Exam 1 Flashcards
(116 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is the main characteristic of a benign tumor?
A) Rapid, metastatic growth
B) Undifferentiated cells
C) Defined, localized, and differentiated growth
D) Causes severe, systemic complications
A
C) Defined, localized, and differentiated growth
2
Q
Which of the following best describes the term “etiology” in the context of disease?
A) The gradual development of a disease
B) The study of the cause of disease
C) The body’s ability to maintain homeostasis
D) The symptoms and signs presented by a disease
A
B) The study of the cause of disease
3
Q
What is the primary function of a B cell in the immune response?
A) To produce histamine during allergic reactions
B) To directly destroy infected cells
C) To produce antibodies against specific antigens
D) To activate T cells to destroy infected cells
A
C) To produce antibodies against specific antigens
4
Q
Which of the following is true about chronic pain?
A) It lasts less than six months
B) It resolves quickly after the original injury heals
C) It lasts for more than six months, even after the initial injury has healed
D) It is always associated with an obvious cause or injury
A
C) It lasts for more than six months, even after the initial injury has healed
5
Q
A patient is diagnosed with Marfan syndrome. Which of the following manifestations is most characteristic of this condition?
A) Cognitive deficits and seizures
B) High-arched palate and long extremities
C) Short stature and a broad chest
D) Skin lumps and café au lait spots
A
B) High-arched palate and long extremities
6
Q
In the process of inflammation, which of the following substances is released by mast cells and basophils to increase capillary permeability?
A) Histamine
B) Interferons
C) Pyrogens
D) Complement proteins
A
A) Histamine
7
Q
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the destruction of specific cells through the binding of IgG or IgM antibodies to antigens on the surface of those cells?
A) Type I (IgE mediated)
B) Type II (tissue-specific/cytotoxic)
C) Type III (immune complex-mediated)
D) Type IV (cell-mediated)
A
B) Type II (tissue-specific/cytotoxic)
8
Q
What type of immunity is considered non-specific and provides immediate protection against all types of invaders?
A) Adaptive immunity
B) Humoral immunity
C) Innate immunity
D) Cellular immunity
A
C) Innate immunity
9
Q
Which of the following conditions would be most likely to cause hyperacute transplant rejection?
A) Organ rejection occurring months after the transplant
B) Organ rejection that occurs immediately after transplantation due to complement activation
C) A slow, progressive decline in organ function
D) A gradual increase in immunosuppression therapy effectiveness
A
B) Organ rejection that occurs immediately after transplantation due to complement activation
10
Q
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm the presence of HIV infection as early as 2 weeks after exposure?
A) Western blot test
B) PCR test
C) Rapid antigen test
D) Antibody test
A
B) PCR test
11
Q
Which of the following is the most common cause of iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Lack of vitamin B12
B. Inadequate intake of iron
C. Bone marrow failure
D. Excessive erythrocyte destruction
A
B. Inadequate intake of iron
12
Q
A patient is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which of the following is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Increased hemoglobin A production
B. Abnormal shape of red blood cells
C. A deficiency in intrinsic factor
D. Reduced production of white blood cells
A
B. Abnormal shape of red blood cells
13
Q
A nurse is caring for a patient with aplasctic anemia. The nurse expects to observe which of the following lab results?
A. Increased reticulocyte count
B. Pancytopenia
C. Decreased erythropoietin levels
D. Increased platelet count
A
B. Pancytopenia
14
Q
Which of the following is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
A
C. Von Willebrand disease
15
Q
A nurse is educating a patient with hypertension about lifestyle changes. Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate?
A. Increase sodium intake
B. Restrict alcohol intake
C. Decrease physical activity
D. Increase the intake of caffeine
A
B. Restrict alcohol intake
16
Q
A patient with aortic stenosis presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Narrowing of the aortic valve
B. Leaky mitral valve
C. Excessive blood volume
D. Thickened right ventricular walls
A
A. Narrowing of the aortic valve
17
Q
A patient presents with signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings is most likely?
A. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
B. Peripheral edema and weight gain
C. Decreased urine output
D. Cyanosis of the lips and extremities
A
B. Peripheral edema and weight gain
18
Q
A nurse is assessing a patient who has multiple myeloma. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of this condition?
A. Severe bone pain
B. Pallor of the skin
C. Jaundice from hemolysis
D. Difficulty breathing due to pulmonary congestion
A
A. Severe bone pain
19
Q
A nurse is educating a patient on pulmonary circulation. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. It is the circulation responsible for oxygenating blood.
B. It carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.
C. It involves the exchange of carbon dioxide for oxygen in the tissues.
D. It supplies blood to the body’s organs and tissues.
A
A. It is the circulation responsible for oxygenating blood.
20
Q
A nurse is explaining chronotropic effects to a patient. Which of the following does it affect?
A. The rate of electrical conduction
B. The strength of cardiac contractions
C. The rate of heart contraction
D. The volume of blood ejected from the heart
A
C. The rate of heart contraction
21
Q
A patient is diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following would most likely cause left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
B. Peripheral edema and weight gain
C. Decreased ejection fraction
D. Right-sided heart failure
A
A. Pulmonary congestion and dyspnea
22
Q
Which of the following is the most common cause of Buerger disease?
A. Smoking
B. Hypertension
C. Genetic factors
D. Atherosclerosis
A
A. Smoking
23
Q
A nurse is caring for a patient with myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following findings is most indicative of MI?
A. Unilateral leg swelling
B. Chest pain that radiates to the left arm
C. Increased urine output
D. Abdominal pain with nausea
A
B. Chest pain that radiates to the left arm
24
Q
A nurse is monitoring a patient who is at risk for shock. Which of the following is the most common type of shock seen in trauma patients?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
A
C. Hypovolemic shock
25
A patient presents with varicose veins. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Weak venous valve function
B. Inadequate arterial blood flow
C. Inflammation of the arteries
D. Excessive plaque buildup in the veins
A. Weak venous valve function
26
A patient with a family history of thalassemia asks about the inheritance pattern of the disorder. Which of the following is the correct explanation?
