20. What does a blue line indicate on the Air Vehicle (AV) chapter Electrical (Elec) page Generator (Gen) section? a. Generator is disabled b. Engine speed is <65% - c. Generator power flow is enabled d. Generator has not completed warmup

- c. Generator power flow is enabled

Exam 1 Flashcards by D J

Which of the following is NOT a Multi-spectral Targeting System (MTS)-D Medium
Wavelength Infrared (MWIR) field of view?
Wide
b. Medium
c. Ultra-wide
d. Super-wide

D - Super-wide

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Fill in the blank. The engine oil system is a tank mounted to the engine truss in the engine bay.
а.
dry-sump
b. wet-sump
C.
low pressure
d. high pressure

A - Dry sump

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The Protector RPA has how many flight control surfaces?
a. 15
b. 13
C.
12
d.
10

A - 15

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Where are flight critical instruments and hardware controlled and monitored? a.
Head-Up Display (HUD)
b. Tactical Situation display (TSD)
c. Certified Flight Control System (CFCS)
d. Core Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Control System (CUCS)

c. Certified Flight Control System (CFCS)

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Which of the following generates the background image on the Heads-Up Display (HUD)?
a. Nose video and MTS video -
b. SAR Controls
c. Synthetic Weather
d. Horizontal Situational Indicator

a. Nose video and MTS video

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Which of the following datalinks provides the primary SATCOM Command Link (CL) and Return Link (RL) between the CGCS and RPA?
a. Low Data Rate (LDR)
b. High Data Rate (HDR)
c. Medium Data Rate (MDR)
d. Video-Oriented Transceiver for Exchange of information (VORTEX)

B - HDR high data rate

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Which of the following datalinks provides a backup SATCOM Command Link (CL) and Return
Link (RL) between the CGCS and RPA?
a. Low Data Rate (LDR)
b. High Data Rate (HDR)
c. Medium Data Rate (MDR)
d. Video-Oriented Transceiver for Exchange of information (VORTEX)

a. Low Data Rate (LDR)

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What is the purpose of the Portable Preflight/Postflight Equipment (PE)?
a. Enables beyond-line-of-sight (BLOS) control
b. Facilitates quick launch capability for aircrew when command link fails
c. Allows maintenance to easily communicate with aircrew through onboard radios
d. Provides portable pre-flight, post-flight, and operational-level maintenance operations

d. Provides portable pre-flight, post-flight, and operational-level maintenance operations

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How many displays does each Pilot & Sensor Operator (PSO) workstation have?
a. One HUD, one shared TSD, two center displays, two lower auxiliary displays
b. One Head-Up Display (HUD), one TSD, two Adaptive Flight Displays (AFD), and one auxiliary display.
_ c. One HUD, one TSD, one CUCS display, one Certified Flight Control System (CFCS)
display, and two upper auxiliary displays
d. One HUD, one Tactical Situation Display (TSD), one center Core UAV Control System
(CUCS) display, two lower auxiliary displays

_ c. One HUD, one TSD, one CUCS display, one Certified Flight Control System (CFCS)
display, and two upper auxiliary displays

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Which of the following is displayed on the Head-Up Display (HUD)?
a. Nose camera and Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) video, flight attitude graphics, and system status information
- b. Nose camera and Multi-spectral Targeting System (MTS) video, flight attitude graphics, and system status information
C.
Engine Indication and Crew Alert System (EICAS) data, Infrared (IR) nose camera and Low Light Television (LLT) video, system status information
d. SAR, nose camera, and MTS-D video, Primary Flight Display (PFD) settings and indications, flight attitude graphics, and system status information

b. Nose camera and Multi-spectral Targeting System (MTS) video, flight attitude graphics, and system status information

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True or false? The pilot and sensor operator Head-Up Displays (HUD) always display identical
video.
a. True
• b. False

B - false

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Which of the following does NOT appear on the Adaptive Flight Display?
a.
Primary Flight Display (PFD)
b.
Multifunction Window (MFW)
C.
Electronic Checklist (E-Checklist)
d. Engine Indication and Crew Alert System (EICAS)

C - Electronic Checklist (E-Checklist)

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Which of the following best describes what the Certified Flight Control System (CFCS)
provides?
a. Aircraft system controls, indicators, and checklists
b. Provides geographical data and mission planning for aircraft
c.
Controls and monitors flight critical instruments and hardware -
d. Provides nose camera video and system status information

