exam 1 Flashcards

(187 cards)

1
Q

describe the triad system of equine

A

100/200/300/400
-4 is canine
-5 is wolf tooth (first premolar)
-6-8 (premolars)
-9-11 molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the the wolf tooth technically

A

the first premolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe standard system of equine dental

A

-upper versus lower
-left vs right
-3 incisors
-1 canine
-4 premolars (starting with wolf tooth)
-3 molars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

do mares or gelding often do not often have wolf teeth or canines

A

mares
~20% do have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are deciduous teeth also called

A

caps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

numbering of deciduous teeth

A

500-800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what teeth in horses do not have caps/deciduous teeth

A

molars
-they just erupt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is toward the root

A

apical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is toward the cheek

A

bucal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is toward the tooth crown

A

coronal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is between adjacent teeth

A

inter proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

that is toward the lips

A

labial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is toward the tongue in the lower arcade

A

lingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is near the gingival margin

A

marginal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the term for contact points of opposing teeth

A

occasional, occlusing, or masticating surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the term for toward the palate in the upper arcade

A

palatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the term for toward the front in the mouth

A

rostral medial or anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of erupting teeth do horses have

A

they are hypsodonts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how many types of enamel are there

A

3 types that work together to make the teeth stronger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is dentine

A

-softer than enamel
-creates pulpodentine complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is cemetum

A

-softest dental tissue
-major structure component of the equine crown
-helps prevent fractures of adjacent enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is pulp

A

-5-7 pulp horns that communicate with each other as horses age
-dentine overlying each pulp is dark brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is a diastema

A

a hole between two teeth that is packing feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when do the front two deciduous incisors erupt

