Exam 1 Flashcards
Production Calendar, Colostrum Management, Calf Nutrition, Calf Health and Diseases, Beef calf/herd problems, Herd fertility and pregnancy distribution, Vaccines and programs (71 cards)
1
Q
What is the cow/calf production cycle?
A
A sequence of activities/actions that need to be performed at specific times throughout the year in a well-managed herd.
2
Q
List key activities throughout the cow/calf production cycle.
A
- Calving (April 1)
- Breeding (June 21)
- Bulls Out (August 21)
- Weaning (November 1)
3
Q
What types of data can be collected during the production cycle?
A
- Pregnancy data
- Weaning weights
- Dystocia records
- Calf mortality
- BCS evaluations
- Vaccination records
- Reproductive efficiency measures
4
Q
Define the factors that influence beef herd profitability.
A
- Number and weight of calves weaned per 100 cows exposed
- Costs of feed
- Reproductive efficiency
- Culling decisions
5
Q
What role can a veterinarian play in enhancing cow-calf profitability?
A
- Enhancing reproductive efficiency
- Advising on nutrition
- Controlling disease
- Strategic culling
- Improving calf survival rates
6
Q
What are typical beef herd reproduction parameters?
A
- Pregnancy percentage
- Pregnancy distribution
- Fetal loss and stillbirth
- Perinatal, neonatal, and preweaned calf loss
7
Q
What is the target pregnancy rate for well-managed herds?
A
93-96%
8
Q
What is the acceptable range for perinatal deaths in beef herds?
A
1-3%
9
Q
What are the ideal conditions for colostrum management?
A
- IgG > 50 g/L
- Brix > 22%
- Feed 10-12% BW within first 2 hours
10
Q
Fill in the blank: Colostrum should be fed within _______ hours of birth.
A
2
11
Q
What are the acceptable environmental conditions for preweaned calves?
A
- Clean
- Dry
- Well-ventilated
- Thermoneutral zone (50-70°F)
12
Q
What is a standard level of morbidity in dairy calves?
A
Defined levels vary, but should be monitored closely.
13
Q
Describe the Sandhills Calving System.
A
A method to reduce pathogen exposure by separating cows by calving date.
14
Q
What are the common causes of calf scours?
A
- E. coli
- Rotavirus
- Coronavirus
- Cryptosporidium
- Salmonella
- Clostridium
15
Q
What is the primary treatment for calf scours?
A
Fluids (IV or oral) and continued milk feeding.
16
Q
What are the major risk factors for calf morbidity and mortality?
A
- Dystocia
- FPT (Failure of Passive Transfer)
- Environmental stress
- Overcrowding
- Poor sanitation
17
Q
How can veterinarians demonstrate herd performance to producers?
A
Using herd data analysis through methods like spreadsheets.
18
Q
What are the effects of dystocia on calf health?
A
- Increased risk of neonatal mortality
- Increased risk for infectious disease
19
Q
What is the target age for a heifer’s first calving?
A
22-23 months
20
Q
What are the causes of poor reproduction efficiency in beef herds?
A
- Failure to conceive
- Early embryonic death
- Abortion
- Stillbirth/Weak calf syndrome
21
Q
What is the target calf mortality rate preweaning?
A
<2%
22
Q
Fill in the blank: The typical pregnancy percentage for a well-managed beef herd is _______.
A
90-96%
23
Q
What are the acceptable levels of pre-weaning nutrition in dairy calves?
A
Calves should consume 2-3 lbs of starter feed per day.
24
Q
What is the recommended weight for replacement heifers at breeding?
A
60-65% of mature weight
25
What is a key feature of the Sandhills Calving System?
Isolating scouring calves from the herd after birth.
26
What does the acronym FPT stand for?
Failure of Passive Transfer
27
What is the impact of low maternal BCS on calf health?
Increases the risk of stillbirth and weak calves.
28
What is the role of biosecurity in reproductive management?
To reduce risk of pregnancy wastage through vaccination and segregation.
29
What is the significance of early supportive therapy during a scours outbreak?
Helps to maintain hydration and energy intake.
30
True or False: E. coli is a common cause of scours in calves less than 3 days old.
