared with the right hemisphere and vice versa, but split-brain patients have had their corpus callosums severed to control severe epilepsy which limits communication between the two hemispheres. Most language processing occurs in the left hemisphere, so split-brain patients can verbally identify images that are projected to the right visual field because information about those images is sent via the optic nerve to the left hemisphere. In contrast, split-brain patients cannot verbally identify images that are presented to the left visual field because that information is sent to the right hemisphere and isn’t shared with the left hemisphere. However, they can pick out the objects depicted in the images with their left hands because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.

Question 7

By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.”
A. 12 to 18
B. 18 to 24
C. 24 to 30
D. 30 to 36

Answer 7

B. 18 to 24
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Language Development-123 Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.

Question 8

Which of the following is considered to be a research-supported treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. EMDR
B. behavioral activation therapy
C. exposure with response prevention
D. habit reversal training

Answer 8

C. exposure with response prevention
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-160 Answer C is correct. Exposure with response prevention and cognitive therapy have both been identified as research-supported treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder. See, e.g., J. Abramowitz, Effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder: A quantitative review. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 65(1), 44-52, 1997.

Question 9

Moscovici’s (1980) research on minority influence found that a group member with a minority opinion must rely on which of the following to persuade members with the opposing (majority) opinion to adopt his or her opinion?
A. informational influence
B. normative influence
C. behavioral style
D. psychological reactance

Answer 9

C. behavioral style
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-115 Answer C is correct. According to Moscovici, a group member with a minority opinion must rely on behavioral style to persuade the majority – i.e., the member must be consistent in expressing his/her opinion without seeming too rigid or dogmatic.

Question 10

Brain imaging studies have linked the negative symptoms of schizophrenia to:
A. an overactive HPA axis.
B. a smaller-than-normal cerebellum.
C. temporal-limbic overactivity.
D. prefrontal underactivity.

Answer 10

D. prefrontal underactivity.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-099 Answer D is correct. Prefrontal underactivity is also known as hypofrontality and refers to reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes. It has been linked to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Temporal-limbic overactivity has been linked to the disorder’s positive symptoms.

Question 11

Ella took Spanish classes in her last two years of high school but decided to learn French in college instead of continuing with Spanish. She found that, even after studying French for two semesters, whenever she tried to recall the French equivalent for an English word, she’d recall the Spanish word instead. Ella’s experience illustrates which of the following?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. the serial position effect
D. the recency effect

Answer 11

B. proactive interference
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-136 Answer B is correct. Proactive interference occurs when prior learning (e.g., Spanish) interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information (e.g., French).

Question 12

When using the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) as a screening tool for cognitive impairment in older adults, it’s important to keep in mind that use of the standard cutoff score for African American and Latino patients may result in too many ____________ and that __________ the cutoff score for these individuals reduces this problem.
A. false positives; lowering
B. false positives; raising
C. false negatives; lowering
D. false negatives; raising

Answer 12

A. false positives; lowering
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PAS-Clinical Tests-120 Answer A is correct. The studies have found that use of the standard cutoff score (24) on the MMSE with African American and Latino patients results in too many false positives. Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30, with lower scores indicating greater cognitive impairment, so lowering the cutoff score for these patients reduces this problem. See, e.g., C. A. Manning and J. K. Ducharme, Dementia syndromes in the older adult, in P. A. Lichtenberg (Ed.), Handbook of assessment in clinical gerontology, pp. 155-178, Academic Press, San Diego, CA, 2010.

Question 13

People with __________ personality disorder have a lack of desire for social relationships and are uninterested in opportunities to develop close relationships.
A. schizoid
B. histrionic
C. avoidant
D. paranoid

Answer 13

A. schizoid
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Personality Disorders-220 Answer A is correct. Many of the personality disorders involve problems related to social relationships, but a lack of desire for relationships is most characteristic of schizoid personality disorder. As described in the DSM-5, people with this disorder “appear to lack a desire for intimacy, seem indifferent to opportunities to develop close relationships, and do not seem to derive much satisfaction from being part of a family or other social group” (p. 653).

Question 14

You would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:
A. evaluate the effects of a training program.
B. identify the “position power” of managerial-level employees.
C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.
D. conduct an organizational analysis.

Answer 14

C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-008 Answer C is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.

Question 15

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical guidelines for contingent fees?
A. Accepting contingent fees is prohibited under any circumstances.
B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
C. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable when all parties voluntarily agree to this arrangement.
D. Accepting contingent fees is acceptable as long as it is not prohibited by law.

Answer 15

B. Accepting contingent fees should usually be avoided.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-135 Answer B is correct. The APA Ethics Code does not refer to contingent fees, but they are addressed in Paragraph 5.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states that, “because of the threat to impartiality presented by the acceptance of contingent fees and associated legal prohibitions, forensic practitioners strive to avoid providing professional services on the basis of contingent fees.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Canadian Code of Ethics regarding fees for professional services and conflicts of interest (e.g., Standard III.28).

Question 16

Research by Baumrind (1971) and others has found that the best outcomes for children and adolescents occur when their parents have an authoritative parenting style, which is characterized by which of the following?
A. low demandingness and low responsiveness
B. low demandingness and high responsiveness
C. high demandingness and low responsiveness
D. high demandingness and high responsiveness

Answer 16

D. high demandingness and high responsiveness
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-156 Answer D is correct. Authoritative parents are both responsive and demanding: They are warm and sensitive to their children’s needs; and, while they have clear rules and exert firm control over their children’s behaviors, their rules are reasonable and, as appropriate, they include children in decision-making and encourage their autonomy. Children and adolescents of these parents tend to be self-reliant, friendly, and cooperative, have high self-esteem, and do well in school.

Question 17

The two main types of integrity tests that are used to assist with selection decisions are:
A. general and specific trait tests.
B. covert and behavior-based tests.
C. objective and subjective tests.
D. overt and personality-based tests.

Answer 17

D. overt and personality-based tests.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-063 Answer D is correct. There are two main types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Question 18

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 18

C. overcorrection
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-086 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).

Question 19

While walking on a city sidewalk, a disheveled young man suddenly staggers, falls into a doorway, and begins coughing and moaning. He’s most likely to get help if:
A. there are several male and female bystanders.
B. there are five or six male bystanders.
B. there are five or six female bystanders.
D. there is one bystander.

Answer 19

D. there is one bystander.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-137 Answer D is correct. The research has shown that a person is most likely to receive help when there’s only one bystander and that, as the number of bystanders increases, the likelihood of receiving help decreases.

Question 20

At the beginning of her third therapy session, your new client says she’s “already feeling much better.” According to Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model, the client’s improvement is most likely due to which of the following?
A. the formation of a therapeutic alliance
B. an initial decrease in symptoms
C. the experience of catharsis
D. an increased sense of hope

Answer 20

D. an increased sense of hope
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-167 Answer D is correct. According to Howard et al.’s phase model, the effects of therapy change over time and occur in three phases – remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and involves an increased sense of hope that a positive outcome is possible.

Question 21

Community reinforcement and family training (CRAFT) is an evidence-based intervention that was designed for families that include:
A. an adolescent who has a substance use problem with co-occurring conduct disorder and has not responded to other treatments.
B. an adult who has a substance use problem with at least one co-occurring psychiatric disorder.
C. an adolescent or adult who has a substance use problem and is at high risk for relapse due to the heightened level of expressed emotion of family members.
D. an adult who has a substance use problem but refuses to seek treatment.

Answer 21

D. an adult who has a substance use problem but refuses to seek treatment.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders–140 Answer D is correct. CRAFT was designed for individuals who refuse to seek treatment for their substance use problems. When using this intervention, the therapist works with concerned significant others (CSOs) who are family members or close friends of the individual who has the substance use problem.

Question 22

An employer is concerned about the low motivation of many of her employees and decides to interview them to obtain information on how to alleviate this problem. Being familiar with Vroom’s (1964) expectancy theory, the employer will ask employees about all of the following except:
A. expectancy.
B. instrumentality.
C. commitment.
D. valence.

Answer 22

C. commitment.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-200 Answer C is correct. Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as VIE theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.

Question 23

Dr. Shadid, a licensed psychologist, has a private clinical practice and teaches and conducts research at a large university. Dr. Shadid routinely administers cognitive ability and personality tests to many of his clients as part of his initial assessment and plans to also use the results of tests administered to therapy clients in his research study. In terms of ethical requirements, use of the test results in the research study is:
A. acceptable as long as he obtains informed consent from the clients for use of the assessment results for both therapy and research.
B. acceptable as long as the identity of each client is removed from the data he uses in his research study.
C. acceptable as long as the test results are genuinely needed for the purposes of diagnosis and treatment of his therapy clients.
D. unacceptable under any circumstances.

Answer 23

A. acceptable as long as he obtains informed consent from the clients for use of the assessment results for both therapy and research.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-193 Answer A is correct. Standard 9.03 of the APA Ethics Code applies to this situation. It requires psychologists to obtain informed consent for assessment and to include, as part of the informed consent, “an explanation of the nature and purpose of the assessment.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.26 and I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 24

When lithium has not reduced the symptoms of mania for an individual who has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, an alternative is:
A. disulfiram.
B. carbamazepine.
C. propranolol.
D. guanfacine.

Answer 24

B. carbamazepine.
EXPLANATION

EPPP-P1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-207 Answer B is correct. Anticonvulsant drugs are often prescribed for individuals with bipolar disorder who have not responded to lithium or cannot tolerate its side effects. Carbamazepine is one of the anticonvulsant drugs that has been found useful for treating mania.

Question 25

Your new client is Adam, a 19-year-old college sophomore, who says his restlessness, inability to concentrate, and impulsiveness are interfering with his ability to do well in his classes. He tells you that, when he was a child, his pediatrician thought he had attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. However, his symptoms – especially his hyperactivity – started “getting better” when he was in high school. To assign a diagnosis of ADHD to Adam, he must have at least: A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity. B. six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity. C. a total of five symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity. D. a total of six symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and/or impulsivity.

Answer 25

A. five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-045 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires at least six symptoms of inattention and/or six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for children, or at least five symptoms of inattention and/or five symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity for individuals 17 years of age and older.

Question 26

The owner of several fast-food restaurants tells you she’s concerned about the low job satisfaction and poor job performance of many of her employees. She says she’s heard that “satisfied workers are productive workers” and asks what the research has found about this. You tell her that the studies support which of the following? A. Satisfied workers are, in fact, always productive workers. B. Productive workers are always satisfied workers. C. Workers who are rewarded for their productivity are most productive and satisfied. D. Workers who are happy with their lives are most productive and satisfied.

Answer 26

C. Workers who are rewarded for their productivity are most productive and satisfied. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-206 Answer C is correct. The research has found that the relationship between satisfaction and performance is stronger when pay and other reinforcers are closely linked to performance (e.g., Podsakoff & Williams, 1986).

Question 27

The ____________ acts as a “relay station” for all of the senses except smell. A. pons B. hypothalamus C. hippocampus D. thalamus

Answer 27

D. thalamus EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-057 Answer D is correct. The thalamus processes and transfers all incoming sensory information except olfactory information to appropriate areas in the cerebral cortex.

Question 28

The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for a 15-year-old boy who has three motor tics and one vocal tic that started 14 months ago is: A. provisional tic disorder. B. persistent tic disorder. C. Gerstmann’s syndrome. D. Tourette’s disorder.

Answer 28

D. Tourette’s disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-056 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder requires the presence of two or more motor tics and one or more vocal tics that had an onset prior to 18 years of age and have lasted more than one year.

Question 29

Which of the following describes the relationship between a test’s reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient? A. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than its reliability coefficient. B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. C. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of one minus its reliability coefficient. D. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square of its reliability coefficient.

Answer 29

B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-106 Answer B is correct. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. For example, if a test has a reliability coefficient of .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90.

Question 30

Cataplexy, hypocretin deficiency, and short rapid eye movement sleep latency are symptoms of: A. narcolepsy. B. sleep apnea. C. temporal lobe seizures. D. Tourette’s syndrome.

Answer 30

A. narcolepsy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-184 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of narcolepsy requires irrepressible episodes of sleep (daytime naps) with at least one of the following: cataplexy, hypocretin deficiency, or REM sleep latency less than or equal to 15 minutes.

Question 31

The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to: A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable. B. measure the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable by treating it as an independent variable. C. simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable on two or more dependent variables. D. simultaneously assess the effects of two or more independent variables on a single dependent variable.

Answer 31

A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-094 Answer A is correct. The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable from scores on the dependent variable so that it’s easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. When using the ANCOVA, the extraneous variable is the “covariate.”

Question 32

____________ syndrome affects males, is due to the presence of an extra X chromosome, and causes a number of physical abnormalities. A. Prader-Willi B. Angelman C. Klinefelter D. Turner

Answer 32

C. Klinefelter EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-033 Answer C is correct. The symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome vary, but most males with an extra X chromosome have undeveloped testes, breast enlargement, long limbs with a short trunk, less facial and body hair, and a low testosterone level.

Question 33

Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (2003) racial/cultural identity development model predicts that an African American client in the ____________ stage will most likely prefer having a White therapist. A. disintegration B. resistance C. dissonance D. conformity

Answer 33

D. conformity EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-221 Answer D is correct. Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s racial/cultural identity development model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. Minority group members in the conformity stage have negative attitudes toward their own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes toward Whites (the dominant group). They view White culture as superior and, with regard to therapy, prefer a White therapist.

Question 34

Your new client is Maureen, a 21-year-old college junior, who says she’s ordinarily a shy, calm person who doesn’t have trouble getting things done. However, for the last three weeks, she’s been jumping from one project to another without finishing anything, gets irritated by just about everything, is more talkative than usual, and has a lot of energy even though she’s not getting enough sleep. Maureen says that, because of her symptoms, she hasn’t been able to concentrate while studying and she failed an exam last week for the first time in her life. Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following? A. bipolar I disorder B. bipolar II disorder C. cyclothymic disorder D. ADHD

Answer 34

A. bipolar I disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-110 Answer A is correct. The nature and duration of Maureen’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Maureen’s increased energy and talkativeness, distractibility, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), decreased need for sleep, and impaired functioning at school because of her symptoms are characteristic of a manic episode. Bipolar II disorder isn't correct because it requires at least one major depressive disorder, which must include a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure plus other symptoms, and the question doesn't indicate that Maureen has these symptoms.

Question 35

____________ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter, and disruption of its production or transmission in certain areas of the brain produces anxiety. A. Acetylcholine B. GABA C. Glutamate D. Dopamine

Answer 35

B. GABA EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-013 Answer B is correct. A disruption in the production or transmission of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) increases anxiety, while benzodiazepines reduce anxiety by potentiating its action.

