exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
structural description
A
refers to the physical description of a behavior, focusing on how a behavior is organized, its components, and how it looks
2
Q
functional description
A
explains the purpose or role of the behavior, emphasizing the effects it has or the outcome it produces
3
Q
dependent variable
A
measurable output of the brain or body
4
Q
correlational relationship
A
when 2 variables change in a consistent pattern
5
Q
behavioral variables
A
the measurable variable that is changed by changing another variable
6
Q
causal relationship
A
when changing 1 variable causes a second variable to change
7
Q
somatic variables
A
a structure of the body that can be manipulated
8
Q
independent variable
A
the variable that is manipulated
9
Q
neuroplasticity
A
- the brains ability to reorganize itself by reforming new neural connections
- allows neurons to compensate for injury, adjust their activity in response to new experiences
- adapt to changes in the environment
10
Q
localization of functions
A
trying to identify which brain region is involved in a specific behavior
11
Q
purpose of using different strains when processing brain tissue for microscopic evaluation?
A
- highlight various components or structures of brain tissue
- allows researchers to differentiate between types of cells
- arrangement of cells
- identify specific proteins or cellular processes under the microscope
12
Q
what is the advantage of optical imaging over tissue sections used in microscope evaluation?
A
- allows for non invasive observation of brain activity in the brain
- involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure voltage fluctuations resulting from ionic current flows within the neurons of the brain
13
Q
what is the purpose of event related potentials (ERPs)?
A
- measure brain responses that are directly related to specific cognitive, sensory or motor events
- help the brain process particular stimuli
14
Q
ventricular system function
A
- a network of interconnected cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
- cushions the brain, removes waste an provided nutrients
15
Q
what produces cerebrospinal fluid
A
chorioid plexus
16
Q
arterial system
A
supplies oxygen and nutrients through the internal carotid and vertebral arteries (connect in the circle of willis, ensuring consistent blood flow)
17
Q
blood brain barrier
A
selective, semipermeable boundary that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood, while allowing essential molecules like oxygen and glucose to pass through
18
Q
3 layers of meninges
A
- dura mater
- arachnoid mater
- pia mater
19
Q
dura mater
A
outermost, tough protector layer
20
Q
arachnoid mater
A
middle layer, web like structure that cushions the brain
21
Q
pia mater
A
innermost layer, adheres to brain surface and provides final protective barrier
22
Q
cranial nerves
A
emerge directly from the brain (head and neck)
23
Q
spinal nerves
A
emerge from the spinal cord (sensory and motor)
24
Q
regulated by nerves from the thoracic and lumbar segments
A
sympathetic ANS
25
both pre and post ganglionic nerves are cholinergic
parasympathetic ANS
26
inhibits salivation and inhibits functions of the GI system
sympathetic ANS
27
dilates blood vessels in the skin and stimulates functions of the GI system
parasympathetic ANS
28
regulated by nerves from the cranial and coccygeal segments
parasympathetic ANS
29
accelerates heart and respiration
sympathetic ANS
30
post ganglionic nerves are noradrenergic
sympathetic ANS
31
prepares the body for optimal function in a dangerous situation
sympathetic ANS
32
central sulcus
a deep groove in the brain separating the frontal and parietal lobes
33
sylvian fissure
known as the lateral sulcus, it separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes
34
gray matter
contains neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and synapses; involved in processing info
35
white matter
contain myelinated axons that facilitate the transmission of electrical signals between different brain regions
36
4 lobes of the cortex
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
37
frontal lobe
involved in decision making, problem solving, and motor control
38
parietal lobe
processed sensory info like touch and spatial orientation
39
temporal lobe
responsible for auditory processing and memory
40
occipital lobe
primarily involved in visual processing
41
medulla (myelencephalon)
regulates breathing and descending axons pass through
42
thalamus (diencephalon)
nuclei that relays sensory information to the cortex
43
pons (metencephalon)
involved in sleep and arousal
44
cerebellum (metencephalon)
role in motor coordination and motor learning
45
hypothalamus (diencephalon)
regulates biological functions like hunger via hormones
46
superior colliculus (mesencephalon)
regulates visual attention and directs visual gaze
47
reticular formation (mesencephalon)
involved in arousal and contains cranial nerve nuclei
48
main features of the vertebrae nervous system
has specialized regions for sensory input, motor output, and cognitive processes, with protection from the skull and vertebral column
49
central nervous system (CNS)
composed of brain and spinal cord
50
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
includes sensory and motor neurons connecting the CNS to the body
51
according to the neuron doctrine, the brain is composed of separate cells that are distinct in what 3 ways?