C - Controls and monitors flight critical instruments and hardware -

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Which of the following appear on the Core Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Control System (CUCS)?
A. Aircraft attitude
b. Mission planning information
c. Electronic checklists & amplifying procedures •
d. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) control and image analysis

c. Electronic checklists & amplifying procedures •

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Which of the following best describes what the Tactical Situation Display (TSD) provides?
a. Aircraft system controls and indicators and checklists
b. Geographical data and mission planning for aircraft -
c. Controls and monitors flight-critical instruments and hardware
d. Nose camera video, flight attitude graphics, and system status information

b. Geographical data and mission planning for aircraft

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What does a dark red ghosted image aircraft icon indicate on the Tactical Situation Display (TSD)? a.
A. Aircraft has lost uplink
b. Aircraft has lost both uplink and downlink
C. Aircraft is being hand-flown or is on the ground
d. Aircraft is in a preprogrammed operational mission

b. Aircraft has lost both uplink and downlink

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True or false? Protector RG Mk1 electrical system bus 2 primary power is provided by the Starter-Generator (SG).
a. True
b. False

B - false

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True or false? Protector RG Mk1 electrical system bus 2 primary power is provided by a Direct Drive Brushless Alternator (DDBA).
a. True
b. False

A - true

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Which of the following best describes the Direct Drive Brushless Alternator (DDBA)?
а.
Powers Battery Junction Module (BJM) 2 and the Starter-Generator (SG)
b. Produces and routes variable voltage, variable frequency, 3-phase AC to power Bus 2 systems
c. Converts Alternating Current Power Module (ACPM) 28 Volts direct current (V dc) into
3-phase V ac
d. Receives input Alternating Current (AC) power from the SG through the ACPM and feeds 28 V de output to bus 1

b. Produces and routes variable voltage, variable frequency, 3-phase AC to power Bus 2 systems

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What does a blue line indicate on the Air Vehicle (AV) chapter Electrical (Elec) page Generator (Gen) section?
a.
Generator is disabled
b. Engine speed is <65%
- c. Generator power flow is enabled
d. Generator has not completed warmup

c. Generator power flow is enabled

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Which of the following Direct Current Power Supplies (DCPS) supply 28 Volts direct current to bus 2?
a. DCPS 1
b. DCPS 2
C. DCPS 3
d. DCPS 6

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d. DCPS 6

Which of the following best describes the Battery Charger Contactor Unit (BCCU)?
a. Provides inflight battery charging in normal operation
b. Receives control commands from Alternating Current Power Module (ACPM)
c. Connect batteries to the Battery Junction Modules (BJM) if bus voltage drops below nominal
d. All of the above

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D - all of the above

How many batteries does bus 1 have?
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

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B - 3

How many batteries does bus 2 have?
a.
Two
b.
Three
C.
Four
d. Five

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C - 4

25. Which of the following best describes the batteries? • a. Provides 28 V dc backup power to bus 1 and 2. b. Can only be charged on the ground using an external direct current power source c. Provide enough backup power for flight-critical systems (1,300 watts) for at least 90 minutes after a complete generator failure d. All of the above

a. Provides 28 V dc backup power to bus 1 and 2.

26. True or false? The Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Asynchronous RS-422 Bus (UARB) serves as the primary Aircraft Digital Control System (ADCS) network for communication of aircraft control command and system monitoring information. a. True b. False

A - true

27. Which of the following components serves as the central processor for the Aircraft Digital Control System (ADCS)? a. Flight Computer Assembly (FCA) b. Redundant Control Module (RCM) c. Digital Flight Control System (DFCS) d. Flight Sensor Auxiliary Control Module (FACM)

b. Redundant Control Module (RCM)

28. Which of the following connects the Flight Computer Assemblies (FCA) in the Redundant Control Module (RCM)? a. Receive Network (RNET) b. Vote Processor Assembly (VPA) c. Mission Control Module (MCM) d. Cross-Channel Data Link (CCDL)

d. Cross-Channel Data Link (CCDL)

29. Which of the following provides a quality check of the Flight Computer Assemblies (FCA) command data streams? a. Receive Network (RNET) b. Transmit Network (TNET) c. Vote Processor Assembly (VPA) d. Cross-Channel Data Link (CCDL)

c. Vote Processor Assembly (VPA)

30. Where are the Flight Computer Assembly (FCA) controls and indicators managed? a. AFD Autopilot (AP) chapter Air Data (AirDat) page b. CUCS Air Vehicle (AV) chapter Flight Computer (FCOM) page c. Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Autopilot (AP) chapter FCOM page d. Core Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Control System (CUCS) UARB page

c. Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Autopilot (AP) chapter FCOM page

