Exam 1 Flashcards

(303 cards)

1
Q

The extraoral exam must be performed in a ______ and _____ fashion

A

through and systematic

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2
Q

what is defined as “WNL”

A

normal, found in most individuals

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3
Q

what is defined as “not present in all individuals but still within normal limits”

A

atypical- a variation of normal

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4
Q

what is defined as “associated with infection, trauma, neoplastic growth, and errors in development”

A

pathologic

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5
Q

what is hemiplegia

A

paralysis of one side

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6
Q

what is the usual cause of hemiplegia

A

from stroke

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7
Q

what is paraplegia

A

paralysis on both sides

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8
Q

what is hemiparesis

A

weakness on one side

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9
Q

what is paraparesis

A

weakness on both sides

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10
Q

what is ataxic gait

A

presence of abnormal uncoordinated movements

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11
Q

what is parkinsonian gait

A

motor disturbances- resting tremors

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12
Q

what are 4 things associated with parkinsonian gait

A

-tremor
-rigidity
-postural instability
-hypokinesia

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13
Q

what type of gait causes you to have an unsteady staggering gait that is uncoordinated

A

ataxia gait

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14
Q

what gait causes you to move slowly, take jerky, small, shuffling steps, and loose the ability to pick up your feet

A

parkinsons gait

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15
Q

what should you keep in mind when interacting with a person riding in a wheelchair

A

-avoid presumptions about abilities
-greet the user
-speak directly to the user
-learn locations of accessible areas
-offer help when appropriate

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16
Q

what should be the steps of the wheelchair transfer

A

-position wheels as close as possible
-lock all wheels in place
-fold footrests out of the way
-ask pt what works best
-lift with your legs

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17
Q

what are examples of stature

A

short and tall

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18
Q

what are examples of habitus

A

thin and obese

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19
Q

what are signs and symptoms of Marfans syndrome

A

-tall
-thin
-arachnodactily
-wingspan> height
-chest concavity
-heart murmur

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20
Q

what is described as “abnormal side curvature of spine”

A

scoliosis

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21
Q

what is defined as “abnormal roundback”