Question 36

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders? A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB. B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB. C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease. D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer 36

A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-217 Answer A is correct. Motor disturbances are a more important cause of disability in the early stages of NCDLB than in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease and include muscle rigidity, tremors, and other motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease. Although motor problems are also associated with Alzheimer’s disease, they usually do not occur until the disease progresses to the middle or late stage. The other three answers accurately describe differences between the two disorders. See, e.g., Alzheimer’s Association website, http://www.alz.org/dementia/dementia-with-lewy-bodies-symptoms.asp

Question 37

Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model: A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment. B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy. D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.

Answer 37

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-191 Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).

Question 38

You have been seeing Evan in therapy for four months to treat his social anxiety. Although Evan seemed to make progress in the first few weeks, his symptoms have not changed since then and you do not think he’s benefitting from treatment. When you bring up the possibility of ending therapy and referring him to another therapist, Evan says he feels therapy is very helpful and wants to continue. In terms of ethical requirements, your best course of action would be to: A. continue seeing Evan in therapy since he believes he’s benefitting from it. B. continue seeing Evan in therapy if you can agree on specific treatment goals but, if not, set a termination date. C. continue seeing Evan in therapy for several more sessions but, if nothing changes, bring up the possibility of ending therapy again. D. explain to Evan why you believe he’s not benefitting from therapy and refer him to another therapist.

Answer 38

B. continue seeing Evan in therapy if you can agree on specific treatment goals but, if not, set a termination date. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-216 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.10(a) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.40 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.10(a) states that “psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service.” Unless a reason for continuing therapy (e.g., new therapy goals) can be identified, you would not want to continue seeing a client when you believe the client is no longer benefitting from therapy.

Question 39

Dr. Wong has been hired by a law firm to evaluate a new selection test that will be used to hire legal assistants. To ensure the test has adequate reliability, he will administer the test to a sample of legal assistants to determine if the test: A. produces consistent scores. B. improves decision-making accuracy. C. has adequate face validity. D. is an adequate sample of the relevant knowledge domain.

Answer 39

A. produces consistent scores. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-074 Answer A is correct. Reliability refers to the degree to which a predictor is free from the effects of measurement (random) error and, as a result, provides consistent scores.

Question 40

As defined by Wrenn (1985), culturally encapsulated therapists: A. assume that the problems of clients from cultural minority groups are related to their minority status. B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background. C. recognize the impact of culture on behavior but strive to modify the behavior of clients from cultural minority groups to better fit the demands of the dominant culture. D. attempt to be culturally competent but are unaware of the cultural biases that affect their work with clients from culturally diverse backgrounds.

Answer 40

B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-203 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Wrenn’s definition of cultural encapsulation. According to Wrenn, culturally encapsulated counselors define reality in terms of their own cultural assumptions and assume their assumption are correct and are insensitive to cultural variations.

Question 41

When determining a client’s diagnosis, knowing which of the following would be most useful for distinguishing between posttraumatic stress disorder and acute stress disorder? A. The client’s symptoms began within 24 hours after exposure to a traumatic event. B. The client is experiencing dissociative symptoms. C. The client’s symptoms are causing significant distress or impaired functioning. D. The client’s symptoms have lasted for less than one month.

Answer 41

D. The client’s symptoms have lasted for less than one month. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-172 Answer D is correct. The primary difference between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is the duration of symptoms: The DSM-5 diagnosis of acute stress disorder requires a duration of three days to one month after exposure to a traumatic event, while the diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder requires a duration of more than one month.

Question 42

A young man with synesthesia is most likely to say he: A. experiences different sounds as different colors. B. never experiences strong emotions. C. feels numbness and tingling in his hands and feet. D. can’t distinguish between hot and cold.

Answer 42

A. experiences different sounds as different colors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-130 Answer A is correct. Synesthesia is a rare neurological phenomenon in which one type of external sensory input simultaneously stimulates another type of sensory input – e.g., an auditory stimulus is not only perceived as a sound but also as a color.

Question 43

A test developer would use the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate a test’s: A. incremental validity. B. criterion-related validity. C. construct validity. D. differential validity.

Answer 43

C. construct validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-060 Answer C is correct. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method for evaluating a test’s construct validity and is important for tests that are designed to assess a hypothetical trait (construct). When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, the test being validated is administered to a sample of examinees along with tests known to measure the same or a related trait and tests known to measure unrelated traits. When scores on the test being validated have high correlations with scores on tests that measure the same or a related trait, this provides evidence of the test’s convergent validity. And, when scores on the test have low correlations with scores on tests that measure unrelated traits, this provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity. Adequate convergent and divergent validity provide evidence of the test’s construct validity.

Question 44

Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome? A. generativity vs. stagnation: care B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose C. industry vs. inferiority: competence D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope

Answer 44

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-150 Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Question 45

A division of labor and a hierarchy of authority are defining characteristics of which of the following organizational theories? A. Weber’s bureaucracy B. McGregor’s Theory Y C. Fiedler’s contingency theory D. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory

Answer 45

A. Weber’s bureaucracy EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Theories-152 Answer A is correct. As described by Weber (1947), an ideal bureaucracy is characterized by a division of labor, a hierarchy of authority, clearly defined rules and procedures, impersonal relationships based on position, and selection and promotion decisions based on an applicant’s or employee’s technical competence.

Question 46

The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past. A. a situational interview B. a behavioral interview C. a case interview D. an informational interview

Answer 46

B. a behavioral interview EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-052 Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Question 47

According to Carl Rogers (1951), incongruence between self and experience produces anxiety, which a person may respond to defensively by: A. denying or distorting the experience. B. adopting an exaggerated sense of self-worth. C. becoming fixated at the previous stage of development. D. developing a mistaken style of life.

Answer 47

A. denying or distorting the experience. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-039 Answer A is correct. Rogers proposed that people often respond defensively to incongruence between self and experience with denial or distortion. Denial involves denying the existence of the experience or its significance, while distortion involves altering the meaning of the experience to make it more consistent with one’s perceived self. Although denial and distortion can provide temporary relief, they fail to resolve incongruence and can lead to psychological disturbance.

Question 48

____________ preventions are aimed at lowering the prevalence of a disorder by identifying individuals who have early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an intervention to limit its intensity or duration. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

Answer 48

B. Secondary EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-161 Answer B is correct. The goal of secondary prevention is to stop the progression of a disorder by using a screening test or other procedure to identify individuals with early signs or symptoms of the disorder and providing them with an appropriate intervention.

Question 49

Eight months ago, on the one-year anniversary of the death of her mother due to a brain tumor, 47-year-old Gale began experiencing frequent headaches and dizziness nearly every day. Gale has worried constantly about her health since then and has been spending hours each day searching for information on brain tumors on the Internet. Gale’s worrying and time on the Internet has kept her from spending time with her husband, two teen-age daughters, and friends. Gale has had two MRIs that showed no sign of a tumor, and her doctor has been unable to find an explanation for her headaches and dizziness. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Gale is: A. conversion disorder. B. body dysmorphic disorder. C. somatic symptom disorder. D. illness anxiety disorder.

Answer 49

C. somatic symptom disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-178 Answer C is correct. Gale’s symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for somatic symptom disorder. This diagnosis requires the presence of one or more somatic symptoms that cause distress or substantial disruption of daily activities accompanied by excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to the symptoms.

Question 50

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following? A. identity moratorium B. magical thinking C. the personal fable D. the self-serving bias

Answer 50

C. the personal fable EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-101 Answer C is correct. Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Question 51

Halfway through his participation in a research study, a subject becomes unhappy with the study and tells the researcher, a licensed psychologist, that he wants to quit. The subject is a student in an introductory psychology class and is receiving class credit for participating in the study. The researcher should: A. remind the student that, by signing an informed consent, he agreed to participate in the entire study. B. discuss the situation with the student’s instructor and allow the instructor to decide how to handle the situation. C. offer the student payment or other incentive to continue in the study. D. allow the student to withdraw from the study.

Answer 51

D. allow the student to withdraw from the study. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-169 Answer D is correct. This answer is consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.02(a) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to allow research participants to withdraw from a study at any time during the study.

Question 52

Dr. Osprey conducted a study to evaluate the effects of an anti-drug program on attitudes toward drug use for middle school students from low-income families. Subjects were 662 7th and 8th graders attending an inner-city school. Attitudes toward drugs were assessed in the second week of September, the five-hour anti-drug program was administered in five one-hour sessions during the second week of October, and attitudes toward drugs were then re-assessed in the second week of November. Results indicated that the program significantly increased negative attitudes toward drug use. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is which of the following? A. statistical regression B. selection C. reactivity D. history

Answer 52

D. history EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-004 Answer D is correct. History threatens a study’s internal validity whenever an external event that occurs during the course of the study has a systematic effect on subjects’ scores or status on the dependent variable(s). Given that this study includes only one group of subjects and takes place over a two-month period of time, the biggest threat to its internal validity is history. For example, many of the students may have changed their attitudes not because of the anti-drug program but because they were exposed to information about drug use during the two months in a biology or health class or a TV or billboard ad campaign.

Question 53

A young man taking a conventional antipsychotic as a treatment for schizophrenia develops tardive dyskinesia. Of the following, which would be the best course of action in this situation? A. increase the dose of the conventional antipsychotic B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic C. immediately discontinue the conventional antipsychotic D. have the patient take a low dose of a dopamine antagonist

Answer 53

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-201 Answer B is correct. The atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and, if a patient’s symptoms require continued treatment with an antipsychotic drug, switching to an atypical drug is an option. The actions described in the other answers would increase the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. (Withdrawing the conventional antipsychotic is also an option but gradual withdrawal is preferred because symptoms may worsen if the drug is abruptly withdrawn.)

Question 54

A patient with severe hemiplegia caused by a lesion in the right side of her brain denies she has any problems moving her left arm and leg. This woman’s lack of awareness of her physical impairment is referred to as: A. anomia. B. paresthesia. C. anosognosia. D. prosopagnosia.

Answer 54

C. anosognosia. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-119 Answer C is correct. Anosognosia is most commonly caused by damage to the right parietal lobe and is characterized by a lack of awareness of one’s own physical disability.

Question 55

At the beginning of the school year, a researcher tells a first-grade teacher that a test had been administered to all students in kindergarten and the results indicated that five of her 22 students – Bob G., Liang C., Ellen A., Isadore R., and Lucia V. – will show significant gains in academic achievement this year. Even though the five children were actually randomly selected, all showed significant gains in academic skills by the end of the school year. Which of the following best explains these results? A. the Hawthorne effect B. the Rosenthal effect C. the positive halo effect D. the confirmation bias

Answer 55

B. the Rosenthal effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-School and Family Influences-210 Answer B is correct. This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.

Question 56

For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy, the automatic thoughts associated with depression reflect which of the following? A. a lack of control over one’s emotions, behavior, and environment B. should’s and must’s C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future D. catastrophic interpretations of both negative and neutral events

Answer 56

C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-100 Answer C is correct. Beck’s (1979) cognitive model of depression describes it as involving a negative cognitive triad that consists of negative views of oneself, the world, and the future.

Question 57

Older adults with mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would most likely obtain the highest score on the WAIS-IV __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index. A. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning C. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed

Answer 57

D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-040 Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean Index scores for individuals with mild Alzheimer’s disease: Verbal Comprehension 86.2, Perceptual Reasoning 85.8, Working Memory 84.3, and Processing Speed 76.6.

Question 58

An organizational psychologist would most likely be hired by a company to conduct a job evaluation for the purpose of: A. establishing comparable worth. B. determining the training needs of newly hired employees. C. developing performance appraisal measures. D. writing detailed job descriptions.

Answer 58

A. establishing comparable worth. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-019 Answer A is correct. A job evaluation is conducted to facilitate decisions related to compensation. It’s often used to establish comparable worth, which is the principle that workers who perform jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same.

Question 59

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements with regard to pro bono services? A. Because pro bono services are addressed in the General Principles, they’re encouraged by the Code. B. Because pro bono services are addressed in the General Principles, they’re discouraged by the Code. C. Because pro bono services are addressed in the Ethical Standards, they’re required by the Code. D. Because pro bono services are addressed in the Ethical Standards, they’re prohibited by the Code.

Answer 59

A. Because pro bono services are addressed in the General Principles, they’re encouraged by the Code. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-010 Answer A is correct. The term “pro bono services” is not used in the APA Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics, but this answer is most consistent with the “spirit” of the Codes. Also, providing free or lost cost services is addressed in the General Principles of the APA Ethics Code, which provide aspirational (not enforceable) guidelines: General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) states that “psychologists strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.”

Question 60

Damage to Broca’s area produces: A. nonfluent speech with intact comprehension. B. fluent but nonsensical speech with intact comprehension. C. nonfluent speech with severely impaired comprehension. D. fluent but nonsensical speech with impaired comprehension.

Answer 60

A. nonfluent speech with intact comprehension. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-097 Answer A is correct. Damage to Broca’s area causes Broca’s aphasia, which is also known as expressive aphasia. It’s characterized by nonfluent, labored speech with intact comprehension.

Question 61

A psychologist is planning a research study to evaluate the effects of a two-hour online lecture on statistics for improving the statistics knowledge of 35 psychologists who have just started studying for the EPPP. All participants will (1) take a pre-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions on Monday, (2) attend the online lecture on Wednesday evening, and (3) take a post-test consisting of 50 multiple-choice statistics questions that are equivalent to the pre-test questions on Friday. To analyze the data she obtains in her study, the researcher will use which of the following? A. t-test for a single sample B. t-test for correlated samples C. two-way ANOVA D. single-sample chi-square test

Answer 61

B. t-test for correlated samples EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-070 Answer B is correct. The first steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are to identify the independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study’s independent variable is the lecture on statistics and the dependent variable is statistics test score. The dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale, which means that the statistical test will be used to compare the mean scores obtained by the psychologists on the pre- and post-tests. The t-test and ANOVA are both used to compare mean scores, but because there are only two means, the t-test is the appropriate test. To determine which t-test to use, you determine how the means will be obtained: In this study they will be obtained from a single group of subjects, and the t-test for correlated samples is used when two means are obtained from the same group or from two groups that are related in some way.

Question 62

The court’s ruling in the 1979 case of Larry P. v. Wilson Riles: A. prohibited businesses from using IQ tests to make hiring decisions about African American job applicants. B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes. C. granted all children with disabilities the right to be provided with public education in the least restrictive environment. D. granted businesses the right to use cognitive ability tests to make employment decisions as long as the tests have adequate validity.