True
31
What is recommended for evaluating hydration status in calves?
Eye globe position and skin tent duration.
32
What is the target for calf deaths preweaning in a well-managed herd?
1-2%
33
What are the clinical signs indicative of calf scours?
Diarrhea, dehydration, lethargy.
34
Which pathogen is the most common cause of scours in calves <3 days old?
Escherichia coli (K99)
## Footnote
Other common pathogens include Rotavirus, Cryptosporidium, and Coronavirus.
35
What is the recommended method for evaluating hydration status in calves?
Eye globe position and skin tent duration
## Footnote
Other methods include serum protein concentration and fecal scoring system.
36
What is the most effective way to prevent Cryptosporidium outbreaks in dairy calves?
Sanitation and minimizing fecal-oral contact
## Footnote
Other options like vaccination of pregnant cows and routine antibiotic treatment are less effective.
37
Which oral rehydration product is best for treating a scouring calf?
One that contains acetate instead of bicarbonate
## Footnote
Products with sodium levels <50 mEq/L or no alkalinizing agents are less effective.
38
What is the most significant predictor of this year’s breeding season success?
Previous year’s calving distribution
## Footnote
Other factors include the number of bulls used and weather conditions at calving.
39
What is a major advantage of using pregnancy histograms?
They provide insight into reproductive performance trends
## Footnote
Other advantages include predicting dystocia risk and adjusting calf weaning dates.
40
Which calf scours prevention strategy directly reduces pathogen exposure?
Keeping calf groups separated by age
## Footnote
Delaying colostrum feeding increases bacterial contamination, which is counterproductive.
41
What biosecurity tool is most effective at preventing reproductive disease transmission in beef herds?
Test-and-removal for infected animals
## Footnote
Using AI for breeding and increasing bull-to-cow ratio are also considered.
42
What is the most cost-effective intervention to prevent dystocia in heifers?
Selecting heifer bulls with calving ease traits
## Footnote
Other options like feeding a high-energy diet prepartum are less effective.
43
Which vaccine is considered essential for preventing reproductive losses in beef cattle?
Leptospirosis + BVD
## Footnote
Clostridium perfringens Type C & D and Mannheimia haemolytica are also important vaccines.
44
What are the features of the ideal vaccine?
- Provides lifelong immunity with a single dose
- Prevents infection and clinical disease
- Safe with no adverse effects
- Cost-effective for widespread use
- Stable with minimal storage requirements
- Does not interfere with meat/milk quality or safety
- Stimulates both humoral and cellular immunity
- Can be used in pregnant animals and neonates
## Footnote
No single vaccine meets all criteria; trade-offs exist.
45
Which federal regulatory body is responsible for veterinary vaccine licensing?
USDA APHIS Center for Veterinary Biologics (CVB)
## Footnote
They ensure vaccines meet purity, safety, potency, and efficacy requirements.
46
What are the four requirements for a vaccine to acquire federal licensing?
- Purity: Free from contaminants
- Safety: No harmful reactions
- Potency: Meets standardized levels
- Efficacy: Demonstrates disease protection
## Footnote
Conditional licensure may be granted in emergency situations.
47
What factors affect a vaccine’s efficacy?
- Vaccine handling & storage
- Route of administration
- Animal health & nutrition
- Maternal antibody interference
- Timing & booster doses
## Footnote
For example, exposure to heat can inactivate vaccines.
48
What are the major differences between killed and modified live vaccines?
Killed/Inactivated: Dead, short-lasting immunity, safe for pregnant animals.
Modified Live: Live, longer-lasting immunity, can cause disease in pregnant animals
## Footnote
Killed vaccines require adjuvants; modified live vaccines do not.
49
What is Type I hypersensitivity in vaccine reactions?
Rapid allergic reaction (within minutes)
## Footnote
Signs include sweating, shaking, and difficulty breathing.
50
What is endotoxin stacking?
Accidental administration of multiple gram-negative vaccines at the same time
## Footnote
This can lead to excessive endotoxin exposure and inflammatory responses.
51
What are the key recommendations for injection sites in cattle vaccination?