A. Thalassemia is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern.
B. Thalassemia is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
C. Thalassemia is inherited in a co-dominant autosomal pattern, requiring both parents to pass on the abnormal gene.
D. Thalassemia is a spontaneous mutation and does not follow a predictable inheritance pattern.
C. Thalassemia is inherited in a co-dominant autosomal pattern, requiring both parents to pass on the abnormal gene.
27
A nurse is educating the parents of a child recently diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Which of the following statements by the parents indicates an accurate understanding of the genetic nature of the disorder?
A. "Both of us need to carry the sickle cell trait for our child to inherit the disease."
B. "Only one of us needs to carry the sickle cell trait for our child to have the disease."
C. "The sickle cell disease can be passed on if one of us carries the trait, but our child will only be a carrier."
D. "If we both carry the sickle cell trait, the child will not inherit the disease."
A. "Both of us need to carry the sickle cell trait for our child to inherit the disease."
28
A 5-year-old child is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia and presents with jaundice, pain episodes, and swollen hands and feet. The parents ask why the child has these symptoms. The nurse explains that the symptoms are primarily due to which of the following genetic mechanisms?
A. The presence of hemoglobin S leads to abnormal red blood cell shape and function, causing hemolysis.
B. A mutation in the alpha-globin gene results in the production of defective hemoglobin, leading to increased oxygen carrying capacity.
C. A deficiency of vitamin B12 causes the red blood cells to become fragile and rupture.
D. The mutation in the beta-globin gene leads to a lack of hemoglobin production and decreased red blood cell count.
A. The presence of hemoglobin S leads to abnormal red blood cell shape and function, causing hemolysis.
29
A couple is considering genetic testing for hereditary hemophilia A because they are expecting a male child. Which of the following statements by the couple would indicate a need for further teaching?
A. "Since hemophilia A is X-linked, it is more likely that our son will inherit the condition if I am a carrier."
B. "If I am a carrier of hemophilia A, there is a 50% chance that our son will inherit the disorder."
C. "Hemophilia A can be passed on to our son, even if I am not a carrier, if the father is affected."
D. "As a mother, I cannot pass hemophilia A to a son unless I am a carrier of the gene."
C. "Hemophilia A can be passed on to our son, even if I am not a carrier, if the father is affected."
30
A nurse is counseling a patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera. The nurse informs the patient that this is a neoplastic disease of blood cells. Which of the following genetic mechanisms is primarily involved in the pathogenesis of polycythemia vera?
A. A mutation in the JAK2 gene leads to excessive production of blood cells, particularly red blood cells.
B. A deficiency in the bone marrow's response to erythropoietin leads to the overproduction of red blood cells.
C. A genetic mutation in the hemoglobin gene results in increased blood viscosity.
D. Abnormal regulation of the fetal hemoglobin gene leads to excessive blood cell production in adults.
A. A mutation in the JAK2 gene leads to excessive production of blood cells, particularly red blood cells.
31
A 25-year-old patient is diagnosed with sickle cell disease and is being counseled regarding genetic counseling for future children. The nurse explains that the chance of having a child with sickle cell disease if both parents are carriers is:
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
A. 25%
32
A couple is concerned about the possibility of having a child with thalassemia. The woman’s family history reveals that her mother has thalassemia minor (carrier) and her father has thalassemia major (homozygous for the disorder). The man’s family history shows he has thalassemia minor. What is the likelihood that their child will inherit thalassemia major?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
A. 25%
33
The parents of a child with hemophilia A ask about the likelihood of their child inheriting the disorder. Which of the following genetic inheritance patterns is correct for hemophilia A?
A. Hemophilia A is an X-linked dominant disorder, so a female child would be more likely to inherit it than a male child.
B. Hemophilia A is an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning there is a 50% chance of passing it to offspring.
C. Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive, meaning a male child will inherit the condition if the mother is a carrier.
D. Hemophilia A is autosomal recessive, so both parents must be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
C. Hemophilia A is X-linked recessive, meaning a male child will inherit the condition if the mother is a carrier.
34
A nurse is educating the parents of a child with sickle cell anemia. The parents express concern about the genetic nature of the disease. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the education?
A. The disease is caused by a mutation in the alpha-globin gene, which leads to the production of sickle-shaped red blood cells.
B. The condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, requiring only one parent to carry the sickle cell gene for the child to be affected.
C. The mutation in the beta-globin gene leads to the formation of hemoglobin S, which distorts the red blood cells and causes blockages in small blood vessels.
D. Sickle cell anemia is a congenital condition that cannot be passed down through families.
C. The mutation in the beta-globin gene leads to the formation of hemoglobin S, which distorts the red blood cells and causes blockages in small blood vessels.
35
A woman with pernicious anemia asks the nurse how the condition was inherited. The nurse explains that pernicious anemia is associated with which of the following genetic factors?
A. It is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor, which is needed for vitamin B12 absorption.
B. It is an X-linked recessive disorder that affects males more frequently.
C. It is caused by a mutation in the vitamin B12 receptor gene, leading to impaired absorption.
D. It is an autosomal recessive disorder, and both parents must be carriers of the defective gene.
A. It is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor, which is needed for vitamin B12 absorption.
36
A nurse is caring for a patient in the progressive stage of shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect during this stage of shock?
A. Decreased heart rate, stable blood pressure, and improved tissue perfusion.
B. Increased heart rate, worsening hypotension, and decreased oxygenation to vital organs.
C. Decreased respiratory rate, stable blood pressure, and no change in mental status.
D. Increased urine output, normal heart rate, and stable respiratory rate.
B. Increased heart rate, worsening hypotension, and decreased oxygenation to vital organs.
37
A patient in cardiogenic shock develops worsening heart failure. Which of the following pathophysiologic changes best explains the development of shock in this patient?