Answer 62

B. prohibited schools from using IQ tests to place African American children in special education classes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-131 Answer B is correct. In the Larry P. case, the court concluded that use of standardized IQ tests to place children in special education classes resulted in a disproportionate number of African American students being placed in those classes and ruled that the tests could no longer be used for that purpose for African American students.

Question 63

Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) bioecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that impact individual development. According to this theory, the __________ consists of the interactions between elements of the microsystem. A. macrosystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. chronosystem

Answer 63

B. mesosystem EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-022 Answer B is correct. Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The microsystem consists of elements in a child’s immediate environment, including the child’s family, school, and peers, and the mesosystem consists of interactions between those elements (e.g., between the child’s family and school).

Question 64

The effects of damage to the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex depend on the specific location of the damage but, with regard to emotions, damage to the left hemisphere is most likely to produce: A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria. B. depression or emotional volatility. C. unprovoked rage and hostility. D. unrealistic confidence and optimism.

Answer 64

B. depression or emotional volatility. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-159 Answer B is correct. Positive emotions are processed primarily in the left hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce depression or emotional volatility (which is described by some authors as a catastrophic reaction). Negative emotions are processed primarily in the right hemisphere, and damage can produce inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

Question 65

A psychologist would most likely violate ethical requirements for maintaining test security when he or she: A. provides clients with the raw or scaled scores they obtained on a test. B. discusses clients’ responses to test items to help them understand their test results. C. provides a client’s attorney with a copy of test items and the client’s answers to the items in response to a subpoena and with the client’s permission. D. allows clients to complete self-administered tests online at home when doing so is approved by the test publisher.

Answer 65

C. provides a client’s attorney with a copy of test items and the client’s answers to the items in response to a subpoena and with the client’s permission. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-199 Answer C is correct. Standard 9.11 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Standard 9.11 requires psychologists to “maintain the integrity and security of test materials,” which it defines as “manuals, protocols, and tests questions or stimuli.” Answers C and D both address test security. Answer C is the best answer because providing test items to an attorney is questionable since an attorney is unlikely to be trained in psychological testing and to be legally or ethically required to maintain test security. As noted by the APA Committee on Psychological Tests and Assessments (https://www.apa.org/science/programs/testing/test-security-faq), the best course of action in this situation is to request that test materials be released to a qualified psychologist or obtain a protective order from the court that requires all parties to maintain test security. Answer D describes an acceptable course of action. Note, however, that precautions should be taken to maintain test security. For example, clients should be advised that third-party observation and recording of the test in any form are not allowed. Answers A and B can be eliminated because they address the use of test data (which is not covered by this Standard) and describe acceptable actions.

Question 66

In their Robbers Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1966) found that competition between two groups of boys for desired prizes produced a high degree of intergroup hostility. These results provide support for which of the following theories of prejudice and discrimination? A. social identity theory B. realistic conflict theory C. scapegoat theory D. extended contact theory

Answer 66

B. realistic conflict theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-145 Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory, prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between groups for scarce and valued resources. Evidence for this theory is provided by Sherif’s Robbers Cave study in which conflict between groups was generated by having two groups of boys who had strong attachments to members of their own group compete for desired prizes.

Question 67

Piaget attributed children’s ability to engage in deferred imitation and make-believe play to: A. the process of accommodation. B. the process of equilibration. C. the use of mental operations. D. the ability to create mental representations.

Answer 67

D. the ability to create mental representations. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-090 Answer D is correct. Piaget attributed deferred imitation and make-believe play to the ability to create mental representations, which emerges during the final substage of the sensorimotor period at about 18 months of age. Note, however, that subsequent research found that children engage in deferred imitation and other behaviors that depend on mental representations prior to this age.

Question 68

Your neighbor tells you that one of her co-workers, a licensed psychologist, sometimes makes sexually suggestive comments that make her very uncomfortable and self-conscious. She says she asked him to stop making the comments last week because she finds them offensive, and he said his intention was to be funny but that he’d stop if that’s what she wants. In terms of ethical requirements, it appears that the co-worker’s comments: A. represent sexual harassment because they’re sexual in nature and occurred on more than one occasion. B. represent sexual harassment only if they would be identified as unacceptable by a “reasonable person.” C. represent sexual harassment if the co-worker does not stop making sexually suggestive comments after being told they’re offensive. D. do not represent sexual harassment because the co-worker was unaware that they were offensive while he was making them.

Answer 68

C. represent sexual harassment if the co-worker does not stop making sexually suggestive comments after being told they’re offensive. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-054 Answer C is correct. As defined in Standard 3.02 of the APA Ethics Code, comments of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment if (a) they are unwelcome, offensive, or create a hostile workplace and the person knows or is told this or (b) they’re “sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person.” The co-worker’s comments would meet the first criterion if he continues making them after being told they’re unwelcome and offensive. This answer is also consistent with Standard I.4 of the Canadian Code of Ethics which prohibits sexual harassment and with the definition of sexual harassment provided in the Code’s Preamble.

Question 69

Tolman and Honzik (1930) concluded that the rats in their studies formed cognitive maps of a maze as the result of which of the following? A. trial-and-error B. sudden insight C. reinforcement D. latent learning

Answer 69

D. latent learning EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-103 Answer D is correct. Tolman and Honzik found that rats allowed to explore a maze without being given a reward found their way to the goal box once a reward was provided more quickly than did rats that did not explore the maze before being given a reward. Based on these results, they concluded that rats allowed to explore the maze formed cognitive maps of the maze and that this confirmed that latent learning occurs without reinforcement.

Question 70

Dr. Wilson is hired by the court to evaluate the mental competence of a man who has been charged as an accomplice in a bank robbery that ended in the death of a bank employee. During a break, the man brags to Dr. Wilson about his role in the bank robbery. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Wilson should: A. not provide the court with any information she obtains without a signed authorization from the man. B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence. C. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation as long as she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation. D. provide the court with information about the man’s confession along with the results of the evaluation whether or not she informed the man about the limits of confidentiality prior to beginning the evaluation.

Answer 70

B. provide the court only with information she obtains that is relevant to the man’s mental competence. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-087 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04 of the APA Ethics Code and Paragraph 10.01 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, which require psychologists to disclose only client information that’s relevant to the purpose of a report or other communication. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 71

Which of the following is a type of counterbalanced design? A. Solomon four-group B. Latin square C. factorial D. multiple-baseline

Answer 71

B. Latin square EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-015 Answer B is correct. Counterbalancing is used to control order effects that may occur when a within-subjects design is used – i.e., when subjects in each group will receive or participate in all levels of the independent variable. The Latin square is a type of counterbalanced design that ensures that the different levels of the independent variable are assigned to the groups of subjects so that each level appears an equal number of times in each ordinal position.

Question 72

Dr. Robinson, a licensed psychologist who specializes in treating eating disorders, decides to offer a 90-minute presentation for parents on detecting and treating eating disorders in children and adolescents. In the advertisement for the presentation, Dr. Robinson describes it as a “lecture on the early identification of eating disorders in children and adolescents and treatment options.” There’s a good turnout for the lecture but, at the end of the first 45 minutes, only two parents have asked questions and Dr. Robinson notes that many attendees seem bored. She decides to “liven up” her presentation by having attendees describe their personal experiences with eating disorders. With regard to the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, this change in format is: A. ethical as long as she explains why she’s changing the format of the presentation. B. ethical as long as she makes it clear that attendees should share information only if they feel comfortable doing so. C. ethical as long as she explains the importance of maintaining confidentiality to the attendees. D. unethical because she advertised her presentation as a “lecture.”

Answer 72

D. unethical because she advertised her presentation as a “lecture.” EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-157 Answer D is correct. Dr. Robinson advertised her program as a lecture, and suddenly changing the format during the lecture would violate the requirements of Standard 7.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide accurate descriptions of the content of the programs they provide.

Question 73

Regulated breathing has been found to be an effective treatment for which of the following? A. childhood-onset fluency disorder B. dysarthria C. intermittent explosive disorder D. central sleep apnea

Answer 73

A. childhood-onset fluency disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-012 Answer A is correct. Regulated breathing is a behavioral intervention that has been found to be effective for treating stuttering (childhood-onset fluency disorder). It involves teaching the child to breathe in a way that’s incompatible with stuttering. See, e.g., C. A. Conelea, K. A. Rice, and D. W. Woods, Regulated breathing as a treatment for stuttering: A review of the empirical evidence, Journal of Speech-Language Pathology and Applied Behavior Analysis, 1(2), 94-102, 2006.

Question 74

Dr. Higashi believes she can obtain more useful data if she deceives research participants about certain aspects of her study. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Higashi should keep in mind that use of deception in research: A. is acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.” B. may be acceptable when alternative procedures are not available and subjects are informed about the deception “as early as is feasible.” C. may be acceptable as long as its use is justified by the potential value of the results of the study and subjects are not given any inducement for their participation. D. may be acceptable as long as its use is justified by the potential value of the results of the study and subjects sign a conditional informed consent.

Answer 74

B. may be acceptable when alternative procedures are not available and subjects are informed about the deception “as early as is feasible.” EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-181 Answer B is correct. This answer is the best one because, even though it doesn’t list all requirements for using deception, it’s most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.07 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards III.23 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07 allows the use of deception when it’s justified by the prospective value of the study, non-deceptive alternatives are not feasible, subjects aren’t deceived about aspects of the study that are likely to cause pain, and subjects are informed about the deception as early as is feasible.

Question 75

Angie, age 35, is brought to therapy by her sister who says that Angie “hasn’t been herself” for the last month. In response to your questions, you learn from Angie and her sister that Angie has lost her appetite, spends most of the day sleeping, doesn’t seem to have any energy, and is more forgetful than usual. To confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Angie, you will want to determine if her symptoms include: A. a depressed mood or feelings of worthlessness or guilt. B. a depressed mood or loss of interest in usual activities. C. suicidal ideation or a suicide attempt. D. feelings of worthlessness or guilt or mood instability.

Answer 75

B. a depressed mood or loss of interest in usual activities. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-132 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires the presence of at least five characteristics symptoms with at least one symptom being a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt and suicidal ideation, a suicide attempt, and a specific plan for committing suicide are symptoms of this disorder, but their presence is not required for the diagnosis.

Question 76

When using positive reinforcement to establish or increase a behavior, use of which of the following intermittent schedules of reinforcement will maximize the behavior’s resistance to extinction? A. fixed interval B. variable interval C. fixed ratio D. variable ratio

Answer 76

D. variable ratio EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-092 Answer D is correct. When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after four responses, then after two responses, then after six responses, and so on. Of the intermittent schedules, the variable ratio schedule produces the fastest rate of acquisition and the greatest resistance to extinction. Slot machines provide reinforcement on this schedule.

Question 77

Which of the following is a culture-reduced measure of fluid intelligence? A. Kuhlmann-Anderson B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices C. Woodcock-Johnson D. Slosson Intelligence Test

Answer 77

B. Raven’s Progressive Matrices EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-062 Answer B is correct. The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) tests are measures of fluid intelligence and are considered to be culture-reduced because they do not use language and performance does not depend on specific cultural or academic learning. There are three RPM tests: Standard Progressive Matrices, Colored Progressive Matrices, and Advanced Progressive Matrices.

Question 78

Which of the following personality tests provides scores on the “Big Five” personality traits? A. EPPS B. MBTI C. NEO-PI-3 D. 16PF

Answer 78

C. NEO-PI-3 EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-098 Answer C is correct. The NEO-PI-3 (NEO Personality Inventory-3) provides scores on the five major domains of personality (neuroticism, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience) and the six facets that contribute to each domain.

Question 79

The brain continues to develop into late adolescence or early to mid-adulthood, with the __________ being the last area to fully develop. A. basal ganglia B. amygdala C. somatosensory cortex D. prefrontal cortex

Answer 79

D. prefrontal cortex EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-055 Answer D is correct. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for impulse control, planning, decision-making, and other higher-order cognitive functions. It’s the last area of the brain to become fully functional and continues to develop into the early or mid-20s. See, e.g., B. M. Newman and P. R. Newman, Development through life: A psychosocial approach (13th ed.), Boston, MA, Cengage Learning, 2017.

Question 80

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome: A. are lifelong and irreversible. B. gradually decrease in severity during childhood and adolescence. C. are largely reversible with the provision of early psychosocial interventions. D. are largely reversible with the provision of adequate nutrition following birth.

Answer 80

A. are lifelong and irreversible. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-044 Answer A is correct. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). Its symptoms are lifelong and irreversible and include a wide range of physical abnormalities, cognitive deficits, and behavioral problems.

Question 81

You have just received a subpoena requesting that you appear in court to provide information about the diagnosis and treatment of a former client of yours who is suing her current therapist for malpractice. You are unable to contact the client or confirm that she has signed an authorization to release information. In this situation, you should: A. notify the party who issued the subpoena that you cannot appear in court without a signed authorization from the client. B. appear in court as requested but provide only information you believe is relevant to the case. C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client. D. appear in court and provide the requested information since privilege is waived in this situation.

Answer 81

C. appear in court as requested but claim the privilege on behalf of the client. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-222 Answer C is correct. When you receive a subpoena to appear in court and provide confidential information about a client and do not have authorization from the client to disclose the information, you should appear in court and claim the privilege on behalf of the client. You would then provide the information only if authorized to do so by the client or the client’s legal representative or ordered to do so by the court. Note that answer D is not correct because it is the court that decides if privilege is waived.

Question 82

In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of _____ is equivalent to a z-score of _____ and a percentile rank of 84. A. 50; 0 B. 50; 1.0 C. 60; 1.0 D. 70; 2.0

Answer 82

C. 60; 1.0 EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-128 Answer C is correct. In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.

Question 83

The standard error of the mean increases in size as the: A. population standard deviation and sample size decrease. B. population standard deviation and sample size increase. C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases. D. population standard deviation decreases and sample size increases.

Answer 83

C. population standard deviation increases and sample size decreases. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-037 Answer C is correct. The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean and is used to determine how well a sample mean estimates a population mean. It’s calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size, and it increases as the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases, and vice versa.

Question 84

You receive a letter from a former client’s current therapist asking you to fax confidential information about the client’s treatment. The request is accompanied by a signed authorization for release of information from the client. You should: A. ask the therapist to confirm that he received the documents after you send them. B. mark each page “confidential” before faxing the requested information to the therapist. C. fax the requested information to the therapist after ensuring that all information that identifies the client has been removed. D. refuse to fax the information and send a copy of the file by courier instead.