- Preferred site: Neck region ONLY
- SQ is preferred if both IM and SQ are options
- Do NOT exceed 10 mL per injection site
- Space injections at least 4 inches apart
## Footnote
Avoid injecting into high-value meat cuts.
52
What are common clostridial pathogens in cattle?
- Clostridium chauvoei
- Clostridium septicum
- Clostridium sordellii
- Clostridium novyi (Type B)
- Clostridium haemolyticum (Type D)
- Clostridium perfringens (Types C & D)
- Clostridium tetani
## Footnote
Vaccines like 7-way and 8-way clostridial vaccines are available.
53
What are key viral respiratory pathogens in cattle?
- Bovine Herpesvirus-1 (BHV-1)
- Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus (BVDV)
- Parainfluenza-3 (PI-3)
- Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)
## Footnote
Common vaccines include MLV and killed vaccines.
54
What is the general vaccination protocol for neonatal diarrheal diseases?
- Cows: 6-8 weeks pre-calving
- Calves: Oral vaccine at birth (if dam was not vaccinated)
## Footnote
Common pathogens include E. coli (K99) and Rotavirus.
55
What factors should be considered when designing a vaccination protocol?
- Herd Type & Production Goals
- Disease Risk
- Animal Age & Stage
- Vaccine Type
- Timing & Handling
## Footnote
BQA guidelines and regulatory considerations are also important.
56
What is included in the Clostridial vaccine?
7-way or 8-way Clostridial vaccine
57
When should the MLV 5-way booster be administered?
2 weeks pre-weaning
58
What additional vaccines may be considered during the booster before weaning?
* Clostridial vaccine booster
* Mannheimia haemolytica
* Pasteurella multocida (e.g., One Shot Ultra 8)
59
What vaccinations are recommended for replacement heifers pre-breeding (12-14 months)?
* MLV 5-way (IBR, BVDV Type I & II, BRSV, PI-3)
* Lepto 5-way + Vibriosis
* Clostridial vaccine
* Brucellosis (RB51, administered by accredited vet if required)
60
What is the timing for the scour vaccine for replacement heifers?
Pre-calving (~2 months pre-partum)
61
What vaccines should cows receive approximately 30 days prior to breeding?
* MLV 5-way or killed 5-way (IBR, BVDV Type I & II, BRSV, PI-3)
* Lepto 5-way + Vibriosis
* Clostridial vaccine
62
What type of vaccine is recommended for pregnant cows during pregnancy check?
Killed 5-way vaccine
63
What vaccinations are included in the pre-calving protocol for cows (~45 days prior)?
* Scour vaccine
* Clostridial vaccine
64
What vaccinations should bulls receive pre-breeding (~30 days prior)?
* MLV 5-way
* Lepto 5-way + Vibriosis
* Clostridial vaccine
* +/- Trichomoniasis vaccine (if used in natural service)
65
What is the first vaccination for calves at birth?
* Intranasal respiratory vaccine (Inforce 3)
* Clostridial vaccine (7-way)
* +/- E. coli K99 (if scours is a concern)
66
What vaccinations should calves receive at weaning (~2-4 months)?
* MLV 5-way
* Clostridial vaccine
* Lepto 5-way
67
What vaccinations are recommended for replacement heifers pre-calving?
* Clostridial vaccine
* Scour vaccine
* Coliform mastitis vaccine (e.g., J5 bacterin)
68
What is the vaccination protocol for cows during dry-off (~60 days pre-calving)?
* J5 Coliform mastitis vaccine
* Lepto 5-way booster
* Clostridial vaccine
* Scour vaccine
69
What is the protocol for lactating cows approximately 90 days in milk?
J5 Coliform mastitis vaccine booster
70
What are the key considerations for vaccination protocol design?
* Herd Type: Beef vs. dairy, breeding vs. feeder stock
* Disease Risk: Regional prevalence, previous herd history
* Vaccine Type: MLV vs. killed; intranasal vs. injectable
* Timing & Handling: Proper storage, avoiding stress during administration
* Regulatory Compliance: Brucellosis vaccination, withdrawal times
* Economic Considerations: Cost-benefit analysis for herd health management
71
True or False: Adjustments to vaccination protocols should be based on herd-specific disease risks and management goals.
True