A. Increased preload due to fluid retention and decreased myocardial contractility.
B. Decreased afterload and improved myocardial contractility leading to increased cardiac output.
C. Increased venous return and vasodilation, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance.
D. Decreased preload and increased myocardial oxygen demand, leading to heart ischemia.
A. Increased preload due to fluid retention and decreased myocardial contractility.
38
A nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological process in left-sided heart failure?
A. Blood backs up into the right atrium and increases systemic venous pressure.
B. The left ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively, causing pulmonary congestion and dyspnea.
C. The right ventricle fails to pump blood to the lungs, causing peripheral edema and weight gain.
D. The coronary arteries are unable to deliver oxygenated blood to the myocardium, leading to ischemia.
B. The left ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively, causing pulmonary congestion and dyspnea.
39
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). The nurse understands that NHL is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the tumor tissue.
B. A more aggressive clinical course compared to Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
C. A poor prognosis in many subtypes of NHL.
D. Absence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the tumor tissue.
A. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the tumor tissue.
40
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate as a characteristic finding on biopsy for this patient?
A. Bence Jones proteins in the blood and urine.
B. Reed-Sternberg cells present in the lymphoid tissue.
C. The presence of abnormal plasma cells in the blood smear.
D. Tumor cells in the bone marrow and spleen.
B. Reed-Sternberg cells present in the lymphoid tissue.
41
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL). Which of the following best describes the typical prognosis and characteristics of CLL?
A. It affects primarily children, responds well to therapy, and has a poor prognosis.
B. It is an aggressive cancer that often requires immediate chemotherapy to improve prognosis.
C. It affects primarily adults, progresses slowly, and most patients survive for many years after diagnosis.
D. It is more common in men and is associated with a high cure rate with early treatment.
C. It affects primarily adults, progresses slowly, and most patients survive for many years after diagnosis.
42
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Which of the following would most likely be seen in the patient's blood work?
A. Low white blood cell count with the presence of blast cells.
B. Elevated red blood cell count with elevated hemoglobin levels.
C. Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in the peripheral blood.
D. Elevated platelet count with evidence of thrombocytosis.
A. Low white blood cell count with the presence of blast cells.
43
A nurse is educating a patient diagnosed with multiple myeloma about the condition. Which of the following statements indicates a correct understanding of the disease?
A. "Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the lymphocytes and primarily affects the lymphatic system."
B. "Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells and can result in bone pain, fractures, and high levels of Bence Jones proteins in the urine."
C. "This condition primarily affects red blood cells and causes severe anemia and fatigue."
D. "Multiple myeloma is an autoimmune disorder that causes the production of abnormal antibodies, leading to chronic inflammation."
B. "Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells and can result in bone pain, fractures, and high levels of Bence Jones proteins in the urine."
44
A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Narrowing of the peripheral arteries due to atherosclerosis and plaque buildup.
B. Loss of vascular tone in the peripheral veins due to valve insufficiency.
C. Increased venous pressure leading to chronic venous insufficiency and varicose veins.
D. Increased blood viscosity resulting from excessive erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.
A. Narrowing of the peripheral arteries due to atherosclerosis and plaque buildup.
45
A nurse is caring for a patient with aortic stenosis. The nurse anticipates the patient will have which of the following symptoms related to the narrowing of the aortic valve?
A. Pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure.
B. Decreased blood flow to the brain, leading to confusion and syncope.
C. Right-sided heart failure symptoms such as peripheral edema and weight gain.
D. Decreased cardiac output resulting in hypoxia and cyanosis of the extremities.
B. Decreased blood flow to the brain, leading to confusion and syncope.
46
A nurse is assessing a patient with myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should anticipate which of the following findings based on the pathophysiology of MI?
A. Decreased levels of troponin and CK-MB.
B. Chest pain unrelieved by rest or nitroglycerin, radiating to the left arm or jaw.
C. A gradual increase in cardiac output with stable blood pressure and normal heart rate.
D. Sudden onset of deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged immobility.
B. Chest pain unrelieved by rest or nitroglycerin, radiating to the left arm or jaw.
47
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with septic shock. Which of the following physiological changes would most likely contribute to the development of septic shock in this patient?
A. Vasodilation due to bacterial endotoxins causing a decrease in systemic vascular resistance.
B. Excessive blood volume causing cardiac output to increase and tissue perfusion to improve.
C. Increased sympathetic nervous system activity leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure.
D. Decreased capillary permeability leading to fluid retention and edema in peripheral tissues.
A. Vasodilation due to bacterial endotoxins causing a decrease in systemic vascular resistance.
48
Supply of iron is inadequate to meet the demands of hemoglobin production
Iron-deficiency anemia
49
A nurse is caring for a patient in hypovolemic shock following significant blood loss. Which of the following compensatory mechanisms should the nurse anticipate in response to the decrease in circulating blood volume?
A. Increased heart rate and vasodilation to restore blood volume.
B. Decreased respiratory rate and vasoconstriction to improve tissue perfusion.
C. Increased release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone to retain fluid and increase blood volume.
D. Decreased heart rate and systemic vasodilation to reduce cardiac workload.
C. Increased release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone to retain fluid and increase blood volume.
50
A nurse is caring for a patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). Which of the following is the primary concern for the patient if the condition progresses to eclampsia?
A. Development of pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure.
B. Development of seizures and possible maternal and fetal death.
C. Increased risk for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
D. Development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) due to abnormal clotting mechanisms.
B. Development of seizures and possible maternal and fetal death.
51
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) who is preparing for an allogeneic bone marrow transplant. Which of the following is the rationale for this treatment option in CML?
A. To replace the leukemic bone marrow with healthy donor cells, improving prognosis and response to treatment.
B. To treat the Bence Jones proteins that have accumulated in the blood and urine.
C. To control the increased production of red blood cells and reduce hyperviscosity.
D. To decrease the number of blast cells and increase the production of normal leukocytes.
A. To replace the leukemic bone marrow with healthy donor cells, improving prognosis and response to treatment.
52
A 15-year-old female with a diagnosis of Turner syndrome presents with short stature, low-set ears, and a webbed neck. The nurse knows that individuals with Turner syndrome are at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Hemophilia and easy bruising.