A

kyphosis

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22
Q

where is the outer canthus

A

lateral corner of eye

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23
Q

where is the inner canthus

A

medial corner of eye

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24
Q

what is the ala

A

the wing of nose

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25
what is the philtrum
vertical fold above upper lip
26
where is the tragus
little triangle in front of ear
27
where is the naision
between eyebrows
28
what does HEENT stand for
-head -eyes -ears -nose -throat
29
what is a prognathic profile
jaw jutting foreward underbite
30
what is a retrognathic profile
recessed jaw excessive overjet
31
what are common things to ask about during the head and neck exam
-lumps in neck -hoarseness -scratchy throat -pain -nosebleeds -congestion -trouble swallowing
32
what does chemotherapy do to the health of a patient
makes them immunocompromised
33
what can head and neck radiation therapy cause in the oral cavity
-xerostomia -mucosal irritation -cervical caries
34
what are things to consider when looking at/ for skin lesions
-ask if there are any chronic, non-healing lesions -changes in pre-existing lesions -check areas of high sun exposure
35
what is the most common type of skin cancer
basal cell
36
where are basal cell carcinomas usually found
middle 2/3 of face
37
do basal cell carcinoma heal
no
38
are basal cell carcinomas usually harmful
no
39
what type of skin cancer has -irregular borders -crusty surface -persistent thick rough scaly patches that may bleed
squamous cell carcinomas
40
what makes up 90% of all oral cancers
squamous cell carcinomas
41
what type of skin cancer is described as having -multiple colors -irregular borders -flat or slightly raised borders -asymmetrical in form
melanoma
42
nodular melanomas are aggresive lesions that have only _____ growth
vertical
43
what type of skin cancer is highly infiltrative
melanoma
44
what is the sclera
white of eye
45
what is ptosis
lid lag
46
what is ptosis sometimes a sign of
past stroke
47
what is ocular hypertelorism
excessive spacing between eyes
48
what is exophthalmos
abnormal protrusion of the eye
49
what can exopthalmos be a sign of
hyperthyroidism
50
what does a yellow sclera indicate
hepatotoxicity
51
what system are lymph nodes a part of
lymphatic system
52
what are the 4 main groups of lymph nodes
-cervical -axillary -inguinal -internal
53
what group of lymph nodes are you unable to palpate
internal
54
what are the 9 areas of the cervical lymph nodes
-submental -submandibular -tonsillar/jugulodigastic -preauricular -postauricular -occipital -anterior cervical chain -supraclavicular -posterior cervical chain
55
what lymph nodes are just below the chin
submental
56
what group of lymph nodes are 3-6 nodes beneath the body of the mandible
submandibular
57
what group of lymph nodes tends to be some of the largest lymph nodes in the cervical chain due to their significant lymphatic drainage
tonsillar/ jugulodigastric
58
what group of lymph nodes are nodes that lie both on top and beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscles on either side of the neck, from the angle of the mandible to the top of the clavicle
anterior clavicle chain
59
what group of lymph nodes is found in the hollow above the clavicle, just lateral to where it joins the sternum
supraclavicular
60
what group of lymph nodes extends in a line posterior to the SCM but in front of the trapezius
posterior clavicular chain
61
what state of lymph node tends to be firm, tender, enlarged, and warm
infected lymph nodes
62
what is lymphoma an example of
primary malignancy of lymph node
63
a lymph node with a malignancy tends to be
-firm -non-tender -matted (stuck to each other) -fixed (not freely mobile) -increases in size over time
64
what is the lymph node palpation sequence
-ahead and behind ear -slide down under angle of mandible -slide down to SCM -shift down to above collarbone
65
what are characteristics of healthy lymph nodes
-soft like a grape -movable
66
a lymphadenopathy is any abnormality in
-size -consistency -number of lymph nodes
67
what characteristics of a lymph node abnormality that you should describe
-location -size -tenderness -consistency -mobility
68
where are the most common lymphadenopathy
cervical
69
what are clues to routine swelling from recent infection of lymph nodes
-tender -mobile -current or recent viral infection -bilateral, but not always -predictable locations -long durations without change
70
what is mumps an infection of
parotid gland
71
what symptom does mumps cause
swelling in the cheek and sore lymph nodes
72
where is the thyroid located
inferior to the larynx and just superior
73
how do you perform a thyroid exam
-gently place fingers on either side of adams apple -slide to just below it -ask pt to swallow -feel gland rise up and drop back down -feel for lumps and symmetry
74
what are commisures
corners of lips
75
where does angular cheilitis occur
corners of mouth
76
what is angular cheilitis caused by typically
candida
77
does TMD affect more men or women
women
78