Answer 84

C. fax the requested information to the therapist after ensuring that all information that identifies the client has been removed. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-124 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 6.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.42 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 6.02(b) states that, “if confidential information concerning recipients of psychological services is entered into databases or systems of records available to persons whose access has not been consented to by the recipient, psychologists use coding or other techniques to avoid the inclusion of personal identifiers.” When information is faxed or otherwise transferred electronically, it is not possible to guarantee it will not be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, removing identifying information is the best course of action.

Question 85

Which of the following best describes the premise underlying the James-Lange theory of emotion? A. A stimulus is perceived, the stimulus is interpreted, and bodily arousal, behavior, and emotion then occur simultaneously. B. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and a label for that arousal occur, and behavior and emotion then occur simultaneously. C. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and behavior occur, and emotion is then experienced. D. A stimulus is perceived, the stimulus is interpreted, emotion is experienced, and behavior then occurs.

Answer 85

C. A stimulus is perceived, bodily arousal and behavior occur, and emotion is then experienced. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-153 Answer C is correct. The James-Lange theory replaces the idea that “we run because we’re afraid” with the idea that “we’re afraid because we run.” In other words, according to this theory, we perceive a stimulus, we respond to the stimulus with arousal and behavior, and we then experience an emotion as we become aware of our bodily reactions.

Question 86

When an examinee’s scores on the L, F, and K scales of the MMPI-2 assume a V-shape with a low score on the F scale and high scores on the L and K scales, this suggests which of the following? A. The examinee attempted to make a favorable impression. B. The examinee attempted to fake a mental illness. C. The examinee answered half of the items “true” and the other half “false.” D. The examinee answered all of the items “true.”

Answer 86

A. The examinee attempted to make a favorable impression. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-MMPI-2-084 Answer A is correct. The L, F, and K scales are three of the MMPI-2’s validity scales and the L-F-K profile indicates an attempt to “fake good” when it is V-shaped (low F scale score and high L and K scale scores) and an attempt to “fake bad” when it has an inverted-V shape (high F scale score and low L and K scale scores).

Question 87

An early criticism of Carl Jung’s conceptualization of __________ was that it’s similar to the discredited belief of Jean-Baptiste Lamarck that acquired traits can be inherited. A. individuation B. archetypes C. synchronicity D. prototypes

Answer 87

B. archetypes EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-017 Answer B is correct. Jung described archetypes as universal “primordial images” that reside in the collective unconscious and represent the collective experiences of our ancestors that are passed down from generation to generation. Jung was apparently influenced by Lamarck’s idea that acquired traits can be inherited but, in response to his critics, Jung attempted to distance himself from Lamarck by arguing that archetypes are propensities rather than actual ideas or behaviors.

Question 88

You would use which of the following tests to evaluate the receptive vocabulary of a 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder? A. PPVT-5 B. Vineland-II C. Leiter-3 D. KABC-II

Answer 88

A. PPVT-5 EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-051 Answer A is correct. The PPVT-5 (Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fifth Edition) is used to assess the receptive vocabulary of individuals ages 2 years, 6 months to 90+ years. It can be used with individuals who have autism spectrum disorder, symptoms of psychosis, or cerebral palsy or other physical disability.

Question 89

The technique known as orgasmic reconditioning has been identified as an effective treatment for which of the following? A. delayed ejaculation B. female orgasmic disorder C. premature ejaculation D. paraphilic disorder

Answer 89

D. paraphilic disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-208 Answer D is correct. Orgasmic reconditioning, covert sensitization, and aversion treatment are behavioral interventions that are used to treat paraphilic disorders. Orgasmic reconditioning involves teaching the individual to become sexually aroused to more acceptable mental images and fantasies.

Question 90

The tendency for people to overestimate the frequency of deaths due to plane crashes and shark attacks and underestimate deaths due to heart disease can be attributed to reliance on which of the following? A. availability heuristic B. anchoring and adjustment heuristic C. counterfactual thinking D. false consensus effect

Answer 90

A. availability heuristic EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-025 Answer A is correct. When using the availability heuristic, people base their judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on how easy it is to recall relevant examples of the event. Events that are uncommon but memorable (e.g., deaths due to plane crashes or shark attacks) are more easily remembered than events that are more common but less memorable.

Question 91

Immediately after a training program has been delivered to a group of trainees, the developer of the program conducts a ____________ to assess its outcomes. A. summative evaluation B. formative evaluation C. confirmative evaluation D. meta-evaluation

Answer 91

A. summative evaluation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-129 Answer A is correct. The full-scope evaluation model (Dessinger & Moseley, 2010) distinguishes between four types of training program evaluation – formative, summative, confirmative, and meta. A summative evaluation is conducted immediately after a training program has been delivered to assess trainee reactions to the program and its effectiveness for meeting its goals.

Question 92

The tendency to attribute all problems experienced by students with learning disabilities to their learning disabilities and overlook other possible explanations is an example of the: A. fundamental attribution error. B. halo bias. C. diagnostic overshadowing bias. D. base rate fallacy.

Answer 92

C. diagnostic overshadowing bias. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer C is correct. The diagnostic overshadowing bias is the tendency to attribute all of a person’s symptoms to one diagnosis (e.g., to a learning disability) and overlook the possibility that they may be due to a comorbid condition.

Question 93

Which of the following is not one of the microaggressions identified by D. W. Sue et al. (2007)? A. microinequity B. microassault C. microinvalidation D. microinsult

Answer 93

A. microinequity EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-215 Answer A is correct. As defined by D. W. Sue et al., microaggressions “are brief and commonplace daily verbal, behavioral, or environmental indignities, whether intentional or unintentional, that communicate hostile, derogatory, or negative racial slights and insults toward people of color” (Racial microaggressions in daily life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007). Microassault, microinvalidation, and microinsult are the three types of microaggression identified by these investigators.

Question 94

The factor that distinguishes primary hypertension from secondary hypertension is: A. whether or not the cause of the disorder is known. B. whether or not the disorder responds to medication. C. the age at onset of the disorder. D. the severity of the disorder’s symptoms.

Answer 94

A. whether or not the cause of the disorder is known. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-183 Answer A is correct. There are two types of hypertension. The most common type is primary hypertension, which is also known as essential hypertension and is diagnosed when the cause of elevated blood pressure is unknown. In contrast, secondary hypertension is diagnosed when the cause is known.

Question 95

A supervisor notices that an employee seems to be putting more time and effort into his work but this increase has not been accompanied by an increase in productivity. The employee’s behavior is most likely: A. the result of a lack of control over the pace of her work. B. an early sign of job burnout. C. a consequence of chronic work-family conflict. D. a symptom of “survivor syndrome.”

Answer 95

B. an early sign of job burnout. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-212 Answer B is correct. An early sign of burnout is an increase in the time and effort put into work without an increase in productivity. Other early signs include reduced motivation, increased irritability and negativity, social withdrawal, and somatic symptoms.

Question 96

Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance? A. motion parallax B. interposition of objects C. retinal disparity D. linear perspective

Answer 96

C. retinal disparity EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-139 Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Question 97

Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be: A. unethical. B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement. C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods). D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.

Answer 97

A. unethical. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-143 Answer A is correct. Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 98

Studies investigating ____________ often place infants in uncertain situations that include a stranger, a novel toy or other object, or the visual cliff. A. basic temperament B. problem-solving C. social referencing D. self-awareness

Answer 98

C. social referencing EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-168 Answer C is correct. Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.

Question 99

____________ was used to develop the Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory, which means that items included in the scale distinguished between people in the different occupational groups and “people-in-general.” A. Rational keying B. Theoretical keying C. Empirical criterion keying D. Homogeneous keying

Answer 99

C. Empirical criterion keying EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Interest Inventories-073 Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, empirical criterion keying involves including items in a scale or test that distinguish between criterion groups. For the Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory, the criterion groups were people in the different occupational groups and a group consisting of “people-in-general.”

Question 100

A 41-year-old woman says she feels cold and tired all the time, has been having trouble remembering things, is constipated, has unusually dry skin, and has gained weight even though she’s eating less. The woman’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders? A. Grave’s disease B. Addison’s disease C. hypoglycemia D. hypothyroidism

Answer 100

D. hypothyroidism EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-189 Answer D is correct. Hypothyroidism is caused by a low level of thyroxine, the primary hormone secreted by the thyroid gland. The symptoms listed in the question are characteristic of this disorder.

Question 101

In the context of psychological assessment, the terms “floor” and “ceiling” refer to: A. the lowest and highest true scores an examinee is likely to have, given his or her obtained predictor score. B. the lowest and highest scores an examinee is likely to obtain on a criterion, given his or her predictor score. C. the degree to which a test can discriminate among examinees who have very low levels or very high levels of the characteristic measured by the test. D. the degree to which a test accurately predicts the criterion scores of examinees who obtain very low scores or very high scores on the test.

Answer 101

C. the degree to which a test can discriminate among examinees who have very low levels or very high levels of the characteristic measured by the test. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-007 Answer C is correct. A test has limited floor when it cannot discriminate well among examinees who have a low level of the characteristic measured by the test because the test does not include a sufficient number of easy items. In contrast, a test has limited ceiling when it cannot discriminate well among examinees who have a high level of the characteristic measured by the test because it does not include a sufficient number of difficult items.

Question 102

An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement. A. two-factor theory B. equity theory C. goal-setting theory D. situational leadership theory

Answer 102

A. two-factor theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-194 Answer A is correct. The psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.

Question 103

In the context of test construction, “shrinkage” is associated with: A. inter-rater reliability. B. factor analysis. C. incremental validity. D. cross-validation.

Answer 103

D. cross-validation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-117 Answer D is correct. Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation and refers to the fact that a validity coefficient is likely to be smaller than the original coefficient when the predictor(s) and criterion are administered to another (cross-validation) sample. Shrinkage occurs because the chance factors that contributed to the relationship between the predictor(s) and criterion in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.

Question 104

A young man complains that “everyone at work hates me.” His therapist says it may be true that his coworkers hate him and asks him to list the ways they have expressed their hate. The therapist is using which of the following paradoxical techniques? A. reframing B. prescribing C. restraining D. positioning

Answer 104

D. positioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-149 Answer D is correct. When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.

Question 105

The test manual for an academic achievement test indicates that it has an alternate forms reliability coefficient of .80. This means that _____ of variability in test scores is true score variability. A. 80% B. 64% C. 36% D. 20%

Answer 105

A. 80% EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-016 Answer A is correct. Reliability coefficients are interpreted directly as the percent of variability in test scores that is due to true score variability. When the reliability coefficient is .80, this means that 80% of variability in scores is due to true score variability and 20% is due to measurement error.

Question 106

The adoption of “colorism” – or the association of a light skin tone with higher status and greater beauty – by some African Americans is an example of: A. interpersonal racism. B. symbolic racism. C. internalized racism. D. racial discrimination.

Answer 106

C. internalized racism. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-209 Answer C is correct. Internalized racism is also known as internalized racial oppression and occurs when a person accepts society’s negative beliefs and stereotypes related to his/her own racial group. Colorism (preferring a light skin tone and equating lighter skin with higher status and greater beauty) is a manifestation of internalized racism. See, e.g., M. Hunter, The persistent problem of colorism: Skin tone, status, and inequality, Sociology Compass, 1(1), 237-254, 2007.

Question 107

You obtain the data you need from a sample of licensed psychologists to calculate a correlation coefficient for their EPPP score and yearly salary five years after taking the exam. If you square the correlation coefficient, you will obtain a(n) _______________, which indicates the amount of variability in yearly salary that’s accounted for by EPPP score. A. coefficient of concordance B. coefficient of determination C. kappa coefficient D. eta coefficient

Answer 107

B. coefficient of determination EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-105 Answer B is correct. Squaring a correlation coefficient produces a coefficient of determination, which is a measure of shared variability – or, put another way, a measure of the amount of variability in one variable that is accounted for by variability in another variable.

Question 108

Which of the following is an example of prospective memory? A. remembering what you did on your last birthday B. remembering what your parents gave you when you graduated from 8th grade C. remembering the definition of a new term you learned while studying for the EPPP D. remembering that you have a dentist appointment next Thursday morning

Answer 108

D. remembering that you have a dentist appointment next Thursday morning EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-125 Answer D is correct. Prospective memory is memory for tasks that must be performed or events that will occur in the future.

Question 109

Dr. Haar is concerned that the statistics tests she uses for her introductory statistics class are too difficult since so few students pass them. To make her tests a little easier, she will want to remove some items that have an item difficulty index (p) of ________ and add some items that have an item difficulty index of ________. A. +1.0 and higher; -1.0 and lower B. +.50 and higher; -.50 and lower C. .85 and higher; .15 and lower D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher

Answer 109

D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-005 Answer D is correct. The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees answered it correctly). Therefore, to make the statistics tests easier, Dr. Haar will want to remove some of the very difficult items (e.g., those with a p value of .15 and lower) and add some easy items (e.g., those with a p value of .85 and higher).

Question 110

According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1983) transtheoretical model, people in the ____________ stage of change are aware of their problem behavior, are weighing the pros and cons of changing, and feel they’ll be ready to take the steps necessary to change the behavior within the next six months. A. precontemplation B. preparation C. contemplation D. determination

Answer 110

C. contemplation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-089 Answer C is correct. Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. During the contemplation stage, people are aware of the costs and benefits of changing an undesirable behavior and may be somewhat ambivalent about doing so, but they’re seriously considering taking action to change within the next six months.

Question 111

Miller’s (1956) “magical number seven, plus or minus two” refers to: A. the capacity of sensory memory. B. the capacity of short-term memory. C. the duration (in milliseconds) of information in sensory memory. D. the duration (in seconds) of information in working memory.

Answer 111

B. the capacity of short-term memory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-114 Answer B is correct. Miller found that the capacity of short-term memory is limited to between five and nine (seven plus and minus two) chunks of information.

Question 112

Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention (RP) model identifies which of the following as the immediate precipitant of alcohol use after a period of abstinence? A. craving for alcohol B. high-risk situations C. lifestyle imbalance D. “apparently irrelevant decisions”

Answer 112

B. high-risk situations EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-202 Answer B is correct. Marlatt and Gordon’s RP model proposes that relapse is the result of immediate determinants and covert antecedents and describes high risk situations (an immediate determinant) as the immediate precipitators of alcohol use after a period of abstinence. See, e.g., M. E. Larimer, R. S. Palmer, and G. A. Marlatt, Relapse prevention: An overview of Marlatt’s cognitive-behavioral model, Alcohol Research and Health, 23(2), 151-160, 1999.