A

8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
when do the second set of deciduous incisors erupt
8 weeks
26
when do the third set deciduous teeth of incisors erupt
8 months
27
when will all deciduous teeth be in wear by
2 years
28
when does the central incisor 01 erupt and when does it wear
2.5 years wears at 3
29
when does the middle incisor 02 erupt and when does it wear
3.5 years erupts in 4
30
when does the corner incisor 03 erupt and when does it wear
erupts 4.5 years wears at 5
31
when do canines erupt
5 years
32
what are these
eruption bumps -palpable evidence of erupting teeth
33
when does premolar 06 erupt
~3 years
34
when does premolar 07s erupt
~3 years
35
when does premolar 08s erupt
~4 years
36
when does molar 09s erupt
1 year
37
when does molar 10s erupt
2 years
38
when does molar 11s erupt
3.5 years
39
what is galvaynes groove
-appears at 10 years in the upper incisor 03 - stretches entire tooth by 20 years -gone by 30 years
40
what are cups of the teeth
-center of infundibulum -disappear as horse ages , gone by 8 years on all lower incisors -becomes enamel spot by 12-18 years
41
what is dental star
-appears at 8 years -grows darker and larger as they age -only structure seen after 15-18 years
42
shape of teeth as horses age
young-transverse 10 years - round 15 years- triangle 20 years- rectangular
43
sedation of the horse for standing procedures
alpha 2 agonists -xylazine, 10 minutes -romifidine, 15 min -detomidine, 20 min
44
what is an additional drug to alpha 2
butorphanol, can't use alone -settles the tongue -causes leaning/head twitching
45
dental caries grading system
-0 degree: no evidence of caries on a macroscopic level, can include cement hypoplasia -1st degree: caries affecting only cementum, varies from small dark pitting superficial spots to extensive destruction and loss of cementum -2nd degree: carie extends beyond cementum to affect adjacent enamel -3rd degree: extends beyond cementum to affect enamel and dentine -4th degree: progresses to affect the integrity of the entire tooth ie fracture
46
how are the wolf teeth numbered
105/205 mostly on top -usually remove them bc bits
47
what is a bit seat
rounding of the second premolars 106/206/306/406
48
where do horses naturally get sharp points
sharp points on the outer upper jaw and sharp points on the inner lower jaw
49
how often should teeth be floated?
-young horses' teeth erupt rapidly therefore pathology develops rapidly, every 6-12 months -natural mouths, 12-36 mouths -geriatric horses, 12-36 months
50
what percentage is considered an excellent grind
75%
51
diagonal mouth
100/300 diagonal mouth
52
overjet vs overbite
jet is partial tooth bite is entire tooth
53
underjet vs underbite
overjet/bite is more common that underset/bite
54
EOTRH
absorption of alveolar bone and excessive production of cementum
55
wave mouth
-most common pathology in geriatrics -the first molar is the first adult tooth in the mouth so it wears out first and everything grows out to catch up -109/209 are first steps to erupt and 308/408 are last to lose caps
56
excessive transverse ridges
predisposed to sharp points
57
molar hooks
classic 106/206 and 311/411
58
molar ramps
offset arcades 306/406
59
oligodontia
-missing teeth -adjacent teeth will move to fill the gap and shorten the arcade
60
polyodontia
extra tooth -if packing feed, pull teeth
61
molar step mouth
usually result of missing tooth or malocclusion -6-12 months to maintain -if there is a missing tooth on one side on the opposing side the tooth gets longer
62
molar shear mouth
extreme cheek malocclusion -loss of normal jaw movement
63
molar diastema
-food impacts and results in periodonitis
64
what does the infraorbital block for teeth
the first three cheek teeth -maxillary procedures 06-09
65
what does the maxillary block for teeth
blocks entire arcade
66
what does the middle mental block
lower incisors
67
what does the inferior alveolar block
entire mandibular arcade
68
blocking agents for local teeth blocks
lidocaine mepivaccaine bupivicane
69
what side is the esophagi on usually
left side (when choke can possibly massage food down)
70
what is the MOST common cause of chokes
beet pulp that hasn't been soaked properly
71
most common sites of choke
cervical esophagus thoracic inlet base of heart cardia/terminal esophagus
72
treatment for choke
most chokes resolve in within 20 minutes -sedation (xylazine, butorphanol, acepromazine) -muscle relaxants (buscopan, acepromazine) -NSAIDS (banamine)
73
passing a nasogastric tube during choke
-can pass obstruction into stomach -lavage while moving tube gently back and forth -pumping warm water until it flows out and around the tube or the horse grunts and then siphon the fluid out
74
what are common complications for horses with choke
-dehydration -acid-base and electrolyte abnormalities -aspiration pneumonia -esophageal mucosal irritation
75
what are less common complications of choke
-stricutre formation -esophageal formation -pleuritis -laminitis -laryngeal paralysis -horners syndrome
76
prevention methods of choke
slow feeders dental care
77
equine squamous gastric ulcer disease ESGD
-increased exposure of the squamous mucosa to acid -stomach acid splashing the squamous portion
78
predisposition for ESGD
-racehorses -intensity and duration of excercise are more important to development of disease -greater than 6 hours between meals increase chances -feeding grain at 1% of body weight increases disposition
79
predispositions for EGGD