B. Aortic dissection and coarctation of the aorta.
C. Autoimmune disorders like rheumatoid arthritis.
D. Increased risk of developing leukemia in early adulthood.
B. Aortic dissection and coarctation of the aorta.
53
A nurse is caring for a patient with Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following behavioral characteristics is most commonly seen in individuals with this genetic disorder?
A. Aggressive behavior and poor impulse control.
B. Severe developmental delays with absence of speech.
C. Social withdrawal and a tendency to avoid eye contact.
D. High intellectual ability with advanced language skills.
C. Social withdrawal and a tendency to avoid eye contact.
54
A 3-year-old male child is diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. Which of the following genetic characteristics is most likely to be observed in this patient?
A. An extra X chromosome in males resulting in XXY karyotype.
B. A fragile site on the X chromosome leading to an abnormal gene expression.
C. A deletion in the Y chromosome causing reduced testosterone levels.
D. A mutation in the p53 tumor suppressor gene resulting in rapid tumor growth.
B. A fragile site on the X chromosome leading to an abnormal gene expression.
55
A 10-year-old child with Turner syndrome is being evaluated for growth concerns. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be recommended to help increase the child’s height?
A. Growth hormone therapy to stimulate growth and improve final height outcomes.
B. Bone marrow transplantation to enhance the production of growth factors.
C. Androgen therapy to accelerate skeletal maturation.
D. Thyroid hormone replacement therapy to stimulate pituitary function.
A. Growth hormone therapy to stimulate growth and improve final height outcomes.
56
A nurse is caring for a patient with Polysomy X (Triple X syndrome). Which of the following is the most likely physical characteristic of this genetic disorder?
A. Short stature, webbed neck, and broad chest.
B. Tall stature with normal intelligence, but learning difficulties may be present.
C. Developmental delay and facial dysmorphism.
D. Congenital heart defects and infertility.
B. Tall stature with normal intelligence, but learning difficulties may be present.
57
A 20-year-old female with Polysomy X presents for a routine exam. The nurse should be aware that the patient may experience which of the following challenges related to this condition?
A. Increased risk of early onset of menopause and infertility.
B. Difficulty in motor coordination and physical developmental delays.
C. Intellectual disabilities and difficulty with language skills.
D. Mild learning disabilities and delayed speech development.
D. Mild learning disabilities and delayed speech development.
58
A nurse is educating a patient with Marfan syndrome about the genetic implications of the disorder. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates a correct understanding of the disorder?
A. "Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing collagen, leading to connective tissue abnormalities."
B. "The most common complication of Marfan syndrome is hearing loss due to abnormal ossicles in the middle ear."
C. "Individuals with Marfan syndrome typically have a shorter than average height and short limbs."
D. "People with Marfan syndrome are at low risk for cardiovascular problems, including aortic aneurysms."
A. "Marfan syndrome is caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for producing collagen, leading to connective tissue abnormalities."
59
A patient with Marfan syndrome is being evaluated for cardiovascular complications. Which of the following is the most concerning finding and requires immediate intervention?
A. Mild scoliosis with no signs of pain or discomfort.
B. Aortic root dilation or dissection, which can lead to life-threatening rupture.
C. Hypertension with a history of migraine headaches.
D. Mitral valve prolapse without significant regurgitation.
B. Aortic root dilation or dissection, which can lead to life-threatening rupture.
60
A nurse is caring for a newborn diagnosed with Turner syndrome. The nurse anticipates the newborn may present with which of the following characteristics at birth?
A. Microcephaly, seizures, and hyperreflexia.
B. Short neck, webbed skin on the neck, and lymphedema of the hands and feet.
C. High arched palate, broad forehead, and decreased muscle tone.
D. Absent thymus gland, severe immunodeficiency, and high risk for infections.
B. Short neck, webbed skin on the neck, and lymphedema of the hands and feet.
61
A 25-year-old female with Marfan syndrome presents with complaints of palpitations and chest pain. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be most appropriate to assess for complications associated with Marfan syndrome?
A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess for arrhythmias.
B. Echocardiogram to evaluate for aortic dilation or mitral valve prolapse.
C. Genetic testing for mutations in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene.
D. MRI of the brain to rule out aneurysms or hemorrhages.
B. Echocardiogram to evaluate for aortic dilation or mitral valve prolapse.
62
A nurse is reviewing the genetic disorder Fragile X syndrome with a group of nursing students. Which of the following is an X-linked dominant condition that typically manifests in males more severely than females due to the presence of only one X chromosome in males?
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
B. Hemophilia A.
C. Fragile X syndrome.
D. Rett syndrome.
C. Fragile X syndrome.
63
A nurse is caring for a patient with Marfan syndrome and notices a family history of similar skeletal and cardiovascular features. The nurse understands that Marfan syndrome is inherited in which manner?
A. X-linked recessive inheritance.
B. Autosomal dominant inheritance.
C. Autosomal recessive inheritance.
D. Mitochondrial inheritance.
B. Autosomal dominant inheritance.
64
A nurse is assessing a child with Turner syndrome. Which of the following is a common finding in the child’s early developmental stages?
A. Delayed motor development and speech delays.
B. Advanced bone age and early puberty.
C. Hyperactivity and impulsive behavior.
D. Overgrowth and rapid growth spurts.
A. Delayed motor development and speech delays.
65
A 5-year-old child with Turner syndrome is referred to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse should anticipate the need for which of the following treatments to improve growth potential in the child?
A. Estrogen therapy to induce puberty and promote growth.
B. Growth hormone therapy to address short stature.
C. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation to prevent bone loss.
D. Progesterone therapy to maintain menstrual regularity.
B. Growth hormone therapy to address short stature.
65
A nurse is counseling the family of a newborn diagnosed with Polysomy X (Triple X syndrome). Which of the following statements is the most accurate to share with the family?