Question 113

When assessing the performance of the employees he supervises, Mr. Stein tends to prioritize an employee’s willingness to take responsibility for resolving work-related problems. Consequently, when assessing employees who consistently and enthusiastically assume responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them high ratings on unrelated dimensions of job performance. And when assessing employees who frequently shirk responsibility, Mr. Stein gives them low ratings on all dimensions of job performance. Mr. Stein’s tendency is an example of which of the following? A. contrast error B. halo error C. leniency/strictness bias D. similarity bias

Answer 113

B. halo error EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-041 Answer B is correct. The halo error occurs when a rater’s rating of an employee on one dimension of job performance affects how the rater rates the employee on all other dimensions.

Question 114

When a test has a standard deviation of 10, the test’s standard error of measurement will fall between: A. 0 and 10 B. 10 and 1.0 C. 0 and 1.0 D. -1.0 and +1.0

Answer 114

A. 0 and 10 EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-049 Answer A is correct. A test’s standard error of measurement equals its standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus the reliability coefficient. A test’s reliability coefficient can range from 0 to 1.0, so the standard error of measurement for a test that has a standard deviation of 10 ranges from 0 when the reliability coefficient is 1.0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 1 equals 0) to 10 when the reliability coefficient is 0 (10 times the square root of 1 minus 0 equals 10).

Question 115

Based on her observations of children 2-1/2 to 4 years of age, Mildred Parten (1932) derived six types of social participation that differ in terms of level of social complexity. Of these six types, she identified which of the following as the most socially complex? A. parallel play B. mastery play C. cooperative play D. associative play

Answer 115

C. cooperative play EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-192 Answer C is correct. Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation: unoccupied behavior, solitary play, onlooker behavior, parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play.

Question 116

Autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, transient hallucinations, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures are most suggestive of which of the following? A. alcohol withdrawal B. opioid withdrawal C. stimulant intoxication D. inhalant intoxication

Answer 116

A. alcohol withdrawal EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-196 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal requires the presence of two or more of the following symptoms after cessation or reduction of heavy and prolonged alcohol use: autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

Question 117

In Ainsworth’s (Ainsworth et al., 1978) “strange situation,” an infant with an ____________ attachment pattern is indifferent to his/her mother and may act as though she’s not present, shows little or no distress when she leaves, and ignores her when she returns. Mothers of children with this attachment pattern are often ____________. A. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating B. avoidant; moody/depressed and inconsistent C. ambivalent; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating D. ambivalent; moody/depressed and inconsistent

Answer 117

A. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-174 Answer A is correct. Ainsworth and her colleagues distinguished between two types of insecure attachment patterns: avoidant and ambivalent (which is also referred to as resistant). The infant behaviors described in this question are characteristic of children with the avoidant pattern, and parents of children with this pattern are often either rejecting and unresponsive or intrusive and overstimulating.

Question 118

____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through. A. Self-instructional training B. Stress inoculation training C. Problem-solving therapy D. Motivational interviewing

Answer 118

B. Stress inoculation training EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-111 Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.

Question 119

Rates of comorbidity are high for individuals with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. For example, according to the DSM-5, over half of individuals with schizophrenia have which of the following? A. social anxiety disorder B. tobacco use disorder C. obsessive-compulsive disorder D. acute stress disorder

Answer 119

B. tobacco use disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-078 Answer B is correct. The studies have found that about 70 to 85% of individuals with schizophrenia are tobacco users and, according to the DSM-5, over half of individuals with this diagnosis meet the diagnostic criteria for tobacco use disorder. Of the disorders listed in the answers, tobacco use disorder is the most common co-occurring disorder for individuals with schizophrenia.

Question 120

Age-related changes in fluid intelligence have been linked to changes in processing speed and: A. working memory. B. sensory memory. C. recent long-term memory. D. prospective memory.

Answer 120

A. working memory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-018 Answer A is correct. The research has consistently found moderate to high correlations between measures of processing speed, working memory, and fluid intelligence. There are several explanations for these correlations. One explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed cause changes in working memory that, in turn, cause changes in fluid intelligence. Another explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed and working memory have independent effects on fluid intelligence. See, e.g., A. Demetriou, G. Spanoudis, M. Shayer, S. van der Ven, C. R. Brydges, E. Kroesbergen, G. Podjarny, and H. L. Swanson, Relations between speed, working memory, and intelligence from preschool to adulthood: Structural equation modeling of 14 studies, Intelligence, 46, 107-121, 2014.

Question 121

Research comparing mental health care service utilization rates and premature therapy dropout rates of heterosexual and LGBTQ men and women has found that: A. heterosexual men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates. B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates. C. heterosexual men and women have a higher utilization rate, but LGBTQ men and women have a higher dropout rate. D. LGBTQ men and women have a higher utilization rate, but heterosexual men and women have a higher dropout rate.

Answer 121

B. LBGTQ men and women have higher utilization and dropout rates. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-173 Answer B is correct. The studies have consistently found that the rates of mental health service utilization are higher for LGBTQ men and women than for heterosexual men and women. There’s also evidence that LGBTQ men and women have higher rates of premature dropout rates from therapy.

Question 122

Minuchin, Rosman, and Baker (1978) found that the parents of children with anorexia were often overprotective of and emotionally overinvolved with the child and discouraged the child’s independence. They referred to this family pattern as: A. enmeshed. B. triangulated. C. skewed. D. closed.

Answer 122

A. enmeshed. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-141 Answer A is correct. One of the structural elements of interest to structural family therapists are the boundaries between family members, and they distinguish between overly rigid and overly permeable boundaries: Overly rigid boundaries lead to disengagement (a lack of connection and excessive independence between family members), while overly permeable boundaries lead to enmeshment (excessive closeness and dependence between family members).

Question 123

When a supervisor has legal responsibility for the actions of a psychology intern, the intern: A. must inform clients that he/she is being supervised. B. must inform clients that he/she is being supervised and give them the supervisor’s name. C. must inform clients about his/her experience and licensure status. D. may or may not inform clients that he/she is being supervised, depending on the situation.

Answer 123

B. must inform clients that he/she is being supervised and give them the supervisor’s name. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-205 Answer B is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.01(c) of the APA Ethics Code, which states that “when the therapist is a trainee and the legal responsibility for the treatment provided resides with the supervisor,” the client must be informed that the therapist is a trainee who is being supervised and be given the supervisor’s name. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards III.13 and III.22 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 124

Dr. King realizes that his new client is someone he had a sexual relationship with five years ago while he was in graduate school. The relationship lasted only a few months and ended when they agreed it would be best if they started dating other people. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. King should: A. discuss the situation with the client to determine the best course of action. B. seek consultation with a colleague to determine the best course of action. C. determine if the past relationship will affect his objectivity in therapy. D. refer the client to another therapist.

Answer 124

D. refer the client to another therapist. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-211 Answer D is correct. This answer is consistent with Standard 10.07 of the APA Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from accepting “as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.” It is also consistent with the requirements of Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 125

Following a presidential election, a person who voted for the winning candidate pays attention to news commentaries that support the new president’s actions but ignores commentaries that criticize him. This best illustrates which of the following? A. self-serving bias B. confirmation bias C. illusory correlation D. halo effect

Answer 125

B. confirmation bias EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-014 Answer B is correct. The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and to ignore information that refutes them.

Question 126

Following a stroke, a man shaves only the right side of his face, eats food only on the right side of his plate, and frequently bumps into door frames with the left side of his body. Which of the following areas of the brain was affected by the stroke? A. frontal lobe B. temporal lobe C. occipital lobe D. parietal lobe

Answer 126

D. parietal lobe EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-108 Answer D is correct. This man’s symptoms are characteristic of contralateral neglect, which is also known as hemispatial neglect and is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder is unaware of areas and objects on the side of his/her body opposite to the location of the damage.

Question 127

A problem with using percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that it may: A. underestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases. B. overestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases. C. underestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement. D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

Answer 127

D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-038 Answer D is correct. A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability.

Question 128

In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said it was wrong for Heinz to steal a drug to try to save his dying wife because Heinz would get caught and sent to jail. This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s __________ level of moral development. A. unconventional B. preconventional C. conventional D. postconventional

Answer 128

B. preconventional EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-186 Answer B is correct. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. Individuals in the first stage of the preconventional level (punishment and obedience orientation) base their judgments on the consequences of the act. A person in this stage would say that Heinz should not steal the drug because of the negative consequences of doing so.

Question 129

In their discussion of the use of culture-specific techniques in psychotherapy, Sue and Zane (1987) emphasize the importance of “gift giving” during the initial therapy sessions when working with Asian American and other non-Western clients. As described by these investigators, gift giving includes: A. establishing credibility by demonstrating expertise. B. ensuring confidentiality. C. instilling hope and providing reassurance. D. introducing the topic of race or ethnicity.

Answer 129

C. instilling hope and providing reassurance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-218 Answer C is correct. As described by S. Sue and N. Zane, gift giving involves ensuring that clients feel they have received immediate benefits from therapy and includes normalizing the client’s feelings and experiences, providing reassurance, instilling hope, teaching coping skills, and helping the client set goals for therapy (The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation, American Psychologist, 42(1), 37-45, 1987). Note that Sue and Zane identify credibility as an important treatment issue when working with non-Western clients, but they describe it as a separate issue and not a factor that contributes to gift giving.

Question 130

Huntington’s disease is a progressive autosomal dominant disorder that has been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the: A. suprachiasmatic nucleus. B. basal ganglia. C. hypothalamus. D. brainstem.

Answer 130

B. basal ganglia. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-177 Answer B is correct. The basal ganglia are responsible for voluntary motor control, and the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease have been linked to GABA and glutamate abnormalities in the basal ganglia, especially the caudate nucleus and putamen.

Question 131

Brain scans of people with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) have shown that brain activity in the __________ is elevated and that cognitive behavior therapy reduces that activity. A. cerebellum B. caudate nucleus C. hippocampus D. locus coeruleus

Answer 131

B. caudate nucleus EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder--225 Answer B is correct. Knowing that OCD has been linked to elevated activity in the caudate nucleus, orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate gyrus, and thalamus would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with research showing that CBT reduces activity in the caudate nucleus of individuals with OCD (e.g., A. Poli et al., Neurobiological outcomes of cognitive behavioral therapy for obsessive-compulsive disorder: A systematic review, Psychiatry, 13, 2022).

Question 132

Alma A., a 68-year-old retired real estate agent, is brought to therapy by her daughter who says that Alma has become forgetful, has difficulty concentrating, and seems depressed. The presence of which of the following would suggest that Alma’s symptoms are more likely due to a neurocognitive disorder than to pseudodementia (major depressive disorder)? A. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms began soon after the family dog died. B. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms are worse in the evening. C. Alma often answers “I don’t know” in response to assessment questions. D. Alma exaggerates her cognitive problems.

Answer 132

B. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms are worse in the evening. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders--001 Answer B is correct. Major depressive disorder and neurocognitive disorder share some symptoms, but they also differ in important ways. The behaviors described in answers A, C, and D are more characteristic of pseudodementia than of a neurocognitive disorder. In contrast, worsening of symptoms in the evening (“sundowning”) is more characteristic of a neurocognitive disorder.

Question 133

Before using a selection test to estimate how well job applicants will do on a measure of job performance on their first few days of work, you would want to make sure the selection test has adequate: A. concurrent validity. B. predictive validity. C. differential validity. D. construct validity.

Answer 133

B. predictive validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-082 Answer B is correct. Evaluating a predictor’s criterion-related validity is important when scores on the predictor will be used to estimate scores on a criterion. There are two types of criterion-related validity: Concurrent validity is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate current scores on the criterion. Predictive validity is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate future scores on the criterion, which is the situation described in this question.

Question 134

The Bender-Gestalt II is a measure of visual-motor integration that’s also used as a: A. screening test for brain damage. B. screening test for mental maturity. C. measure of behavioral inhibition. D. measure of executive functioning.

Answer 134

A. screening test for brain damage. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Clinical Tests-109 Answer A is correct. Although the Bender-Gestalt II does not provide detailed information about the location or effects of brain damage, it’s considered useful as a screening test for brain damage, especially right parietal lobe damage.

Question 135

A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores? A. linear regression analysis B. discriminant function analysis C. stepwise multiple regression D. factor analysis

Answer 135

C. stepwise multiple regression EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-127 Answer C is correct. Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction.

Question 136

After conditioning dogs to salivate to a tone by repeatedly pairing the tone with food, Pavlov attempted to extinguish the conditioned salivation response by repeatedly presenting the tone without the food. After numerous presentations of the tone alone, the dogs stopped salivating in response to it. However, when the dogs were returned to the laboratory on the day after the conditioned response had been extinguished, presentation of the tone alone elicited some salivation. Pavlov referred to the return of the conditioned response after extinction trials as: A. experimental neurosis. B. second-order conditioning. C. response generalization. D. spontaneous recovery.

Answer 136

D. spontaneous recovery. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-020 Answer D is correct. Spontaneous recovery refers to the return of an extinguished conditioned response without the conditioned stimulus being presented again with the unconditioned stimulus. According to Pavlov, spontaneous recovery confirms that a conditioned response is suppressed (rather than eliminated) by extinction trials.

Question 137

A four-year-old child doesn’t seek comfort from her parents or others when she’s upset and rarely expresses happiness or other positive emotions. Which of the following is needed to confirm the DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder for this child? A. The child’s symptoms have been present for at least six months. B. The child’s symptoms started before she was two years old. C. The child exhibits a pattern of impaired social and emotional responsiveness in at least two settings. D. The child has experienced a pattern of severe social neglect or frequent changes in primary caregivers.

Answer 137

D. The child has experienced a pattern of severe social neglect or frequent changes in primary caregivers. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-166 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder requires a consistent pattern of inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behaviors toward adult caregivers that is believed to be due to a pattern of extreme insufficient care as evidenced by severe social neglect, frequent changes in primary caregivers that limited the child’s ability to form stable attachments, and/or rearing in an unusual setting that limited the child’s ability to form selective attachments.

Question 138

An assumption of dialectical behavior therapy is that borderline personality disorder is attributable to which of the following? A. inadequate response-contingent reinforcement B. split perceptions of self and others into unrealistic extremes C. emotion dysregulation D. dysfunctional self-schemas

Answer 138

C. emotion dysregulation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Personality Disorders-223 Answer C is correct. M. Linehan’s dialectical behavior therapy is based on the assumption that borderline personality disorder is a disorder of the emotion regulation system that involves high emotional vulnerability coupled with an inability to regulate emotions (Cognitive-behavioral treatment of borderline personality disorder, New York, Guilford Press, 1993).