-warmbloods -exercised more than 5 days a week -stressy and introverted over thinkers
80
what is the only way to diagnose ulcers
gastroscopy
81
grading of ESGD
82
ESGD treatment
goal is pH>4 for 16-18 hours daily -PPI, omeprazole (must be given on empty stomach), gastrogard -H2 receptos antagonist (ranitidine) -nutrition
83
EGGD treatment
-sucralfate -misoprostal (AE: abortion) -maybe high dose of omeprazole
84
grading system of EGGD
-anatomic location (pylorus, antrum) -description (pathology) -size (%)
85
why is pain a major problem with colic?
-sympathetic discharge leads to (ileus) bowel shutdown, gas distention (pain and mobility), displacement, strangulation
86
what are the origins of pain in colic
-spasm -distention (gas) (stretch visceral pain) -ischemia-low blood flow/hypoxia -inflammation (enteric) -pertonitis-parietal pain (associated with GI)
87
PE of colic case
pain attitude physical condition mucos membranes temp (only fever enteritis) pulse respiration asculatation of abdomen percussion secussion-depress listen neat xyphoid
88
what is the first thing you do after you do PE of colic case
nasogastric tube
89
where is the pelvic flexure when doing rectal
left -dorsal colon is smooth -ventral colon has haustrae
90
where is the cecum located when doing rectal
right side
91
where is the spleen located when doing rectal
against left abdominal wall
92
first aid for grade III and IV rectal tears
-sedate -remove sleeve -clean out feces -palpate mucosa 360 -pack from tear from cranial to rectum -meds -referral
93
what is the main medical management of colic
pain control
94
treatment for colic
break the pain cycle -alpha 2 potent (short) -NSAIDs less potent, anti endotoxin effects -anti-spasmotic (short acting) (buscopan) -opioids (potent, inhibit motility)
95
what are drugs not to use in colic
-opioids -acepromazine (shock) -motility stimulants -DSS
96
where does microbial fermentation occur?
cecum and colon -allowing horses to break down cellulose
97
what does fermentation in the hindgut produce
CO2, methane, and VFAs which are absorbed through the intestinal wall
98
what is propionate used for
glucose production
99
what is acetate converted into and used for
converted to acetyl CoA and used for immediate energy or for fat synthesis
100
what is butyrate converted to
acetyl CoA
101
where does microbial and enzymatic digestion take place
-microbial: hindgut -enzymatic: foregut
102
cecum starts the hindgut (fact)
and another fact VFAs are for energy
103
what percentage of body weight of water should a horse consume
~5% of BW daily
104
what percentage of body weight of forage should a horse consume
~1.5-3% of BW daily the percentage of that feed should be about 12% protein
105
how much of energy requirements are absorbed from VFAs
30%
106
why is fat a beneficial source to add to diet
low heat, calories and energy
107
what is vitamin A good for in horses
-night vision, reproduction, and immune response -toxicity causes bone fragility and teratogenesis
108
what is vitamin D good for in horses
-important for calcium homeostasis -deficiency causes rickets, toxicity causes soft tissue mineralization
109
what is vitamin E good for
-antioxidant
110
what is thiamine good for in horses diet
-carbohydrate metabolism and ATP production -deficiency causes ataxia, no toxicity reported
111
what is riboflavin good for in horse diet
ATP synthesis
112
why is calcium an important macromolecule
-critical in every pathway -must be 2:1 ratio with phosphorus
113
what is should the calcium ratio be with phosphorus
2:1
114
what should the phosphorus ratio be with calcium
1:2
115
what does the macromineral phosphorus do
ADP/ATP production
116
what does the macromineral magnesium do
enzymes, muscle contraction
117
what does the macromineral potassium do
cellular regulation/AP
118
what does the macro mineral sodium do
cellular regulation/AP
119
what does the macro mineral chlorine do
acid-base osmotic regualtion
120
what does the macro mineral sulfur do
formation of amino acids
121
function of micromineral selenium
-needed for glutathione peroxidase and thyroid hormone metabolism
122
function of micro mineral zinc
component of many enzymes
123
function of micro mineral copper
enzymes, connective tissues, and mobilization of iron stores
124
what diseases can you give a horse when you feed too much bran (which has large amounts of phosphorus in them)
big head disease
125
what disease is associated with high potassium
HYPP
126
what disease is associated with high fat and low carb diet
PSSM
127
what diseases are caused by a vitamin E deficiency
-equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy (EDM)/ neuroaxonal dystrophy (NAD) -equine lower motor neuron disease
128
what disease is associated with a selenium deficiency
white muscle disease
129
what is white muscle disease and how would you treat it
-acute my-degenerative disease of cardiac or skeletal muscle due to selenium deficiency -treatment: selenium supplementation
130
feed treatment for insulin dysregualtion/ EMS
-feed less than 10% of water soluble carbs and starch -put them on a weight loss diet and make sure its low carb
131
what disease is associated with horses fed diets low in calcium and high in phosphorus
big head disease -nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism
132
explain the pathogenesis of grain overload
ingestion of a large amount of carbs overwhelms the small intestine and enters the cecum/colon -rapid fermentation by gram + lactic acid producing bacteria and decrease in cecal pH -large numbers of gram - bacteria die releasing endotoxin, ileus