A. "The child may experience developmental delays, but many children with this condition have normal intelligence."
B. "This condition often leads to severe intellectual disabilities and requires lifelong assistance with activities of daily living."
C. "Triple X syndrome is associated with a high risk of congenital heart defects and requires immediate cardiac evaluation."
D. "The condition is characterized by reduced growth and physical development, requiring extensive physical therapy."
A. "The child may experience developmental delays, but many children with this condition have normal intelligence."
66
A 6-month-old infant presents with developmental regression, hypotonia, and a cherry-red spot on the retina. The parents are concerned about their child's condition. Based on these findings, the nurse suspects a diagnosis of Tay-Sachs disease. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A leading to accumulation of GM2 ganglioside.
B. Lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase leading to a build-up of phenylalanine in the brain.
C. Deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase, leading to impaired glycogen metabolism.
D. Impaired absorption of vitamin B12 resulting in neurological damage.
A. Deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase A leading to accumulation of GM2 ganglioside.
67
A nurse is educating the parents of a child with Phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following dietary recommendations is essential for managing PKU and preventing intellectual disability?
A. Avoidance of dairy products and a low-protein diet with phenylalanine-free formulas.
B. Increased intake of protein-rich foods such as meats and legumes to support growth.
C. High intake of carbohydrates and fats to prevent energy deficits.
D. Inclusion of a variety of fruits and vegetables to improve overall nutrition.
A. Avoidance of dairy products and a low-protein diet with phenylalanine-free formulas.
68
A child with Tay-Sachs disease is being evaluated by the nurse. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
A. Normal development for the first few years of life, followed by progressive motor and cognitive regression.
B. Severe motor delays present from birth, with no periods of normal development.
C. Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and delayed speech development.
D. Mild cognitive deficits and short stature, with a good prognosis.
A. Normal development for the first few years of life, followed by progressive motor and cognitive regression.
69
A newborn is diagnosed with PKU based on abnormal screening results showing elevated phenylalanine levels. The nurse explains that untreated PKU can lead to which of the following complications?
A. Progressive vision loss and blindness.
B. Severe intellectual disability and developmental delay.
C. Increased risk of sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmias.
D. Progressive kidney failure and need for dialysis.
B. Severe intellectual disability and developmental delay.
70
A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease and presents with symptoms of motor weakness, loss of skills, and seizures. Which of the following is most characteristic of the pathophysiology of this condition?
A. Accumulation of fatty substances within neurons in the brain, leading to progressive neurological deterioration.
B. Decreased synthesis of neurotransmitters, resulting in abnormal electrical activity in the brain.
C. Impaired protein folding, leading to the accumulation of misfolded proteins in the cytoplasm.
D. Impaired mitochondrial function, leading to energy deficits in the brain cells.
A. Accumulation of fatty substances within neurons in the brain, leading to progressive neurological deterioration.
71
A nurse is caring for an infant with Tay-Sachs disease. Which of the following is a hallmark finding of this condition that may be observed during a physical examination?
A. A cherry-red spot on the retina of the eye.
B. An absence of the startle reflex.
C. Severe scoliosis and club feet.
D. A characteristic "butterfly" rash across the face.
A. A cherry-red spot on the retina of the eye.
72
A 5-year-old child with Tay-Sachs disease is experiencing a loss of motor skills, muscle weakness, and seizures. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention to support the child and family?
A. Educating the family about the progression of the disease and providing support for end-of-life care.
B. Encouraging the family to pursue a high-protein diet to support the child’s growth.
C. Administering enzyme replacement therapy to slow the disease’s progression.
D. Providing a detailed exercise regimen to maintain the child’s muscle strength.
A. Educating the family about the progression of the disease and providing support for end-of-life care.
73
A nurse is caring for a patient with PKU who has not been following a low-phenylalanine diet. The patient’s mother asks why it is so important for the child to adhere to the diet. The nurse should explain that excessive phenylalanine in the blood can lead to:
A. Progressive hearing loss and seizures.
B. A buildup of phenylketones in the brain, leading to irreversible intellectual disability.
C. Increased risk of cancers, particularly in the liver and kidneys.
D. Hyperglycemia and insulin resistance, which can lead to diabetes.
B. A buildup of phenylketones in the brain, leading to irreversible intellectual disability.
74
A nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory results and observes that the patient has coagulation abnormalities and necrotic tissue in several organs. The pathologist suggests that the tissue damage is caused by liquefactive necrosis. In which of the following conditions is liquefactive necrosis most commonly seen?
A. Myocardial infarction and ischemic injury to the heart.
B. Acute pancreatitis and brain tissue injury.
C. Chronic inflammation associated with tuberculosis.
D. Renal failure due to hypoperfusion.
B. Acute pancreatitis and brain tissue injury.
75
A patient presents with an area of necrosis in the brain, and the tissue is described as having a liquid consistency with a characteristic pus-like appearance. Which of the following types of necrosis is most likely present?
A. Caseous necrosis.
B. Fat necrosis.
C. Coagulative necrosis.
D. Liquefactive necrosis.
D. Liquefactive necrosis.
76
A patient has developed fat necrosis after pancreatic injury. On examination, the tissue appears chalky and firm, and the area is surrounded by an inflammatory response. What is the cause of fat necrosis in this case?
A. Activation of pancreatic enzymes leading to the digestion of adipose tissue.
B. Severe ischemic injury causing cellular apoptosis and tissue breakdown.
C. Bacterial invasion resulting in the liquefaction of cellular contents.
D. Severe hypoxia, leading to coagulation of tissue proteins.
A. Activation of pancreatic enzymes leading to the digestion of adipose tissue.
77
A 5-year-old child with PKU is referred to a genetic counselor for follow-up. Which of the following statements by the counselor is most accurate regarding the inheritance of PKU?
A. "PKU is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern, which means it primarily affects males."
B. "PKU is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, so only one affected parent is required to pass on the condition."