Question 139

____________ viewed schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders as the result of a multigenerational transmission process. A. Salvador Minuchin B. Jay Haley C. Murray Bowen D. William Glasser

Answer 139

C. Murray Bowen EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-133 Answer C is correct. Bowen considered severe mental disorders to be the result of a multigenerational transmission process in which progressively lower levels of differentiation are transmitted over several generations.

Question 140

You don’t consider the possibility that the rudeness and irritability of a new checkout clerk are due to situational factors but, instead, conclude that he’s a very unpleasant person who shouldn’t have a job that puts him in contact with the public. Your conclusion illustrates which of the following? A. fundamental attribution error B. ultimate attribution error C. actor-observer effect D. illusory correlation

Answer 140

A. fundamental attribution error EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-003 Answer A is correct. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behaviors of other people.

Question 141

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding sexual relationships with students? A. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with current and former students in their department. B. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students who are “vulnerable to undue influence.” C. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students when doing so creates an unacceptable multiple relationship. D. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students over whom they have or are likely to have evaluative authority.

Answer 141

D. Psychologists are prohibited from becoming sexually involved with students over whom they have or are likely to have evaluative authority. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-163 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s closest to the language of Standard 7.07 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from becoming sexually involved with students who are in their departments or over whom they have evaluative authority.

Question 142

The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously. A. alternate forms B. internal consistency C. test-retest D. inter-rater

Answer 142

B. internal consistency EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-027 Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

Question 143

Vicarious liability refers to which of the following? A. an employer’s legal responsibility for the acts of his/her employees B. a chief investigator’s responsibility for the welfare of his/her research subjects C. an employer’s “psychological contract” with his/her employees D. a therapist’s obligation to maintain client confidentiality

Answer 143

A. an employer’s legal responsibility for the acts of his/her employees EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-043 Answer A is correct. When delegating work to an employee or supervisee, psychologists must be aware that, in certain circumstances, they might have vicarious liability – i.e., they might be legally responsible for the actions of the employee or supervisee.

Question 144

According to Berry’s (1990) acculturation model, a person is ____________ when he or she has rejected his or her own minority culture and the dominant culture. A. marginalized B. separated C. unacculturated D. transmutated

Answer 144

A. marginalized EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-197 Answer A is correct. Berry’s model distinguishes between four levels of acculturation that are determined by the person’s acceptance or rejection of his/her own minority culture and the majority culture: integrated, assimilated, separated, and marginalized. A person is marginalized when he/she has rejected both cultures.

Question 145

Bem’s (1981) gender schema theory incorporates elements of which of the following to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity? A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory B. cognitive developmental theory and psychodynamic theory C. behavioral learning theory and biological theory D. behavioral learning theory and psychodynamic theory

Answer 145

A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-162 Answer A is correct. Bem’s gender schema theory combines elements of cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity. According to this theory, children acquire information about gender from the social environment, which they encode and process to derive cognitive schemas that they use to understand and evaluate themselves and others.

Question 146

On average, full siblings and other first-degree relatives share _____ of their genetic material. A. 90% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25%

Answer 146

C. 50% EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-011 Answer C is correct. Full siblings, fraternal twins, and other first degree relatives share about 50% of their genetic material, while half siblings share about 25%.

Question 147

Dr. Connor is a solution-focused family therapist, and his new clients are Mr. and Mrs. Bingham and their two sons, 7-year-old Bob and 9-year-old Brett. During the first session, Mrs. Bingham says that their main concern is that Brett’s misbehavior causes a lot of problems at home and constantly gets him into trouble at school. After asking Mr. and Mrs. Bingham for some examples of what they mean, Dr. Connor will most likely ask which of the following questions? A. What was happening right before the last time Brett got into trouble? B. Which of Brett’s behaviors cause the most problems at home and at school? C. What kind of things does Brett do when he’s not causing problems at home? D. What usually happens when Brett gets into trouble at school?

Answer 147

C. What kind of things does Brett do when he’s not causing problems at home? EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Brief Therapies-072 Answer C is correct. Asking Brett’s parents what kind of things Brett does when he’s not causing problems is an example of an exception question. Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapists to help clients see that the presenting problem doesn’t always occur and to help them identify solutions to the problem.

Question 148

Mark, age 9, is brought to therapy by his parents who say his behavior has gotten “out of control” and they don’t know why or what to do about it. Mark’s parents describe his symptoms and say they started about a year ago. Based on their description, it appears that Mark’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation. To confirm this diagnosis, you will do which of the following? A. confirm the age of onset of his symptoms B. determine if his symptoms occur outside the home C. administer a measure of academic achievement D. administer a measure of adaptive functioning

Answer 148

B. determine if his symptoms occur outside the home EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-034 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two settings (e.g., at home and at school) with an onset before 12 years of age and a duration of at least six months.

Question 149

When designing a training program, providing “identical elements” is most important for: A. maximizing trainee motivation. B. ensuring transfer of training. C. setting realistic training goals. D. retraining older workers.

Answer 149

B. ensuring transfer of training. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-118 Answer B is correct. According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and performance situations are, the greater the transfer of training.

Question 150

A middle-aged woman believes that aliens are controlling everything she does and are making her do things she doesn’t want to do. Her adult daughter says that, no matter what anyone says to her mother about her belief, she refuses to change her mind. The woman’s belief is an example of which of the following? A. magical thinking B. delusion C. illusion D. idea of reference

Answer 150

B. delusion EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-224 Answer B is correct. A delusion is a false belief that’s firmly held despite what others believe and despite contradictory evidence. This woman’s delusion is referred to as a delusion of control.

Question 151

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in: A. moderately favorable situations. B. very unfavorable situations. C. very favorable situations. D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

Answer 151

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-176 Answer D is correct. According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Question 152

According to the DSM-5, a better prognosis for individuals who have received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder is most associated with: A. the initiation of social interactions by 6 years of age. B. an onset of symptoms during the early developmental period. C. the development of functional language skills by 5 years of age. D. the absence of physical abnormalities.

Answer 152

C. the development of functional language skills by 5 years of age. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-023 Answer C is correct. A better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder is associated with an absence of intellectual disability, language impairments, and other mental health problems. With regard to language, the DSM-5 notes that a good prognostic sign is the development of functional language by age five.

Question 153

The goodness-of-fit model developed by Thomas and Chess (1977) focuses on the match between a child’s __________ and the demands of the social environment. A. temperament B. sense of self C. emotional development D. cognitive development

Answer 153

A. temperament EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-142 Answer A is correct. The goodness-of-fit model proposes that maladjustment in young children is often the result of a mismatch between the child’s temperament and the demands of the social environment, especially the parents’ expectations and childrearing practices.

Question 154

A newly licensed psychologist finds that some of her clients are dealing with a high level of stress, and she encourages them to get a therapeutic massage between therapy sessions to alleviate physical tension. If they ask her for a referral, she gives them the business card of her husband, who’s a licensed massage therapist. This is: A. acceptable since the psychologist gives her husband’s business card only to clients who ask for a referral. B. acceptable only if the psychologist and her husband do not talk about referred clients without their authorization to do so. C. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in multiple relationships. D. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in situations that create a conflict of interest.

Answer 154

D. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in situations that create a conflict of interest. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-065 Answer D is correct. Standard 3.06 of the APA Code of Ethics requires psychologists to avoid conflicts of interest that might impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness. The psychologist is violating this prohibition because the financial benefits of having her husband provide services to her clients may bias her judgment about a client’s need for those services. This situation does not constitute a multiple relationship (answer C), which occurs when a psychologist has two professional relationships with the same person or with the person and someone closely associated with that person. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 155

As a favor to another psychology professor, Dr. Oliver requires students in his Psychology 101 class to participate in the professor’s research project. In terms of the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, Dr. Oliver’s requirement is: A. acceptable as long as Dr. Oliver believes that participation in the study will benefit his students. B. acceptable as long as students are told about this requirement during the first class meeting. C. acceptable only if students are given the choice of participating in the study or completing an alternative assignment. D. acceptable only if Dr. Oliver is not involved in the research project.

Answer 155

C. acceptable only if students are given the choice of participating in the study or completing an alternative assignment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-175 Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.04(b) states that “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”

Question 156

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) predicts attitude change induced by _______________ is likely to be strong and persistent and produce a change in behavior. A. central route processing B. peripheral route processing C. an alpha processing strategy D. an omega processing strategy

Answer 156

A. central route processing EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-047 Answer A is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, the central route involves thoughtful and careful evaluation of the message and is more likely than the peripheral route to produce attitude change that’s strong and persistent and can be expected to cause a change in behavior.

Question 157

As described by Margaret Mahler (1971), _____________ involves four substages: differentiation, practicing, rapprochement, and consolidation. A. the stage of mature attachment B. the stage of autonomy C. deindividuation D. separation-individuation

Answer 157

D. separation-individuation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-028 Answer D is correct. As described by Mahler, early development involves a predictable sequence of stages: autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. The separation-individuation stage consists of the four substages listed in the question. By the end of this stage, children have developed the capacity for object constancy which allows them to feel both separate from and connected to significant others.

Question 158

Functional neuroimaging techniques include all of the following except: A. CT. B. fMRI. C. PET. D. SPECT.

Answer 158

A. CT. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-035 Answer A is correct. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are structural neuroimaging techniques that provide information on the brain’s physical structure, while functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), positron-emission tomography (PET), and single proton emission computed tomography (SPECT) are functional techniques that provide information on brain activity.

Question 159

Tiedeman’s career decision-making model links vocational identity development to: A. cognitive maturation. B. ego identity development. C. career maturity. D. life roles.

Answer 159

B. ego identity development. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-146 Answer B is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.

Question 160

As described by Wallerstein and Blakeslee (1989), the “sleeper effect” occurs when: A. girls who seem relatively unaffected by the divorce of their parents during childhood exhibit problems in late adolescence or early adulthood. B. boys who exhibit severe problems after their parents’ divorce become indistinguishable from boys who exhibit mild problems by the time they reach early adulthood. C. over time, custodial and noncustodial parents become increasingly less consistent in disciplining their children and less responsive to their children’s needs. D. the noncustodial parent gradually becomes increasingly less involved in raising his or her children during the second and subsequent years following the divorce.

Answer 160

A. girls who seem relatively unaffected by the divorce of their parents during childhood exhibit problems in late adolescence or early adulthood. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-School and Family Influences-204 Answer A is correct. Wallerstein and Blakeslee reported that many of the girls in their studies seemed to adjust well to the divorce of their parents during childhood but then developed emotional and behavioral problems in late adolescence and adulthood – e.g., they engaged in risky and self-destructive behaviors, became sexually promiscuous and involved in unsatisfactory relationships, and were excessively worried about betrayal and abandonment.

Question 161

Job applicants who are hired on the basis of their scores on a job selection test but then obtain unsatisfactory scores on a measure of job performance six months later are: A. false negatives. B. true negatives. C. false positives. D. true positives.

Answer 161

C. false positives. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-095 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to remember that a person’s score on the predictor (in this case, the job selection test) determines whether he/she is a “positive” or “negative” and that the person’s score on the criterion (the measure of job performance) determines whether he/she is a “true” or “false” positive or negative. Therefore, for this question, a “true positive,” is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test and receives satisfactory scores on the job performance measure, while a “false positive” (the correct answer) is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test but receives unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure. A “true negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test and would have received unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired, while a “false negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test but would have received satisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired.

Question 162

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with: A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts. B. a persistently manic or hypomanic mood between outbursts. C. extreme mood lability between outbursts. D. moderate or severe depression between outbursts.

Answer 162

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-121 Answer A is correct. As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

Question 163

Soon after a young child learns that the family pet is a “doggie,” he starts calling cats and all other furry four-legged animals “doggie.” According to Piaget, this is an example of which of the following? A. assimilation B. equilibration C. accommodation D. horizontal decalage

Answer 163

A. assimilation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-088 Answer A is correct. Piaget proposed that the construction of knowledge involves adaptation, which consists of two processes – assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children apply their existing schemes (cognitive structures) to new experiences, while accommodation occurs when children modify their existing schemes to better fit new experiences. Applying the word “doggie” to all furry four-legged animals is an example of assimilation.

Question 164

With regard to language, the smallest unit of meaning is referred to as a: A. word. B. grapheme. C. phoneme. D. morpheme.

Answer 164

D. morpheme. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Language Development-134 Answer D is correct. Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units in a language. For example, in the English language, “inter,” “er,” “ism,” “pre,” and “post” are morphemes.

Question 165

To be consistent with the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, the potential limits of confidentiality should ordinarily be discussed with a therapy client: A. as soon as possible. B. as part of the informed consent process. C. at the outset of therapy. D. at the outset of therapy and subsequently as needed.

Answer 165

D. at the outset of therapy and subsequently as needed. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-076 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s most similar to the language of Standard 4.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that, “unless it is not feasible or is contraindicated, the discussion of confidentiality occurs at the outset of the relationship and thereafter as new circumstances may warrant.” This answer is also consistent with Standard I.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which notes that informed consent may “need to be obtained more than once (e.g., if significant new information becomes available).”

Question 166

John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following? A. positive feedback B. negative feedback C. reframing D. restraining

Answer 166

B. negative feedback EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-122 Answer B is correct. Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.

Question 167

Of the Big Five personality traits, _______________ have been found to be most predictive of leader effectiveness. A. openness and conscientiousness B. extraversion and conscientiousness C. agreeableness and emotional stability D. openness and dependability

Answer 167

B. extraversion and conscientiousness EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-170 Answer B is correct. In their meta-analysis of the research, Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002) found that, of the Big Five personality traits, extraversion and conscientiousness had the largest correlation coefficients with measures of leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively).

Question 168

Changing alpha (the level of significance) from .05 to .10: A. increases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error. B. decreases the probability of making a Type I and a Type II error. C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error. D. decreases the probability of making a Type I error and increases the probability of making a Type II error.

Answer 168

C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-048 Answer C is correct. Alpha is equal to the probability of making a Type I error, and when alpha is increased from .05 to .10, the probability of making a Type I error increases. And, because there’s an inverse relationship between the probability of making a Type I error (rejecting a true null hypothesis) and a Type II error (retaining a false null hypothesis), the probability of making a Type II error decreases when alpha is increased.

Question 169

Dr. Edison is a behavior therapist who specializes in treating cigarette smoking, nail biting, and other undesirable habits. While at a charity fundraiser, he meets the editor of a local newspaper and they agree that Dr. Edison will help the editor stop smoking in exchange for an article about his services in the newspaper. In terms of ethical requirements, this arrangement is: A. acceptable as long as it does not interfere with Dr. Edison’s ability to provide treatment to the editor in an objective, competent manner. B. acceptable as long as Dr. Edison and the editor agree that it’s an equitable exchange. C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services. D. unacceptable because psychologists are required to avoid conflicts of interest.