133
what is the nutritional deficiency associated with osteochondrosis dissecans (OCD)
diets very high in energy or have an imbalance in trace minerals (low copper diets)
134
treatment diet for horses with OCD
-feed complete diet low in carbs
135
what is OCD
disease found in young horses that have rapid growth and failure of endochondral ossification
136
give pathophysiology of hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
repetitive depolarization of muscle cells because of the faulty pump
137
dietary treatment of HYPP
-limit dietary intake of potassium <1% of total diet -grass tends to have less potassium than alfalfa
138
what is polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM)
they cannot store glycogen properly, they need to be keto
139
dietary treatment for PSSM
need to be keto -low carb diet -high fat diet -daily exercise to enhance glucose utilization and improves metabolism of skeletal muscle
140
describe simple/non-strangulating obstruction
-blood supply to intestine involved in the obstruction remains patent -peritoneal fluid appears grossly normal
141
describe strangulating obstruction
-blood supply is constricted/blocked= mucosal ischemia injury= endotoxemia -serosanguineous fluid (when do belly tap)
142
describe functional obstruction
-no blockage anywhere, no impaction or twist -lumen of the intestine involved remains patent -motility is altered
143
describe mechanical obstruction
-lumen is blocked
144
give some examples of non-strangulating/ simple obstruction
-ileal impaction -enteritis -ascarid impaction
145
inflammation of the proximal portion of the small intestine leads to endotoxemia and ileus and thus fluid accumulation in the SI and stomach
enteritis -true functional obstruction
146
what do you have to treat with enteritis
-endotoxemia -ileus -laminitis
147
mechanism of bendimidazoles
acts upon fumarate reductase to interfere with carb metabolism
148
examples of bendimidazoles and give trade names
-fenbendazole (panacur) -oxibendazole (anthelcide)
149
mechanism of macrocyclic lactones
increase cell permeability to Cl- resulting in flaccid paralysis and death
150
examples of macrocyclic lactones
ivermectin moxidectan
151
mechanism of tetrahydropyrimidines
cholinergic agonist
152
examples of tetrahydropyrimidines and trade names
-pyrantel pamoate paste (strongid paste) -pyratnel tartrate daily
153
mechanism for praziquantel
induces paralysis possibly via calcium channels, disrupts tegument
154
what parasite is a concern for mainly foals up to 6 months
parascaris equorum
155
why is it important to address parascaris equorum early on?
build up of worms causes obstruction of GI
156
what does parascaris equorum have a widespread resistance to
macrocyclic lactones
157
what should you used to treat/ prevent parascaris equorum
benzimidazoles
158
what is a preventative to stronguloides westeri
deworming mare with ivermectin before foaling
159
where does strongyloides westeri inhabit
-SI of nursing foals -females infect foals
160
deworming schedule for foals
-8-12 weeks benzimidazole -just prior to weaning 4-6 mon, FEC to determine ascarid/strongyle burden -9 mon strongyle and tapes -12 mon strongyles -FECRT to evaluate effectiveness of choices against strongyles and ascarids (should have 90% reduction)
161
what parasite causes verminous arteritis
strongyles vulgaris (most clinically significant) -migrate to cranial mesenteric artery
162
cyanthostomes
small strongyles
163
most effective anthelmintic for insisted strongyles
moxidectin (low index) panacur powerpac
164
most clinically significant tapeworm
anoplocephala perfoliata
165
where does anoplocephala perfoliata reside
ileocecal junction
166
treatment/anthelminitic for anoplocephala perfoliata
praziquantel
167
where does oxyuris equip reside
-descending colon and rectum
168
where does onchocerciasis cervicalis migrate to
nuchal ligament -verminous dermatitis
169
where does setaria equina migrate to
abdominal cavity
170
what is the treatment threshold for fecal egg count
200 eggs per gram (EPG)
171
how to calculate fecal egg count reduction test
-just prior to and 10-14 days after anthelmintic tx %FECR=FECpre-FECpost/FECpre x 100 - if there are results below 90% then there resistance to anthelmintic used
172
what disease in horses may require more intensive management with parasite control
PPID
173
what diagnostics do you run for parasite control
mcmasters FEC fecal float
174
what eggs are you likely to see on a fecal float to McMaster's egg count
parascaris quorum oxyuris equi strongyle-type
175
what parasite has resistance to benzimidazoles in adults
cyanthostome
176
what parasite has multi-drug resistance in foals
ascarid
177
what anthelminitic is most useful for treating strongyles
moxidectin panacur power pack
178
what anthelminitic is most used for treating tapeworms
praziquantel
179
anthelmintic treatment for oxyuris equi
ivermectin
180
anthelmintic treatment for onchocerca cervicalis and setaria equina
macrocyclic lactones ivermectin
181
habronema spp and drachia spp anthelminitic treatment
macrocyclic lactones ivermectin
182
anthelminitic treatment for gastrophilus spp
macrocyclic lactones ivermectin
183
anthelmintic treatment for thelazia lacrymalis
benzomidozoles
184
anthelminitic treatment for dictyocaulus arnfieldi
macrocyclic lactones ivermectin
185
reservoir for dictyocaulus arnfieldi
donkeys and mules -horses swallow eggs when out with donkey friends
186
what test can you facilitate for dictyocaulus arnfieldi
baermann test
187