what are symptoms of TMD
-joint pain -headaches -tinnitus -insomnia -neck ache -sensitive teeth
79
what is one of the first signs of bruxism
teeth becoming sensitive to hot and cold
80
what are causes of TMD
-bruxism -clenching -stress -malocclusion -arthritis -trauma -stimulants
81
what are the 3 broad classes of TMD
-muscles -soft tissue of joint -hard tissue of joint
82
referred pain of the temporalis indicates
generally anterior teeth
83
referred pain of the masseter indicates
generally posterior teeth
84
what do you do for the TMJ diagnostic exam
-measure range of motion -palpate for crepitus and clicking while opening and closing -palpate for tenderness in masseter and temporalis muscles
85
what could indicate TMD when doing your exam
-excessive tooth mobility -widened PDL seen radiographically -migration without perio disease -buccal mucosal ridging -lateral tongue scalloping -asymmetry of face, jaws, and dental arches
86
what can be used to treat TMD
-nightguards/splints -meds -PT -Surgery
87
how do nightguards or splints treat TMD
-redistribute occlusal forces -relax muscles of mastication and stabilze joint -protect dentition and dental work
88
what meds may be used to treat TMD
-NSAIDS -Antianxiety -muscle relaxers -botox
89
what are you looking for with the intraoral exam
-cancer -signs of systemic disease -tissue trauma -pain -esthetic concerns -infections -occlusal dysfunction
90
what is the purpose of the periodontal probe
to evaluate the health of the periodontium
91
what makes up the periodontium
-gingiva -PDL -cementum -alveolar bone
92
what is a probing depth
a measurement of the depth of a sulcus
93
what are you measuring when perio probing
measuring the distance from a gingival margin to the base of the pocket using a calibrated perio probe
94
what is a sulcus
healthy gingival pocket with no attachment loss natural space between the surface of the tooth and the surrounding gingiva
95
what is a periodontal pocket
diseased pocket with attachment loss of supporting structures
96
does a healthy sulcus permit a perio probe
barely
97
what are healthy probing depths
1-3 mm
98
when do periodontal pockets occur
when probing depths of >3 mm
99
what are clinical manifestations of perio pockets
inflammation and bleeding
100
what do perio pockets occur as a result of
bacterial plaque and apical migration of the junctional epithelium (clinical attachment loss)
101
What is the type of probe used at UMKC
marquis
102
what is the marquis probe measured at
3,6,9, and 12 blocks
103
how many sites does probing measure
6
104
what are the 6 probing sites measured
1. DF 2.F 3.MF 4.DL 5.L 6. ML
105
what is defined as "act of walking the tip of a probe along the junctional epithelium within the sulcus or pocket for the purpose of assessing the health status of the periodontal tissues
probing
106
what type of stroke is used to probe
walking stroke
107
it is essential to evaluate the entire _____ of the pocket base becasue the JE is not necessarily at a uniform level around the tooth
length
108
what grasp do you use to hold a perio probe
modified pen grasp
109
what do you fulcrum on when probing
fulcrum close to the tooth you are probing
110
probe should be _______ to the long axis of the tooth along all proximal surfaces
long axis
111
should the probe be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at all times
no- not when probing the interproximal spaces
112
how do you know when you are at the base of the sulcus
gingival tissues will blanch
113
research implicates _____ as the underlying cause of as many as 72% of oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinomas
HPV
114
HPV related SSC increase has had a predominant increase in what group of people
younger white men
115
in general, cancer in younger people tends to be much more _______ and tends to have a ________ prognosis
aggressive, poorer
116
what is the gold standard for determining a definitive diagnosis for oral cancer
biopsy of the suspicious area followed by evaluation by a pathologist to determine its histological makeup
117
what is the rate at which dental practitioners misdiagnose oral lesions when the are based on clinical observations alone
43%`
118
what percent of oral caner is squamous cell
90%
119
what percent of all cancer does oral cancer make up
3%
120
what is the 5 year survival rate of oral cancer
57%
121
oral cancer affects men _____ than women
2x more
122
what percent of oral cancer is found in stage I or II
40%
123
what is the survival rate for oral cancer diagnosed in Stage I or II
80-90%
124
what percent of oral cancer is diagnosed in stage III or IV
60%
125
what is the survival rate for oral cancer diagnosed in stage III or IV
33%
126
for oral cancer diagnosed in stage III or IV what is the rate or recurrence in 2 years
67%
127
what is the #1 risk factor for oral cancer
tabacco
128
what is the #2 risk factor for oral cancer
alcohol
129
what viruses can be risk factors for oral cancer
HPV and HIV
130
what are general risk factors for oral cancer
-sun exposure -inadequate nutrition -genetic predisposition -chronic inflammation -radiation exposure -carcinogen exposure
131