Answer 169

C. unacceptable because psychologists are prohibited from compensating employees of newspapers in exchange for a newspaper article about their services. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-102 Answer C is correct. This is the best answer because it accurately describes the requirements of Standard 5.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that psychologists “do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”

Question 170

A behavior therapist tells a parent that, to get her son to do his homework, she should reward him with 20 minutes of video game time each time he completes his homework. Then, after the boy is regularly completing his homework, the therapist advises the parent to reward him with 20 minutes of video game time only after he completes his homework three times. The therapist has instructed the parent to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and to then switch to an intermittent schedule, which is referred to as: A. shaping. B. thinning. C. fading. D. extinguishing.

Answer 170

B. thinning. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-064 Answer B is correct. Reducing the amount of positive reinforcement is referred to as thinning – i.e., it involves going from a “thicker” reinforcement schedule to a “thinner” one.

Question 171

Pavlov found that, once dogs were classically conditioned to salivate in response to a tone, they subsequently salivated to tones that were somewhat lower and higher in pitch. He referred to this phenomenon as: A. higher-order conditioning. B. stimulus generalization. C. experimental neurosis. D. response generalization.

Answer 171

B. stimulus generalization. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-009 Answer B is correct. Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original conditioned stimulus (e.g. the original tone) elicit the conditioned response without ever being presented with the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 172

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study: A. psychological reactance. B. conformity to group norms. C. compliance with direct requests. D. counterfactual thinking.

Answer 172

B. conformity to group norms. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-093 Answer B is correct. Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.

Question 173

Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures: A. are more acceptable to both raters and rates. B. allow the rater to focus on typical (rather than maximum) performance. C. are less susceptible to some rater biases. D. provide more useful information for employee feedback.

Answer 173

C. are less susceptible to some rater biases. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment--030 Answer C is correct. An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.

Question 174

The Oregon model of parent management training developed by Gerald Patterson and his colleagues (1982) was based on their research that found a link between high levels of aggressiveness in children and: A. early attachment insecurity. B. rejecting/neglecting parents. C. coercive family interactions. D. a disorganized home environment.

Answer 174

C. coercive family interactions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-180 Answer C is correct. Patterson et al. found that aggression and other antisocial behaviors in children were related to coercive family interactions that become progressively more coercive over time, with parents using increasingly harsh punishments and children becoming more disruptive and aggressive.

Question 175

As described by Irvin Yalom (Yalom & Leszcz, 2008), the third formative stage of group therapy is characterized by: A. hesitant participation and search for meaning. B. the development of cohesiveness. C. conflict, dominance, and rebellion. D. the development of counter-dependency.

Answer 175

B. the development of cohesiveness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-155 Answer B is correct. Yalom describes three formative stages of group therapy: (1) orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, and dependency; (2) conflict, dominance, and rebellion; and (3) development of cohesiveness. According to Yalom, the third stage begins with a growing sense of mutual support which leads to the development of a cohesive, mature work team.

Question 176

Donald Super’s life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between which of the following? A. personality characteristics and characteristics of the work environment B. career anticipation and implementation C. life stages and major life roles D. career maturity and career decisions

Answer 176

C. life stages and major life roles EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-138 Answer C is correct. Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996) created several illustrations to depict the relationships between elements of his life-space, life-span career theory. His life-career rainbow depicts the relationship between life stages and major life roles.

Question 177

Which of the following is the appropriate bivariate correlation coefficient to use when the scores to be correlated are both reported as ranks? A. Spearman B. Pearson C. biserial D. point biserial

Answer 177

A. Spearman EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-116 Answer A is correct. The full-name of the Spearman correlation coefficient is the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient. As its name suggests, it’s used to correlate scores on two variables that are reported as ranks.

Question 178

There is evidence that, for patients with schizophrenia, involvement of family members in the patient’s care: A. has little or no effect on the patient’s medication adherence or risk for relapse. B. increases the patient’s medication adherence and reduces the patient’s risk for relapse. C. increases the patient’s medication adherence but has little or no effect on the patient’s risk for relapse. D. has little or no effect on the patient’s medication adherence but reduces the patient’s risk for relapse. Back to questionsPrevious AnswerNext Answer

Answer 178

B. increases the patient’s medication adherence and reduces the patient’s risk for relapse. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders--214 Answer B is correct. There is evidence that involvement of the family or other support system in the care of a patient with schizophrenia increases the patient’s medication adherence and reduces the risk for relapse (e.g., Miller & Buckley, 2018).

Question 179

Privilege refers to: A. the ethical requirement to protect a client’s confidentiality. B. the legal requirement to protect a client’s right to privacy. C. the legal and ethical requirement to disclose confidential client information only with appropriate authorization to do so. D. the legal requirement to protect client confidentiality in court testimony, depositions, and other legal proceedings.

Answer 179

D. the legal requirement to protect client confidentiality in court testimony, depositions, and other legal proceedings. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-091 Answer D is correct. Privilege is a legal concept that protects a client’s confidential information from being disclosed in legal proceedings.

Question 180

Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change? A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message C. the credibility of the source of the message D. the level of fear aroused by the message

Answer 180

C. the credibility of the source of the message EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-069 Answer C is correct. In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Question 181

George Kelly (1955) proposed that people develop personal constructs that help them make sense of new information and experiences. As described by Kelly, personal constructs are: A. schemas that distort reality. B. socially acceptable schemas. C. unidimensional. D. bipolar.

Answer 181

D. bipolar. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-061 Answer D is correct. Kelly’s personal construct theory proposes that people perceive, interpret, and anticipate events using bipolar constructs – e.g., good/bad, relevant/irrelevant, fair/unfair. It’s also based on the assumption that each person has his/her own unique set of personal constructs, and Kelly developed the repertory grid technique to examine an individual’s system of personal constructs.

Question 182

A child’s school refusal began shortly after the death of her grandmother, is due to fear of being separated from her home and family, and is accompanied by nightmares about her parents dying and stomach aches and other physical symptoms. The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis is: A. adjustment disorder. B. separation anxiety disorder. C. social anxiety disorder. D. specific phobia.

Answer 182

B. separation anxiety disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-148 Answer B is correct. School refusal can be a manifestation of several psychiatric disorders including separation anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, or social anxiety disorder. When it’s due to separation anxiety disorder, the primary symptom is excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from an attachment figure, and other symptoms may include repeated nightmares related to separation and physical symptoms when separation occurs or is anticipated.

Question 183

Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes degeneration of __________ receptors at neuromuscular junctions, resulting in severe muscle weakness and fatigue. A. acetylcholine B. glutamate C. GABA D. norepinephrine

Answer 183

A. acetylcholine EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-002 Answer A is correct. Acetylcholine (ACh) is important for the control of the skeletal (voluntary) muscles, and disruption of ACh activity at neuromuscular junctions has been linked to myasthenia gravis and several other disorders. ACh also plays a role in learning, memory, attention, and mood.

Question 184

Research investigating the effects of age on susceptibility to persuasion suggests that ___________ are most resistant to persuasion. A. young and older adults B. young adults C. middle-aged adults D. older adults

Answer 184

C. middle-aged adults EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Persuasion-080 Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.

Question 185

To be consistent with APA guidelines, you would not use which of the following to describe research participants in an article about your study? A. transgender women B. Native American adolescents C. the autism spectrum disorder group D. physically challenged adults

Answer 185

D. physically challenged adults EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-Professional Issues-219 Answer D is correct. Of the descriptions given in the answers, “physically challenged adults” is least consistent with guidelines presented in the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association: Ordinarily, when describing people with a disorder or other condition, people-first language should be used (e.g., adults with physical challenges), but there are exceptions to this general rule. For example, when describing a research study and different groups are distinguished, it would be acceptable to refer to a group as “the autism spectrum disorder group” (answer C).

Question 186

Research on medical cost offset has found that: A. providing appropriate medical care to patients reduces expenditures on psychotherapy. B. providing appropriate medical care to patients reduces expenditures on psychotherapy only for patients with a chronic psychiatric disorder. C. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care. D. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care only for patients who do not have a chronic medical condition.

Answer 186

C. providing psychotherapy to patients reduces expenditures on medical care. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-185 Answer C is correct. The studies have consistently found that participating in a psychological treatment reduces other health care costs – i.e., that there is a medical cost offset. The size of the offset varies for different medical conditions, type of psychological treatment, and certain characteristics of the patient, but it’s not true that it applies only to patients who do not have a chronic medical condition. See, e.g., J. Hunsley, Cost-effectiveness and medical cost-offset considerations in psychological service provision, Canadian Psychology, 44(1), 61-73, 2003.

Question 187

Social facilitation is more likely than social inhibition to occur when: A. the crowd is large. B. the crowd is small. C. the task is easy. D. the task is difficult.

Answer 187

C. the task is easy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-104 Answer C is correct. Social facilitation is an improvement in performance that’s caused by the mere presence of other people and affects easy and well-learned tasks.

Question 188

Strength, accessibility, and specificity have been identified as factors that affect: A. the extent to which a person can resist persuasion. B. the likelihood that a person’s behaviors will alter his/her attitudes. C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors. D. the persuasiveness of an advertisement or other message.

Answer 188

C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-036 Answer C is correct. Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes. See e.g., C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010.

Question 189

You receive a request from the Ethics Committee to provide it with certain confidential information about a former client of yours who has filed an ethics complaint against her current therapist. You should provide the Committee: A. with the information it has requested. B. only with information you believe will serve the best interests of the client. C. only with information you believe is relevant to the client’s complaint against her current therapist. D. with the requested information only after confirming the client has signed an authorization to release information.

Answer 189

D. with the requested information only after confirming the client has signed an authorization to release information. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-021 Answer D is correct. Standard 1.06 of APA’s Ethics Code requires psychologists to cooperate with ethics committees, and it states that failing to do so constitutes an ethical violation. However, it also states that, before doing so, psychologists should consider confidentiality issues which, in this case, would be to confirm that the client has signed an authorization to release information. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of the Preamble and Standard 1.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 190

Dr. Axelrod’s new client is Michael Moreland, a 35-year-old African American man. Mr. Moreland has worked steadily as a dishwasher since he was 17, but he was laid off six months ago and has been unable to find a job. His presenting symptoms suggest he’s dealing with depression. Dr. Axelrod, a White middle-class cognitive behavioral therapist, specializes in treating depression but hasn’t worked with African American or low-income clients. However, he wants to expand his scope of practice to include members of populations he has not yet worked with. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Axelrod should: A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients. B. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy but monitor his effectiveness and obtain relevant education if needed. C. refer Mr. Moreland to another therapist who has experience working with low-income and African American clients. D. explain his lack of experience to Mr. Moreland and let him decide whether or not to continue therapy.

Answer 190

A. agree to see Mr. Moreland in therapy as long as he consults while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with African American and low-income clients. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-032 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide professional services to members of new populations or use new therapeutic techniques. An alternative would be to make a referral (answer C), but that’s not required in this situation since Dr. Axelrod specializes in treating depression and wants to expand his scope of practice.

Question 191

Factor Index scores on the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth Edition (SB5) have a mean of _____ and standard deviation of _____. A. 10; 3 B. 15; 5 C. 100; 12 D. 100; 15

Answer 191

D. 100; 15 EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-029 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides four types of composite scores that have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15: Full Scale IQ score, Factor Index scores, Verbal and Nonverbal Domain scores, and Abbreviated Battery IQ score.

Question 192

The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following? A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work B. “critical incidents” associated with safety and productivity problems C. employee skill deficiencies that would benefit from training D. the impact of work-family conflicts on employee productivity and satisfaction

Answer 192

A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-158 Answer A is correct. Data collection is the initial step in survey feedback and involves having employees at all levels of the organization complete surveys that are used to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other important issues.

Question 193

Wolpe (1958) believed that counterconditioning was responsible for the effectiveness of his technique of systematic desensitization for eliminating an anxiety response to a particular stimulus. However, studies using the dismantling strategy found that its effects are actually due to: A. extinction. B. higher-order conditioning. C. satiation. D. stimulus discrimination.

Answer 193

A. extinction. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-031 Answer A is correct. Use of the dismantling strategy to identify the effects of the elements of an intervention involves comparing the elements by administering different elements to different groups of subjects. When this strategy was used to determine which elements of systematic desensitization accounted for its effectiveness, researchers found it was repeated exposure to the feared (conditioned) stimulus that eliminated the anxiety response and that pairing the feared stimulus with a stimulus that produced relaxation (counterconditioning) was unnecessary. In other words, the anxiety response was extinguished by repeatedly exposing the individual to the feared stimulus.

Question 194

Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders? A. oppositional defiant disorder B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder C. intermittent explosive disorder D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

Answer 194

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-190 Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Question 195

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding authorship for a journal article that’s based substantially on a student’s doctoral dissertation? A. The student must be listed as the principal author. B. The student must be listed as the sole author. C. The student’s dissertation chairperson determines authorship credit. D. The journal determines authorship credit.

Answer 195

A. The student must be listed as the principal author. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-187 Answer A is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 8.12(c). It states that, “except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multi-authored article that is substantially based on the student’s doctoral dissertation.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standard III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 196

The body’s “fight-or-flight” response is mediated by which of the following? A. limbic system B. reticular activating system C. parasympathetic nervous system D. sympathetic nervous system

Answer 196

D. sympathetic nervous system EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-024 Answer D is correct. The autonomic nervous system is divided into two branches: The sympathetic branch is involved in mobilizing the body’s response to stress (e.g., the fight-or-flight response), while the parasympathetic branch is involved in slowing down the body after a stress response.

Question 197

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement? A. A child continues to “act out” in class because of the attention he gets from the other children when he does so. B. A teenager stops biting his nails at school because, whenever he does, his peers make fun of him. C. A woman who knows sweets aren’t good for her continues to eat chocolate because chocolate reduces her anxiety. D. A man stopped smoking after his therapist required him to donate $5.00 to a disliked political candidate every time he lit up a cigarette.

Answer 197

C. A woman who knows sweets aren’t good for her continues to eat chocolate because chocolate reduces her anxiety. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-042 Answer C is correct. Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior continues or increases because performing the behavior results in the termination or withdrawal of a stimulus. In the situation described in this answer, the woman eats chocolate because doing so stops her anxiety.