structure, function, connections
52
parts of a neuron
dendrites: input zone (receives info)
cell body (soma): integration zone (processes input)
axon: conduction zone (transmits the electrical signal)
axon terminals: output zone (transmits info to other neurons)
53
types of glial cells
astrocytes
microglia
oligodendrocytes
schwann cells
54
forms myelin in the central nervous system
oligodendrocytes
55
repairs damaged areas of the brain
astrocytes
56
provides structural supports for neurons
astrocytes
57
remove debris from inured or dead neurons
microglia
58
stores glucose for metabolic support of neurons
astrocytes
59
forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system
schwann cells
60
modulate synaptic activity
astrocytes
61
the immune system in the nervous system
microglia
62
difference between anterograde and retrograde axonal transport
anterograde transport: movement of materials from the cell body to the axon terminals
retrograde transport: movement of materials from the axon terminal back to the body
63
ion
-- a charged particle
-- cation: positively charged ions (Na+, K+)
-- anions: negatively charged ions (Cl-)
64
what are the characteristics of the neuronal membrane that contribute to the electrical properties of neurons
-- contains ion channels and pumps that regulate the flow of ions
-- selectively permeable to ions like sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+)
65
resting membrane potential
-- electrical charge difference across the neuronal membrane when the neuron is at rest, typically -70mV
-- measured using micro electrode and maintained by sodium potassium pump
66
hyperpolarization
the inside of the neuron becomes more negative than the resting potential, making it less likely to fire an action potential
67
depolarization
when inside of the neuron becomes less negative, moving closer to threshold (--55mV)
if threshold is reached, triggers an action potential (a rapid strike in electrical activity)
68
as action potentials propagate down the axon from the axon hillock, there is no "depolarizing" to threshold prior to the spike of the action potential. why?
-- once the threshold is reached at the axon hillock, voltage gated sodium channels open (causes rapid influx of sodium ions)
-- leads to a full action potential
69
how myelin on axons increase the rate of conduction of action potentials to the axon terminals
-- insulates the axon, allowing action potentials to jump from one node of ranvier to the next through saltatory conduction
-- increasing the speed of signal transmission
70
excitatory postsynpatic potentials (EPSPs)
make the post synaptic neurons more likely to fire an action potential by depolarizing the membrane
71
inhibitory post synaptic potentials (IPSPs)
make the post synaptic neuron less likely to fire by hyper polarizing the membrane
72
difference between neurochemistry and neuropharmacology
neurochemistry: focuses on the chemical composition and processes within the nervous system, including neurotransmitters, enzymes and receptors
neuropharmacology: studies how drugs affect the nervous system, particularly how they interact with neurotransmitters and receptors
73
endogenous vs exogenous
endogenous: are naturally produced within the body
exogenous: are external substances, like drugs or toxins, that can blind to receptors
74
affinity
the strength of interaction between an exogenous ligand and receptors
75
competitive antagonist (exogenous ligand function)
blocks the receptor but does not cause any action
76
agonist (exogenous ligand function)
mimics the effects of an endogenous ligand
77
non competitive antagonist (exogenous ligand function)
binds to a different part of the receptor but still prevents function
78
inverse agonist (exogenous ligand function)
causes the opposite effect of the agonist when it binds the receptor
79
neuromodulator
refers to the regulation of neuron activity by substances that affect the strength of signaling without directly initiating an action potential
80
false statements about neurotransmitters
the presynaptic neuron can release the substance at any time >>> release occurs when triggered by action potential
81
ionotropic vs. metabotropic receptors
ionotropic: directly open ion channels, leading to rapid effects
metabotropic: activate g-proteins, leading to slower, longer lasting effects by triggering intracellular signaling cascades
82
ligand gated ion channels are not only involved in action potential propagation but also in synaptic transmission
false
83
ionotropic receptors can cause EPSPs or IPSPs
true
84
nicotinic receptors only respond to acetylcholine or similar substance, not other neurotransmitters
false
85
g protein coupled receptors can affect ion channel indirectly
false
86
g protein coupled receptors can activate pathways that lead to long term changes in neurons
false
87
classify neurotransmitter acetylcholine
amine
88
classify neurotransmitter endorphins
neuropeptide
89
classify neurotransmitter GABA
amino acid
90
classify neurotransmitter serotonin
amine
91
classify neurotransmitter glutamate
amino acids
92
classify neurotransmitter norephinephrine
amine
93
classify neurotransmitter oxytocin
neuropeptide
94
a neuron can only release one type of neurotransmitter, some neurons release more than one neurotransmitter (co-transmission)
false
95
neurotransmitters are synthesized from dietary precursors
true
96
deterioration of the cholinergic system is linked to alzheimers
true
97
the cholinergic system is more involved in attention and memory than emotion
false