what percent of oral cancer could be prevented by eliminating tobacco and alcohol
75%
132
what is the reduction in oral cancer risk after 5 years without tocbacco
35%
133
what are ways to prevent oral cancer
-lip balm with sunscreen -HPV vaccine -diet rich in fruits and veg
134
what are high risk areas for oral cancer
-floor of mouth -lateral border of tongue -ventral surface of tongue -oropharynx
135
what can contain tonsil stones
tonsillar crypts
136
patients with tonsil stones often complain of
halitosis (bad breath)
137
can the tonsils regrow
yes
138
a bifid uvula may be an indication of what
submucous cleft palate
139
what is pitting indicative of
edema
139
what technique is used to palpate the floor of the mouthq
bimanual
139
a bifid uvula may cause difficulties with what
speech and swallowing
139
what are signs and symptoms of oral cancer
-nonhealing ulcer -bleeding -lymphadenopath -hardness -paresthesis -drooling
139
what does induration mean
firm but not as hard as bone
139
what does compressible mean
pressure alters its shape
139
what does doughy mean
returns slowly to original shape
140
what does spongy mean
returns quickly to original shape
140
what does pitting mean
soft and leaves indentation
140
what does collapsing mean
contents expressed- usually fluid from an abscess
140
what does blanching mean
color change
141
what does discrete mean
separate, not running together or blending
142
what does confluent mean
running together, merging, blended. originally separate but now formed into one
143
what does papillary mean
having small bumplike elevations or projections
144
what is a verrucose or verrucous lesion
covered with or full or wartlike growths
145
what does sessile mean
attached to the surface on a broad base immoble, fixed, firmly attached, and lacks a stalk
146
what is a pedunculated lesion
elevated lesion having a narrow stem which acts as a base elongated stalk
147
where do pedunculated squamous papillomas usually occur
-soft palate -tonsil -epiglotis
148
are pedunculated squamous papillomas lethal
sometimes
149
what is an erythema
red area of variable size and shape
150
do erythemas occur in one area or in patches
in patches
151
what is petechiae
round red pinpoint areas of hemorrhage
152
what usually causes petechia
trauma, viral infections, or bleeding problems
153
what is a macule
freckle
154
what is eschar
a sloughing of epithelium caused by disease, trauma, or chemical burn
155
what is a torus
bony elevation or prominence
156
what is a good example of a patch
-port wine stain -not elevated or depressed
157
what causes port wine stain
abnormal formation of tiny blood vessels in skin
158
what is an ulcer
a denuded area extending below the basal layer -gradual tissue disintegration
159
what is a crust
an outer layer covering, or scab, from a coagulation of blood, serum, pus, or any combination
160
what is a plaque
a solid, flat area > than 1 cm that is ofter keratinized
161
what is an example of a plaque
Snuff dipper's lesion
162
what is a papule
a superficial, elevated, solid lesion <1 sm any color solid base or pperdunculated
163
what is an example of a papule
parulis ^^ a gum boil
164
what the difference between a papule and a vesicle
vesicle is filled with fluid and papule is solid
165
what is a vesicle
a small <1 cm fluid filled elevated lesion with a thin surface covering
166
what does a vesicle contain
lymph or serum
167
what is an example of a vesicle
herpes simplex before it bursts
168
what is a pustule
a small <1cm vesicular lesion that contains purulent material rather than clear fluid
169
what is an example of a pustule
dental abscess
170
what is a nodule
an elevated, deep, solid lesion 0.5-2.0 cm where overlying mucosa is not fixed
171
what is an example of a nodule
fibroma
172
an irritation fibroma is classified as what
a tumor
173
an irritation fibroma is classified as a tumor because it
is persistent and progressively increases in size
174
what is a bulla
a large vesicle >1 cm that contains serum
175
where are bulla usually found
mucosal-submucosal junction
175
what are examples of bulla
-pemphigus -2nd degree burn
176
what is defined as "white line, parallel to occlusal plane, asymptomatic, atypical, and caused by trauma"
linea alba
177
what is defined as "milky white surface or blue gray, symmetrical, and atypical"
leukodema
178
does leukoedema rub off
no, but it does disappear when stretched
179
what group of people is leukoedema most common in
african american
180
what has interlacing striae of Wickham with erythema surrounding mucosa
lichen planus
181
does lichen planus appear bilaterally
yes
182
is leukoedema symmetrical
yes
183
can lichen planus be painful
yes- can cause painful erythmatous erosions and ulcers
184
how does lichen planus appear on the skin
purplish, itchy, flat bumps
185
does lichen planus affect more men or women
equally, but orally it is more common in women
186
what is described as " sulfur colored 1-3 mm papules in oral cavity"
fordyce granules
187
are fordyce granules asymptomatic
yes and atypical
188
where are the two places fordyce granules may be found
oral cavity and lip vermillion
189