31. What does it mean when the network health status indicator on the Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Autopilot (AP) chapter Health Status (HIthSt) page is green? a. Faulty network b. Degraded network C. Healthy network, in use d. Healthy network, not in use

C. Healthy network, in use

32. What does it mean when the network health status indicator on the Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Autopilot (AP) chapter Health Status (HIthSt) page is red? a. Faulty network b. Degraded network C. Healthy network, in use d. Healthy network, not in use

a. Faulty network

33. What does it mean when the network health status indicator on the Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Autopilot (AP) chapter Health Status (HIthSt) page is gray? a. Faulty network b. Degraded network c. Healthy network, in use d. Healthy network, not in use

d. Healthy network, not in use

34. True or false? The High Data Rate (HDR) data link provides the primary Satellite Communication (SATCOM) Command Link (CL) and Return Link (RL) between the Certified Ground Control Station (CGCS) and Remotely Piloted Aircraft (RPA). a. True b. False

A - true

35. What does a solid amber data link status indicator signify on the Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Data Link (D/L) chapter High Data Rate (HDR) page? a.Valid link is present, but not in use - b. Valid active link with signal <50% c. Valid passive link with signal <50% d. Valid link alternate control station (PE)

- b. Valid active link with signal <50%

36. What does a solid green Command Link (CL) status indicator signify on the Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) Data Link (D/L) chapter High Data Rate (HDR) page? A Valid link is present, but not in use b. Valid passive link with signal <50% Valid c active uplink is being received d. Valid link alternate control station (PE)

c active uplink is being received

37. Fill in the blank. The High Data Rate (HDR) data link antenna receives and transmits the Command Link (CL) and Return Link (RL) in the A X-band b. C-band c. L-band d. Ku-band

A X-band

38. File in the blank. The Low Data Rate (LDR) data link antenna receives and transmits the Command Link (CL) and Return Link (RL) in the a. X-band b. C-band c. L-band d. Ku-band

C - L band

39. Fill in the blanks. The Video-Oriented Transceiver for Exchange of information (VORTEX data link system utilizes onboard and Line-Of-Sight (LOS) communications equipment. a. C-band; S-band b. C-band; L-band c. L-band; X-band - d. S-band; L-band

d. S-band; L-band

40. Fill in the blank. The airborne VHF/UHF radio system Receiver Transmitter (RT) 1 uses the …..antenna and RT 2 uses…… antenna. a. left winglet; right winglet b. right winglet; left winglet C. left fuselage; right fuselage d. right fuselage; left fuselage

a. left winglet; right winglet

41. Where are the Very High Frequency (VHF)/Ultra High Frequency (UHF) radio system airborne radio controls located? a. CUCS Air 1 and Air 2 pages • b. AFD FCOM chapter Radio 1 and Radio 2 pages c. Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) d. CUCS Radio 1 and Radio 2 pages

c. Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) But can also be found on B but that isn’t the answer

42. True or false? In Standby mode, the VHF/UHF radio system transmit and receive functions are inhibited. - a. True b. False

A true

43. True or false? The Embedded Global Positioning System/Inertial Navigation System (EGI) provides a blended navigation solution based on a combination of GPS and INS data. a. True b. False

A true

44. True or false? The laser altimeters are adversely affected by particles in the air such as dust, fog, and rain. a. True b. False

A true

45. How many Flight Control Assemblies (FCA) does the Redundant Control Module (RCM) contain? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

c. Three

46. Which of the following components provides Angle-Of-Attack (AOA) and Angle of Sideslip (AOS)? a. Pitot tube b. Nose boom C. Laser altimeter d. Embedded GPS/INS (EGI)

B nose boom

47. How many pitot tubes are included in the air data system? a. Four; one on each wing and two on the aircraft nose b. Three; one on the right wing and two on the left wing c. One; located just below the alpha probe on the aircraft nose d. Two; one at the very end of each wing below navigation lights

b. Three; one on the right wing and two on the left wing

48. Fill in the blank. The air data system contains ….. static ports a. one set of two b. two sets of two c. one set of three d. three sets of two

d. three sets of two

49. What is the purpose of the air data system static ports? a. Sample ram air velocity b. Collect static air pressure c. Calculate relative humidity d. Determine ambient temperature

b. Collect static air pressure

50. Where are Air Data System (ADS) controls and indications displayed? • a. AFD Air Data (AirDat) page b. Adaptive Flight Display (AFD) HDR page c. CUCS Air Data Controls (AirDatCon) page d. Core Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) Control System (CUCS) AirDat page

• a. AFD Air Data (AirDat) page

Exam 1 Flashcards

(51 cards)