C. "PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning both parents must be carriers of the gene."
D. "PKU is inherited in a mitochondrial pattern, with the mother passing on the condition to all of her offspring."
C. "PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning both parents must be carriers of the gene."
78
The nurse is caring for a patient with coagulative necrosis due to myocardial infarction. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of coagulative necrosis?
A. The affected tissue becomes liquefied, with cells breaking down rapidly, leading to an abscess.
B. The tissue architecture is preserved for a period of time, but the cells within it undergo irreversible damage.
C. The fat cells in the tissue break down, causing the affected area to appear chalky and firm.
D. The tissue is replaced by scar tissue, and the affected area turns black and shriveled.
B. The tissue architecture is preserved for a period of time, but the cells within it undergo irreversible damage.
79
A nurse is caring for a 3-year-old child who has been diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. The parents are devastated by the diagnosis and ask the nurse about the prognosis. Which of the following is the most accurate information the nurse can provide regarding the prognosis for children with Tay-Sachs disease?
A. "Children with Tay-Sachs disease typically live into early adulthood, with some individuals maintaining normal cognitive and motor function."
B. "Tay-Sachs disease is a progressive condition that leads to death by the age of 4 or 5, with most children experiencing severe neurological regression."
C. "With early treatment, children with Tay-Sachs disease can live a normal lifespan with no significant cognitive impairment."
D. "Children with Tay-Sachs disease often improve with age, showing significant improvement in cognitive and motor development after 3 years."
B. "Tay-Sachs disease is a progressive condition that leads to death by the age of 4 or 5, with most children experiencing severe neurological regression."
80
A nurse is reviewing a pathologic specimen of tissue and notes that the tissue has been replaced by a firm, pale, and dry appearance due to loss of cellular integrity. Which type of necrosis is most consistent with this finding?
A. Fat necrosis.
B. Caseous necrosis.
C. Liquefactive necrosis.
D. Coagulative necrosis.
D. Coagulative necrosis.
81
A patient diagnosed with HIV presents to the clinic with a CD4 count of 300 cells/μL and a viral load of 500,000 copies/mL. The nurse knows that the patient is at risk for developing which of the following conditions associated with a progressive decline in immune function?
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
B. Hypertension and heart failure
C. Hepatic encephalopathy and cirrhosis
D. Acute renal failure and glomerulonephritis
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
Rationale: A CD4 count of 300 cells/μL indicates an immunocompromised state, putting the patient at risk for opportunistic infections such as Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP).
81
A 35-year-old female with HIV is beginning antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which of the following is the nurse’s priority teaching when starting this therapy?
A. "Be sure to take your medications on an empty stomach to increase absorption."
B. "Take your medication as prescribed and avoid missing doses to reduce the risk of drug resistance."
C. "You can stop taking the medication once your viral load becomes undetectable."
D. "You should only take the medication when you have symptoms of HIV to avoid side effects."
B. "Take your medication as prescribed and avoid missing doses to reduce the risk of drug resistance."
Rationale: Adherence to ART is critical to reducing the risk of drug resistance and improving viral suppression. Missing doses can lead to treatment failure and drug resistance.
82
A 29-year-old patient with HIV presents with severe weight loss, diarrhea, and fatigue. The healthcare provider orders tests to evaluate for wasting syndrome. Which of the following best describes this syndrome, which is commonly seen in patients with advanced HIV infection?
A. A condition characterized by sudden, severe fluid retention and pulmonary edema.
B. A syndrome involving the rapid onset of neurological symptoms, including confusion and agitation.
C. A significant loss of lean body mass, unintentional weight loss, and severe malnutrition.
D. A disorder characterized by chronic hyperglycemia and insulin resistance.
C. A significant loss of lean body mass, unintentional weight loss, and severe malnutrition.
Rationale: Wasting syndrome (also known as HIV-associated wasting) involves unintentional weight loss, loss of lean body mass, and malnutrition due to advanced HIV infection.
83
A nurse is caring for a patient who has tested positive for HIV. The patient expresses concerns about the possibility of transmitting the virus to their partner. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize to reduce transmission risk?
A. Advise the patient to consistently use condoms during sexual activity and discuss the possibility of pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for the partner.
B. Recommend that the patient engage in sexual activity only when their viral load is undetectable, as this completely eliminates the risk of transmission.
C. Suggest the patient avoid all sexual activity until their CD4 count improves to prevent transmission.
D. Encourage the patient to avoid taking antiretroviral medications, as they may cause harm to the partner.
A. Advise the patient to consistently use condoms during sexual activity and discuss the possibility of pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for the partner.
Rationale: Consistent condom use and discussing pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for the partner are effective strategies for reducing the risk of HIV transmission.
84
A 45-year-old male with HIV presents with confusion, fever, and a history of unprotected sex. The healthcare provider suspects cryptococcal meningitis. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely to be associated with this opportunistic infection?
A. Elevated white blood cell count with a left shift.
B. Positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture for Cryptococcus neoformans.
C. Increased CD4 count with a decrease in viral load.
D. Negative urine culture but a positive rapid HIV test.
B. Positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) culture for Cryptococcus neoformans.
Rationale: Cryptococcal meningitis is an opportunistic infection common in patients with advanced HIV, and it is diagnosed by identifying Cryptococcus neoformans in a CSF culture.
85
A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis and is experiencing severe, stabbing pain that radiates to the back. The nurse understands that this type of pain is most consistent with which of the following characteristics?
A. Visceral pain, due to organ inflammation and stretching of the visceral tissues.
B. Somatic pain, as a result of injury to superficial tissues such as the skin and muscles.
C. Neuropathic pain, caused by nerve damage or dysfunction.
D. Referred pain, as the sensation is experienced in a region distant from the site of injury.
A. Visceral pain, due to organ inflammation and stretching of the visceral tissues.
Rationale: Visceral pain is typically associated with deep, diffuse, and often poorly localized pain caused by the inflammation or stretching of internal organs, such as in acute pancreatitis.