what is an abnormailty found in the buccal vestibule that may be flat or slightly elevatede
Kaposi's sarcoma
190
what do you look for when examining the hard palate
-rugae -torus palatinus -ulcerations -lesions
191
what are torus palatinus
bony lumps on hard palate asymptomatic and atypical
192
what percent of people have torus palatinus
20-30%
193
are men or women more likely to have torus palatinus
women 2:1`
194
does torus palatinus require tx
no- unless need denture, partial, ot interfers with daily life
195
what is torus mandibularis
bony lumps on mandible atypical and asymptomatic
196
what is a habit that makes torus mandibularis more common
bruxism
197
what percent of people have mandibular tori
8-16%
198
are men or women more likely to have mand tori
equal
199
do mand tori require tx
no- unless getting denture or partial, or it interfers with daily life
200
what is nicotine stomatitis
lesion of the hard palate that appears white, rough, asymptomatic, and leathery -contains numerous red dots or macules
201
what causes nicotine stomatitis
extreme heat in mouth
202
where is the most common place for oral cancer to occur on the tongue
lateral border and the base of the tongue
203
what are examples of atypical findings on the dorsal surface of the tongue
common -fissuring -scalloping -enlarged papilla -benign migratory glossitis
204
what is described as " lesions that heal in one area and then move to another part of the tongue"
benign migratory glossitis
205
what is another name benign migratory glossitis
geographic tongue
206
geographic tongue has areas of what
erythematous, well demarcated areas of papillary atrophy
207
does geographic tongue cause symptoms
usually asymptomatic, but can cause discomfort, pain, or burning sensations in some cases, often related to eating spicy or acidic foods
208
what causes fissured tongue
dry mouth
209
can leukoplakia be wiped off
no
210
what is described as "white or grayish white keratotic patch like lesion on the mucosa that cannot be rubbed off"
leukoplakia
211
what is hairy leukoplakia caused by
epstein barr virus and associated with HIV infection or other immunosuppressive conditions
212
where does hairy leukoplakia usually occur
lateral borders of tongue
213
is hairy leukoplakia uni or bilateral
can be either
214
what is described as white rough patches on lateral border of tongue
hairy leukoplakia
215
what is hairy tongue caused by
-trapped debris -bacteria -fungus -coffee -tobacco -antibiotics and other drugs
216
what is another name for the submandibular duct
Whartons duct
217
what does Whartons duct do
drains saliva from the submand and sublingual glands
218
what duct accounts for 60% of saliva
submandibular or whartons duct
219
what is a common thing to note on the ventral side of the tongue that is normal with age
lingual varicosities
220
what condition is a side effect of numerous medications, can be a sign of a systemic disease, can be a response to physical climate or emotional distress
xerostomia
221
what group of people is at a greater risk of developing xerostomia
elderly
222
what condition significantly increases the risk for caries, erosion, dental hypersensitivity, and candidiasis
Xerostomia
223
most cases of xerostomia are
chronic
224
what are things that you may note in the medical history of a patient that may cause xerostomia
-diabetes -hormone changes (menopause or pregnancy) -depression or anxiety medications -radiation for hear and neck cancer -autoimmune diseases (sjogrens)
225
what are things you may see in the clinical assessment that may lead to a diagnosis of xerostomia
-reddened, pebbled surface of tongue -dry and cracked corners of mouth -red, glossy, parched mucosal tissues
226
what is the mirror test
test for xerostomia -place mirror against buccal mucosa and tongue and see if they stick
227
what are symptoms of xerostomia
-candidiasis -angular chelitis -burning tongue -root and cervical caries -stomatatitis -dysphagia
228
what is stomatitis
inflammation of the mucous membranes of the mouth
229
what is described as "white plaque, creamy lesion, looks like hyperkeratosis, but rubs off"
candidiasis
230
where can you find candidiasis
buccal mucosa and lateral borders of tongue
231
where can thrush spread to
-tongue -hard and soft palate -tonsilar region
232
what are candidiasis risk factors
-immunocompromised -pregnancy -poor oral hygiene -smoking -stress -depression -birth control -long term antibiotics -diabetes -dentures that dont fit properly -xerostomia -iron, B12 deficiency
233
what is the most common candidiasis infection
psuedomembranous candidiasis
234
when you wipe off candidiasis white patch what is left behind
erythematous base
235
what are symptoms of thrush
-pain with spicy or acidic foods -dysphagia
236
where is angular chelitus found
corners of mouth
237
what causes atrophic candidiasis
illfitting or dentures that are never taken out -red on palate or tongue -burn with spicy food or alcohol
238
what are treatments for candidiasis
-oral hygiene -yogurt, acidophilus -avoid alcohol and simple sugars -antifungal medications (nystatin rinse or tablet)(ketaconzole- can cause severe liver damage)
239