Question 198

An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that: A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates. B. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with introverted and extraverted coworkers. C. leaders are most effective when they combine a high degree of consideration with a high degree of initiating structure. D. leaders are most effective when they tailor rewards and other outcomes to each worker’s needs.

Answer 198

A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-182 Answer A is correct. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Question 199

Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been linked to: A. REM sleep. B. visual processing. C. seizure disorders. D. memory storage.

Answer 199

D. memory storage. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-147 Answer D is correct. LTP refers to an increase in synaptic efficacy as the result of repetitive stimulation and is believed to play an important role in the formation and storage of new memories.

Question 200

Gerald, age 39, knows he shouldn’t be so jealous and resentful of his younger sister because of her recent success in business, so he goes out of his way to praise her accomplishments and encourage her continued success. Gerald’s behavior best illustrates which of the following? A. sublimation B. denial C. reaction formation D. displacement

Answer 200

C. reaction formation EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-006 Answer C is correct. Reaction formation involves converting undesirable impulses into their opposite – e.g., converting jealousy and resentment into praise and encouragement. Like other defense mechanisms, it helps alleviate anxiety caused by conflicts between the id’s impulses and the demands of the superego or the outside world.

Question 201

A researcher wants to evaluate the effects of virtual reality exposure for treating the storm, height, and spider phobias of a 34-year-old woman. The best single-subject research design for evaluating this treatment is which of the following? A. multiple baseline B. reversal C. discrete trials D. time series

Answer 201

A. multiple baseline EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-026 Answer A is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in the answers (multiple baseline, reversal, and discrete trials), the multiple baseline design would be the most appropriate because it would allow the researcher to determine if the treatment is effective for any of the woman’s phobias by sequentially applying the treatment to them. In addition, the multiple baseline design doesn’t require a treatment to be withdrawn once it’s been applied to a behavior. Consequently, if the treatment has a beneficial effect on any of the woman’s phobias, the researcher would not have to withdraw the treatment during the course of the study just for the sake of assessing its effects.

Question 202

The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to. A. interposition B. kinetic C. binocular D. pictorial

Answer 202

B. kinetic EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-077 Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod (Eds.), Brain mechanisms and spatial vision, pp. 113-145, Amsterdam, Martinus Nijhoff Press, 1985).

Question 203

Studies have consistently found that, when adults 70 years of age and older are asked to recall events from their past, they exhibit a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in the number of memories for events that occurred between the ages of: A. 5 to 15. B. 15 to 25. C. 25 to 35. D. 30 to 40.

Answer 203

B. 15 to 25. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Cognitive Development-112 Answer B is correct. When older adults are asked to recall events from their past, the largest number of recalled events are from the recent past. However, there’s also a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in memory for events that occurred in mid-adolescence to early adulthood (from about ages 15 to 25). See, e.g., D. C. Rubin, T. A. Rahhal, and L. W. Poon, Things learned in early adulthood are remembered best, Memory & Cognition, 26, 3-19, 1998.

Question 204

The 2015 National Survey on Drug Use and Health (SAMHSA, 2016) found that the largest percentage of respondents ages 12 to 17 used which the following in the previous month? A. tobacco B. cocaine C. alcohol D. marijuana

Answer 204

C. alcohol EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LIF-Physical Development-066 Answer C is correct. Consistent with prior surveys, the 2015 National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that the largest percentage of adolescents said they used alcohol during the previous month. However, the percentage was somewhat lower than in previous years: In 2015, 9.6 percent of adolescents said they used alcohol in the past month, while 11.5 and 11.6 percent said they did so in 2014 and 2013, respectively.

Question 205

You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you: A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so. B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees. C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment. D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.

Answer 205

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-151 Answer C is correct. Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations.

Question 206

When conducting a one-way ANOVA, an F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW). The mean square between provides an estimate of variability in dependent variable scores due to: A. treatment effects only. B. error only. C. treatment effects plus error. D. treatment effects minus error.

Answer 206

C. treatment effects plus error. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-081 Answer C is correct. MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Question 207

Sam, age 16, is brought to therapy by his mother who says he started complaining about hearing voices two weeks ago shortly after his father was diagnosed with lung cancer and that Sam also seems more nervous and tense than usual. When you ask Sam about the voices, he says they keep telling him he’s “bad and dirty” and he can’t make them go away. Sam has no history of a psychotic disorder or drug use. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is: A. schizophrenia. B. schizoaffective disorder. C. brief psychotic disorder. D. unspecified schizophrenia spectrum disorder.

Answer 207

C. brief psychotic disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-067 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of brief psychotic disorder requires the presence of one or more characteristic symptoms with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech for at least one day but less than one month. Sam has had an auditory hallucination for two weeks.

Question 208

Bandura’s (1986) social cognitive theory supports use of which of the following as a method of training? A. simulation training B. behavior modeling C. action learning D. vestibule training

Answer 208

B. behavior modeling EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-107 Answer B is correct. Behavior modeling is based on Bandura’s (1986) social cognitive theory of learning. It involves having trainees observe a model perform the desired behaviors and giving trainees feedback and reinforcement while they practice modeled behaviors.

Question 209

A therapy client who had an insensitive, authoritarian father begins to respond to her therapist as though he’s insensitive and authoritarian. A practitioner of Freudian psychoanalysis would describe this as transference, while a practitioner of Harry Stack Sullivan’s interpersonal psychotherapy would view it as: A. a parataxic distortion. B. a boundary disturbance. C. projective identification. D. displacement.

Answer 209

A. a parataxic distortion. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-083 Answer A is correct. As described by Sullivan (1953), parataxic distortions occur in all types of interpersonal relationships and involve perceiving others, not on the basis of their actual attributes, but on expectations developed from past interpersonal relationships.

Question 210

After a skateboarding accident, 17-year-old Cody exhibits clumsiness, slurred speech, and other symptoms associated with alcohol intoxication. Which area of Cody’s brain was most likely affected by the accident? A. thalamus B. cerebellum C. reticular formation D. parietal lobe

Answer 210

B. cerebellum EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-046 Answer B is correct. The cerebellum is involved in the coordination of movement and is responsible for regulating muscle tone, posture, and balance. Damage produces symptoms associated with alcohol intoxication, including ataxia (uncoordinated, clumsy movements), slurred speech, reduced muscle tone and reflexes, and nystagmus (jerky eye movements).

Question 211

The consolidation of emotional memories is mediated primarily by the: A. thalamus. B. putamen. C. amygdala. D. hypothalamus.

Answer 211

C. amygdala. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-068 Answer C is correct. The amygdala is part of the limbic system, which is the “emotional system” of the brain, and one of the amygdala’s functions is to link memories for events to the emotions elicited by those events.

Question 212

Which of the following is true about the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)? A. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs and greater safety in overdose. B. TCAs have a better tolerability profile than the SSRIs and greater safety in overdose. C. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs, but TCAs have greater safety in overdose. D. TCAs have a better tolerability profile than the SSRI, but SSRIs have greater safety in overdose.

Answer 212

A. SSRIs have a better tolerability profile than the TCAs and greater safety in overdose. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-213 Answer A is correct. The research has found that the SSRIs and TCAs are similar in terms of effectiveness, especially for moderate depression. However, the SSRIs are generally considered the first-line treatment for depression because of their better tolerability profile (they cause fewer adverse side effects) and greater safety in overdose. See, e.g., T. L. Schwartz, L. Stormon, and M. E. Thase, Treatment outcomes with acute pharmacotherapy/psychotherapy, in T. L. Schwartz and T. J. Petersen, Eds., Depression: Treatment strategies and management, pp. 85-122, New York, Taylor & Francis Group, 2006.

Question 213

Dr. Sipowicz has been seeing Annie for six weeks to treat her social phobia and decides it would benefit Annie if her husband attends several of her sessions. When Dr. Sipowicz discusses this with Annie, she agrees and says she’ll bring him to her next session. Annie’s husband is seeing another therapist to deal with his gambling problem. Inviting Annie’s husband to participate in Annie’s therapy sessions is: A. unacceptable since he’s already receiving therapy from another therapist. B. unacceptable unless you’ve determined that he’s not vulnerable to undue influence. C. acceptable since you believe his participation in therapy will benefit Annie. D. acceptable as long as he will only participate in a few sessions with Annie.

Answer 213

C. acceptable since you believe his participation in therapy will benefit Annie. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-113 Answer C is correct. Standard 5.06 prohibits psychologists from engaging in uninvited in-person solicitation of business, but it also states that this prohibition does not include “attempting to implement appropriate collateral contacts for the purpose of benefiting an already engaged therapy client/patient.” This answer is also consistent with Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the dignity or well-being of their primary clients, contract examinees, research participants, students, trainees, employers, or others.”

Question 214

When distinguishing between normal (nonpathological) anxiety and generalized anxiety disorder, the presence of which of the following would help confirm the diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder? A. The person worries about being evaluated by other people. B. The person’s worries are not accompanied by physical symptoms. C. The person’s worries take the form of intrusive thoughts and images. D. The person finds it difficult to control his/her worries.

Answer 214

D. The person finds it difficult to control his/her worries. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-154 Answer D is correct. According to DSM-5, in contrast to people with nonpathological anxiety, those with generalized anxiety disorder are more likely to experience physical symptoms in conjunction with worrying and to experience worrying as uncontrollable. Worrying about being evaluated by others is characteristic of social anxiety disorder, and worries that take the form of intrusive thoughts and images is characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 215

For practitioners of Gestalt therapy, a key contributor to neurotic behavior is which of the following? A. cognitive entanglement B. exposure to conditions of worth C. a contact boundary disturbance D. psychological rigidity

Answer 215

C. a contact boundary disturbance EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-050 Answer C is correct. An assumption underlying Gestalt therapy is that contact boundary disturbances underlie neurosis, and it distinguishes between four main types of boundary disturbance: introjection, retroflection, projection, and confluence.

Question 216

In a research study, children were told not to play with an attractive toy during a free play period. Some of the children were told that the consequence for playing with the toy would be mild punishment, while others were told the consequence would be more severe punishment. All of the children refrained from playing with the toy but, when subsequently asked about the toy, only those who faced the threat of mild punishment said they disliked it. These results are consistent with the predictions of which of the following? A. cognitive dissonance theory B. elaboration likelihood model C. theory of planned behavior D. balance theory

Answer 216

A. cognitive dissonance theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-058 Answer A is correct. This question describes a study conducted by E. Aronson and J. M. Carlson (Effect of severity of threat on the devaluation of forbidden behavior, Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 66, 584-588, 1963). In that study, children in the mild punishment group changed their attitude toward the toy because they did not have adequate justification for not playing with it. In other words, there was insufficient deterrence which, like insufficient justification, caused cognitive dissonance that the children reduced by deciding they didn’t like the toy.

Question 217

Mowrer’s (1960) two-factor theory of learning is most useful for understanding which of the following? A. avoidance conditioning B. escape conditioning C. spontaneous recovery D. operant extinction

Answer 217

A. avoidance conditioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-053 Answer A is correct. Mowrer’s two-factor theory of learning proposes that some behaviors are the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning because it combines classical conditioning and negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). For example, a rat may learn that it can escape (stop) an electric shock by pressing a bar, which is the negative reinforcement component. Then, if a flashing light signals that the shock is about to occur, the light becomes paired with the shock so that the light elicits anticipatory fear, which is the classical conditioning component. The rat then avoids the shock by pressing the bar as soon as the light starts flashing.

Question 218

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Schachter’s (1959) “misery loves miserable company” study? A. gain-loss theory B. self-verification theory C. equity theory D. social comparison theory

Answer 218

D. social comparison theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-126 Answer D is correct. Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.

Question 219

Simon’s (1957) bounded rationality model of decision-making proposes that the assumptions underlying the rational model are often violated because: A. organizational decisions tend to be incremental. B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize. C. the decision-making process is susceptible to groupthink. D. decision-makers rarely get feedback on the outcomes of their decisions.

Answer 219

B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-188 Answer B is correct. According to the bounded rationality model, rational decision-making is limited by individual and organizational factors and, as a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., they consider alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found.

Question 220

In the context of factor analysis, “oblique” means: A. statistically significant. B. statistically insignificant. C. uncorrelated. D. correlated.

Answer 220

D. correlated. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-071 Answer D is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.

Question 221

Studies investigating the outcomes associated with the compressed workweek have found that it has: A. a similarly strong positive effect on job satisfaction and job productivity. B. a positive effect on job satisfaction but a negative effect on job productivity. C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity. D. a stronger positive effect on job productivity than on job satisfaction.

Answer 221

C. a stronger positive effect on job satisfaction than on job productivity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-164 Answer C is correct. Research on the compressed workweek has found that it has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction and a positive but weaker effect on job productivity (Baltes et al., 1999).

Question 222

To teach a young child with autism spectrum disorder to wave good-bye, his mother first reinforces him with a small cookie when he moves his arm when a family member is leaving. Then, when he does that consistently, she reinforces him with a cookie only when he raises his arm when a family member is leaving. Then, she reinforces him with a cookie only when he raises his arm and moves his hand in any way when a family member is leaving. And, finally, the boy’s mother reinforces him only when he raises his arm and moves his hand in the correct way when a family member is leaving. The technique used by the mother is known as: A. shaping. B. chaining. C. higher-order conditioning. D. prompting.

Answer 222

A. shaping. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-075 Answer A is correct. Shaping is also known as successive approximation conditioning and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior until the desired behavior is established.

Question 223

A drug that’s classified as a(n) __________ of a specific neurotransmitter inhibits the effects of the neurotransmitter. A. agonist B. antagonist C. inverse agonist D. partial agonist

Answer 223

B. antagonist EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-195 Answer B is correct. An antagonist produces no effect on its own but, instead, blocks the action of a neurotransmitter at receptor sites or inhibits the synthesis or release of the neurotransmitter.

Question 224

The keyword method is most useful for: A. remembering a list of 10 nonsense syllables. B. recalling how to solve a mathematical equation. C. learning the vocabulary of a second language. D. remembering an important event you must attend next week.

Answer 224

C. learning the vocabulary of a second language. EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-144 Answer C is correct. The keyword method involves creating an image that links two words or links a word and its definition and is particularly useful for foreign (second) language learning.

Question 225

To use the Taylor-Russell tables to estimate a predictor’s incremental validity, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient and which of the following? A. selection ratio and base rate B. selection ratio and number of job openings C. base rate and positive hit rate D. number of job openings and positive hit rate

Answer 225

A. selection ratio and base rate EXPLANATION EPPP-P1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-085 Answer A is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of the percent of future employees who will be successful on the job when an employer adds the new predictor to the current selection procedure. To use the Taylor-Russell tables, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.