86
A nurse is assessing a patient who reports burning pain in the legs, especially at night. The patient’s medical history includes diabetes mellitus. The nurse suspects the pain may be related to which condition?
A. Neuropathic pain due to nerve damage, commonly seen in diabetic neuropathy.
B. Somatic pain due to muscle strain and overuse.
C. Acute pain due to recent trauma.
D. Referred pain from a lumbar disc herniation.
A. Neuropathic pain due to nerve damage, commonly seen in diabetic neuropathy.
Rationale: Neuropathic pain is often described as burning, tingling, or shooting pain and can occur due to nerve damage, which is common in diabetic neuropathy.
87
A 58-year-old patient reports experiencing a sharp, localized pain in the lower abdomen after a recent surgical procedure. This pain is described as severe and is aggravated by movement. Which type of pain is most likely present in this patient?
A. Visceral pain
B. Somatic pain
C. Referred pain
D. Neuropathic pain
B. Somatic pain
Rationale: Somatic pain is typically sharp, localized, and often aggravated by movement. It arises from the skin, muscles, joints, or bones, as seen after surgical procedures.
87
A patient with a spinal cord injury reports a sensation of tingling and “pins and needles” in the lower extremities, despite no physical injury. The nurse suspects that this is most likely an example of which type of pain?
A. Visceral pain
B. Somatic pain
C. Neuropathic pain
D. Referred pain
C. Neuropathic pain
Rationale: Neuropathic pain occurs when there is nerve injury or dysfunction. The sensation of tingling and “pins and needles” is a classic description of neuropathic pain.
88
A 42-year-old patient is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction and complains of chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse understands that this is an example of which type of pain?
A. Somatic pain
B. Neuropathic pain
C. Visceral pain
D. Referred pain
D. Referred pain
Rationale: Referred pain occurs when pain is perceived in an area distant from its actual source. In the case of a myocardial infarction, pain often radiates from the chest to the left arm.
89
A patient is experiencing a constant, aching pain in the lower back that worsens with movement. After further assessment, the nurse concludes that the pain is likely due to musculoskeletal injury. Which type of pain is most consistent with this condition?
A. Neuropathic pain
B. Visceral pain
C. Somatic pain
D. Referred pain
C. Somatic pain
Rationale: Somatic pain is typically caused by injury to the skin, muscles, or bones. It is described as aching and localized, and it worsens with movement, as seen in musculoskeletal injuries.
90
A patient diagnosed with chronic liver disease complains of dull, persistent pain in the upper right abdomen that worsens after eating. The nurse understands this pain is most likely:
A. Visceral pain, due to the stretching and inflammation of the abdominal organs.
B. Neuropathic pain, caused by damage to the nerves in the abdominal area.
C. Somatic pain, resulting from trauma to the skin or muscles in the abdominal region.
D. Referred pain, as the pain is being felt in a location other than the liver.
A. Visceral pain, due to the stretching and inflammation of the abdominal organs.
Rationale: Visceral pain arises from internal organs and is often described as dull, aching, or cramp-like. It may worsen after meals due to increased abdominal pressure, as seen in chronic liver disease.
91
A 4-year-old child presents with recurrent ear infections and frequent respiratory illnesses. The pediatrician suspects a primary immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following findings would most likely support this diagnosis?
A. Absence of specific antibody production following vaccination
B. Low total white blood cell count but normal distribution of white blood cell types
C. Elevated eosinophil count with recurrent allergic reactions
D. Normal response to vaccines and occasional viral infections
A. Absence of specific antibody production following vaccination
## Footnote
Rationale: Primary immunodeficiency disorders are typically characterized by an inability to produce specific antibodies, leading to recurrent infections. A normal white blood cell count and elevated eosinophils suggest an allergic response, not an immunodeficiency.
92
A nurse is educating a pregnant woman about the impact of her immune system on the developing fetus. Which of the following best explains why the fetus is protected from certain infections during the first few months of life?
A. The fetal immune system begins producing antibodies in utero.
B. Maternal antibodies are transferred across the placenta, providing passive immunity.
C. The fetus has a fully developed immune system by 12 weeks gestation.
D. The infant's immune system is not functional until after birth, so infections cannot occur.
B. Maternal antibodies are transferred across the placenta, providing passive immunity.
## Footnote
Rationale: During pregnancy, maternal antibodies are transferred to the fetus through the placenta, providing passive immunity. This helps protect the infant during the early months of life while its own immune system continues to develop.
93
A 70-year-old patient is undergoing evaluation for a chronic illness and is found to have a diminished immune response. Which of the following age-related changes most likely contributes to this patient’s weakened immune response?
A. Decreased production of immunoglobulins
B. Hyperactivity of the thymus gland
C. Increased activity of the spleen in filtering pathogens
D. Heightened inflammatory response in the skin
A. Decreased production of immunoglobulins
## Footnote
Rationale: As people age, the immune system undergoes changes, including a decreased ability to produce immunoglobulins. This results in a less effective immune response to infections. The thymus gland also shrinks with age, reducing the production of T cells, but the decreased production of immunoglobulins is a major factor in weakened immunity.
94
A 65-year-old male with a history of smoking and hypertension presents with chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. An EKG shows ST elevation in the anterior leads. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Unstable angina
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
## Footnote
Rationale: The patient's history of smoking, hypertension, and the acute symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath, along with ST elevation on the EKG, strongly indicate a myocardial infarction (MI).
95
A patient is diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). Which of the following findings would be expected in this condition?
A. Reddened, warm lower extremities with visible veins
B. Cold, pale, and shiny skin with hair loss in the lower extremities
C. Warm, swollen lower extremities with ulcerations
D. Edematous feet with redness in the toes and a dull ache in the legs
B. Cold, pale, and shiny skin with hair loss in the lower extremities
## Footnote
Rationale: PVD is characterized by reduced blood flow to the lower extremities, resulting in cold, pale skin, shiny appearance, and hair loss. Edema and redness are more characteristic of venous insufficiency, not PVD.