98
dopaminergic pathways are involved in reward and motor control
true
99
dopaminergic receptors are metabotropic, not ionotropic
false
100
glutamate and GABA are the primary excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters
false
101
the noradrenergic system modulates mood, arousal and sexual behavior
true
102
the serotonergic system has a wide variety of receptor subtypes
true
103
the cell bodies of glutamatergic and GABAergic neurons are located in specific brain areas
false
104
glial cells with mGluR3 receptors help regulate synaptic transmission via glutamate
true
105
acetycholine
cell bodies are located in the basal forebrain, projecting to the cerebral cortex; involved in attention and memory
106
dopamine
cell bodies in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area; involved in motor control, reward, and motivation
107
norephinephrine
cell bodies in the locus coeruleus, involved in arousal, alertness, and mood regulation
108
serotonin
cell bodies in the raphe nuclei; involved in mood, sleep and emotional regulation
109
glutamate
widespread throughout the brain; primary excitatory neurotransmitter
110
GABA
widespread throughout the brain; primary inhibitory neurotransmitter
111
receptor down regulation
decrease in receptors due t overexposure to an agonist
112
metabolic tolerance
organs system metabolize drugs more effeciently
113
neuromodulation
regulation by substances other than neurotransmitters
114
functional tolerance
tolerance due to changes in tissue sensitivity
115
receptor up regulation
increase in receptors after exposure to an antogonist
116
routes of administration
different routes (oral, inhalation, injection) affect how quickly and efficiently a drug enters the blood stream and reaches the brain
117
tolerance
-- the body's adaptions to a drug effectiveness
-- types include: metabolic tolerance (faster drug metabolism) and functional tolerance (changes in receptor sensitivity)
118
receptor up regulation and down regulation in withdrawal
up: increased receptors after chronic antagonist use may cause hypersensitivity when the drug is removed (withdrawal)
down: fewer receptors after chronic agonist use may cause reduced sensitivity, leading to withdrawal symptoms
119
metabolic receptors process signals faster than ionotropic receptors
true or false
false
120
121
122
the biggest contribution to the complexity of chemical communication is
a. the total number of neurotransmitters in the nervous system
b. the number of receptor subtypes for the different neurotransmitters
c. whether the neurotransmitter message is halted by enzymatic degradation or reuptake
d. all 3 contribute to the complexity of chemical communication
d. all three contribute to the complexity of a chemical communication
123
what is the correct sequence of events that occurs once a neurons threshold for forming an action potential is reached?
a. potassium enters the neuron at the same time sodium leaves the neuron
b. sodium enters the neuron, followed by potassium leaving the neuron
c. potassium enters the neuron, followed by sodium leaving the neuron
d. sodium enters the neuron at the same time potassium leaves the neuron
b. sodium enters the neuron, followed by potassium leaving the neuron
124
____ of EPSPs and IPSPs produced in the dendrites and cell body determines if an action potential will be initiated in the axon hillock
integration, summation
125
which ion channel is responsible for initiating release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles?
a. voltage gated sodium (Na+)
b. passive potassium (K+)
c. voltage gated calium (Ca2+)
d. ligand gated sodium (Na+)
c. voltage gated calcium (Ca2+)
126
which of the following statements about general organizations of the central nervous system is true
a. basic physiological functions (breathing) are regulated by the forebrain (telencephalon and diencephalon) and more complex functions (thoughts and emotions) are regulated by the hindbrain and midbrain
b. regulation of basic physiological functions (breathing) and complex functions are dispersed across the hindbrain, midbrain and forebrain
c. basic physiological functions (breathing) are regulated in the hindbrain and midbrain and more complex functions (thoughts and emotions) are regulated by the forebrain (telencephalon and diencephalon)
c. basic physiological functions (breathing) are regulated in the hindbrain and midbrain and more complex functions (thoughts and emotions) are regulated by the forebrain (telencephalon and diencephalon)
127
which of the areas below is involved in processing emotion and learning?
a. basal ganglia
b. limbic system
c. hypothalamus
d. corpus callosum
b. limbic system
128
from a functional perspective, which type of cells in the brain are the most important?
a. neurons
b. astrocytes
c. microglia
d. oligodendrocytes
a. neurons
129
As a researcher, I want to determine the effect of amphetamine on memory. I inject some mice with amphetamine and some with saline before they learn to find a treat in a new maze. The following day I put them in the maze and see if they remember where the treat is in the maze. The independent variable in this experiment is
a. the mice
b. what kind of treat the mice have to find
c. memory measured by the mice remembering where to find the treat in the maze
d. whether the mice are dosed with amphetamine
d. whether the mice are dosed with amphetamine
130
which technologies tell us about the activity of the brain?
a. CT and PET
b. PET and fMRI
c. CT and MRI
d. MRI and PET
b. PET and fMRI
131