primary herpes gingivostomatitis is seen mainly in
children
240
what is primary herpes gingivostomatitis caused by in most cases
HSV1
241
what are symptoms of severe primary herpes infections
-oral lesions -high fever -malaise -cervical lymphadenopathy -dehydration
242
less common infections of herpes occurs in which age group
young adult may be HSV1 or 2
243
in the case of herpes gingivostomatatitis, where do vesicles develope
pharynx, palate, buccal mucosa, lips, and or tongue
244
how long does it take for a herpes lesion to heal without tx
2 weeks
245
does HSV survive well in the external enviroment
no, almost all infections are from contact with an infected person who is releasing the virus
246
what percent of the population has HSV
50-80%
247
HSV1 affects what
mouth, lips, and face
248
HSV2 affects what
genitalia
249
what stage is HSV contagious
vesicle stagew
250
what are the prodromal signs of HSV
tingling, itching, and burning
251
when do prodromal signs of a cold sore begin
6-24 hours before lesions develop
252
what is the first sign of a cold sore
multiple fluid filled blisters that then merge and collapse then yellowish crust
253
what is herpes simplex
a virus
254
where does HSV remain
dormant in nerve cells
255
what can cause an HSV recurrence
-stress -fever -illness -injury -sunburn
256
what is herpatic whitlow
HSV infection of the thumbs or fingers grouped fluid or pus filled usuually itchy and or painful
257
what is the tx for primary herpatic gingivostomatitis
alcyclovir suspension initiated suring the first three symptomatic days in a rinse and swallow technique 5x a day for 5 days
258
what stage is recurrent herpes labialis treated in
prodromal phase
259
what can be used to treat recurrent herpes labialis
-acyclovir ointment for reduction in number of vesicles -systemic acyclovir, valcyclovir, and famccyclovir`
260
in patients with recurrent labial herpes, you may advise them to take what before a dental procedure
2g of valacyclovir 2x a day before the procedure and 1g 2x the following day
261
what percent of the population is affected by aphthous ulcers
60%
262
when does a herpes infection typically begin
<10
263
when does the occurance of aphthous ulcers usually begin
10-20 years old
264
what are the prodromal signs of an aphthous ulcer
tingling and burning 1-2 days before th eulcer appears
265
how long does an aphthous ulcer usually hurt3
3 days
266
how long does it usually take for an aphthous ulcer to heal
7 days
267
in a mild case of an aphthous ulcer, what is the tx
topical corticosteroids
268
what appears to e the cause of aphthous lesions
mucosal destruction representing a T cell mediated immunological reaction
269
if both parents have a history of aphthous ulcers, their child will have what chance of devloping lesions
90%
270
what are the 3 clinical variations of aphthous ulcers
-minor -major -herpetiform
271
in the case of ______ aphthous lesions, patients experience the fewest recurrences and shortest duration
minor
272
in minor cold sores ulcers arise exclusivly on what tissue
nonkeratinized mucosa and may be preceded by an erythematous macule in association with prodromal burning and itching
273
what are the size of ulcers in a minor aphthous lesion
3-10 mm in diameter
274
in the case of minor cold sores how long does it take to heal
7-14 days
275
how many lesions in minor aphthous ulcer
1-5 lesions pain disproportional
276
what mucosa are affected most frequently by minor aphthous lesions
buccal and labial mucosa followed by ventral surface of tongue
277
what is the age of onset of minor aphthous lesions
10 years old
278
what is the size range for major aphthous lesions
1-3 cm
279
what class of aphthous lesion has the longest duration per episode
major
280
how long does it take for a major aphthous lesion to heal
2-6 weeks
281
a major aphthous lesion may cause
scarring
282
how many ulcers are associated with major aphthous lesions
1-10
283
what is the age of onset of major aphthous lesions
after puberty
284
what class of aphthous lesion has the greatest number of lesions and most frequen recurrence
herpetiform
285
what are the size and quantity of lesions in herpetiform aphthous lesions
small 1-3 mm with as many as 100 lesions in a single episode
286
it is common for herpetiform aphthous lesions to
coalesce into larger irregular lesions
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how long does it take for herpetiform aphthous lesions to heal
7-10 days, but recurrence tend to be closely spaced
288
how long are patients with herpetiform aphthous lesions constantly affects typically
as long as 3 years
289
what mucosa is involved in herpetiform aphthous lesions
any oral mucosa
290
are herpetiform aphthous lesions more common in men or women
women
291
what is the onset of herpetiform aphthous lesions
adulthood
292
what are tx for aphthous ulcers
for symptoms: -viscous (benzocaine) -orajel, anbesol local antiinflammatory: -kenalog in orabase paste 2-4x a day sealing agent: -ameseal
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what is the only FDA approved tx for canker sores
aphthasol paste apply 2x a day must start in prodromal stage