96
A nurse is educating a patient on the risk factors for infective endocarditis. Which of the following is a major risk factor for this condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. A history of heart valve disease
D. Hyperlipidemia
C. A history of heart valve disease
## Footnote
Rationale: A history of heart valve disease (such as valvular stenosis or regurgitation) is a major risk factor for infective endocarditis, as damaged or abnormal valves provide a surface for bacterial adherence and infection.
97
A 70-year-old patient is admitted with a suspected ruptured aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is a primary risk factor for developing an aortic aneurysm?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Elevated cholesterol levels
C. Prolonged diabetes mellitus
D. History of hyperthyroidism
A. Chronic hypertension
## Footnote
Rationale: Chronic hypertension is the primary risk factor for aortic aneurysms, as it causes increased pressure on the vessel wall, leading to its weakening and potential rupture.
98
A patient diagnosed with pericarditis reports sharp, stabbing chest pain that worsens when inhaling. Which of the following findings would most likely be present upon examination?
A. Fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a friction rub
B. Hypertension, tachycardia, and distended jugular veins
C. Cyanosis, cool extremities, and edema
D. Shortness of breath, decreased breath sounds, and dullness to percussion
A. Fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a friction rub
## Footnote
Rationale: Pericarditis typically presents with sharp, stabbing chest pain that worsens with inspiration (pleuritic). A friction rub is often heard on auscultation, and fever may be present due to the inflammation of the pericardium.
99
A patient with infective endocarditis presents with signs of systemic embolization, including fever and a new murmur. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
A. Septic emboli from infected heart valves
B. Thrombus formation from decreased cardiac output
C. Embolism from aortic aneurysm rupture
D. Lymphatic obstruction causing fluid retention
A. Septic emboli from infected heart valves
## Footnote
Rationale: In infective endocarditis, bacteria adhere to damaged heart valves, leading to the formation of infected masses (vegetations) that can break off as septic emboli, traveling to various organs and causing systemic embolization.
100
A 55-year-old patient with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) presents with sudden severe chest pain that radiates to the left arm. The pain has been unrelieved by rest. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
A. Stable angina
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D. Pulmonary embolism
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
## Footnote
Rationale: The patient's history of CAD, combined with the sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the left arm and unrelieved by rest, strongly suggests an acute myocardial infarction (MI).
101
A patient with an aortic aneurysm is being monitored for signs of rupture. Which of the following symptoms is most indicative of an impending rupture?
A. Sudden, severe abdominal or chest pain and hypotension
B. Gradual, intermittent back pain and low-grade fever
C. Painless swelling in the lower extremities
D. Sudden onset of severe headache and visual changes
A. Sudden, severe abdominal or chest pain and hypotension
## Footnote
Rationale: Aortic aneurysm rupture is a life-threatening emergency, often presenting with sudden, severe pain (either in the chest or abdomen) and hypotension, which occurs due to blood loss.
102
A patient is diagnosed with infective endocarditis following a dental procedure. Which of the following interventions is critical in preventing further complications?
A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B. Immediate surgery to replace the affected valve
C. Initiation of anticoagulation therapy
D. Administration of antipyretics to control fever
A. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
## Footnote
Rationale: Broad-spectrum antibiotics are crucial to treating infective endocarditis caused by bacterial infections. Immediate surgery may be needed in severe cases, but antibiotics are the first-line treatment to control the infection.
103
A 75-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with a pulsatile abdominal mass and pain. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
C. Renal artery stenosis
D. Ruptured appendix
A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
## Footnote
Rationale: A pulsatile abdominal mass, especially in an older patient with hypertension, is most likely indicative of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), which occurs due to the weakening of the aortic wall.
104
Which of the following is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
a) Protein synthesis
b) Energy production
c) Storage of genetic information
d) Breakdown of toxic substances
b) Energy production
104
A patient is diagnosed with a neoplasm. Which characteristic of this neoplasm suggests it is malignant?
a) Slow, localized growth with well-differentiated cells
b) Rapid, metastatic growth with undifferentiated cells
c) Well-defined borders and slow growth
d) Encapsulated and non-invasive
b) Rapid, metastatic growth with undifferentiated cells
105
Which term describes the process in which cells become specialized for specific functions?
a) Differentiation
b) Hyperplasia
c) Atrophy
d) Metaplasia
a) Differentiation
106
Which of the following is characteristic of apoptosis?
a) A pathologic process leading to uncontrolled cell growth
b) The programmed "suicide" of cells without causing inflammation
c) A compensatory mechanism that prevents cell death
d) Necrosis resulting from external injuries like burns or trauma
b) The programmed "suicide" of cells without causing inflammation
107
Which of the following terms refers to a change in the genetic makeup of an individual caused by an environmental factor?
a) Genetic mutation
b) Multifactorial inheritance
c) Hereditary disorder
d) Chromosomal abnormality
b) Multifactorial inheritance
108
A patient presents with chronic pain that has lasted more than six months. Which type of pain is this classified as?
a) Acute pain
b) Intractable pain
c) Chronic pain
d) Neuropathic pain
c) Chronic pain
109
In which of the following stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome does the body mobilize resources to respond to a stressor?
a) Alarm stage
b) Resistance stage
c) Exhaustion stage
d) Recovery stage
a) Alarm stage
110
Which cellular response occurs when a cell swells and bursts due to an imbalance in osmotic pressure?
a) Lysis
b) Crenation
c) Apoptosis
d) Necrosis
a) Lysis
111
A patient's blood test reveals an elevated level of histamine. Which of the following conditions is most likely indicated?
a) Allergic reaction
b) Bacterial infection
c) Autoimmune disease
d) Viral infection
a) Allergic reaction
112
Which of the following types of gangrene is caused by Clostridium perfringens and can be fatal if untreated?
a) Wet gangrene
b) Dry gangrene
c) Gas gangrene
d) Caseous gangrene
c) Gas gangrene
