Exam 1 Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
What does Practical Orientation assess in inpatient units?
A
Level of preparation for leaving and for the future, career training, and setting goals
Practical Orientation evaluates how well patients are prepared for life after treatment.
2
Q
Define Personal Problem Orientation.
A
Extent to which patients are encouraged to be concerned with their feelings and problems and to seek to understand them by talking openly
It emphasizes the importance of self-reflection and communication in therapy.
3
Q
What does the Anger and Aggression assessment measure?
A
Extent to which a patient is allowed and encouraged to argue with patients and staff, become openly angry, and display expressions of anger
This examines the freedom of emotional expression within the therapeutic environment.
4
Q
What is assessed under Involvement in inpatient units?
A
How active and energetic patients are in day-to-day social functioning, including patient attitudes like pride in the ward and general enthusiasm
Involvement reflects the engagement level of patients within the therapeutic community.
5
Q
What does Support refer to in the context of inpatient units?
A
How helpful and supportive patients are toward others and how well staff understand patient needs and encourage them
Support is crucial for fostering a positive therapeutic environment.
6
Q
Define Spontaneity in inpatient settings.
A
Extent to which the environment encourages patients to act openly and express their feelings
A spontaneous environment can enhance emotional expression and authenticity.
7
Q
What does Autonomy assess in patients?
A
How self-sufficient and independent patients are encouraged to be in their personal affairs and relationships with staff, including responsibility and self-direction
Autonomy promotes personal growth and decision-making skills.
8
Q
What is Effective Use of Space in inpatient units?
A
Adequate space that allows for privacy and socialization, including flexible use of space and adequate storage
The physical environment significantly impacts therapy and patient interaction.
9
Q
List key aspects of limit-setting in inpatient units.
A
- Identify need for limit
- Communicate expected behavior
- State limit
- Communicate need for limit
- Enforce limits equitably
- Explore client feelings about limit
- Evaluate effectiveness of limits
Effective limit-setting is crucial for maintaining a therapeutic environment.
10
Q
What are the Basic Assumptions of milieu therapy?
A
- Each individual is encouraged to grow
- Every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention
- The client owns his or her environment
- Each client owns his or her behavior
- Peer pressure is a useful and powerful tool
- Inappropriate behaviors are dealt with as they occur
- Restrictions and punishment are to be avoided
These assumptions guide the therapeutic approach in inpatient settings.
11
Q
What can clients in a therapeutic community do?
A
- Constructively influence their own treatment
- Support the treatment of others
- Provide emotional support for other patients
- Offer feedback to other patients
- Participate in unit activities and organization
- Share responsibility for some overall decision-making and management of the unit
Active participation enhances the therapeutic experience for all clients.
12
Q
Define Milieu Therapy.
A
A scientific structuring of the environment to effect behavioral changes and to improve the psychological health and functioning of the individual
Milieu therapy emphasizes the importance of the environment in the therapeutic process.
13
Q
What are the steps in ethical decision-making?
A
- Gathering information
- Clarifying values
- Identifying options
- Identifying legal considerations and practical restraints
- Building consensus for decision reached
- Reviewing and analyzing decision
These steps guide professionals in making informed ethical choices in their practices.
14
Q
What is an ethical dilemma?
A
Conflict of ethical principles with no one clear course of action
Ethical dilemmas often arise in mental health settings, particularly involving patient autonomy and utilitarianism.
15
Q
What is the duty to warn in mental health?
A
Exception to patient’s right to confidentiality
Nurses must report and document client statements of threats, with decisions made by qualified mental health professionals.
16
Q
What is a Sexual Assault Nurse Examiner (SANE)?
A
An RN trained to care for patients who have experienced sexual trauma
SANE nurses must be open to diverse experiences and willing to learn new techniques.
17
Q
What are unintentional torts?
A
- Negligence
- Malpractice
These involve wrongful acts that result in injury or damage without intent to cause harm.
18
Q
What are the elements to prove malpractice?
A
- Duty
- Breach of duty
- Injury or damage
- Causation
Each element must be established to prove a case of malpractice.
19
Q
What is the definition of restraint?
A
Direct application of physical force to a person without permission
Restraints are only permitted when necessary for safety.
20
Q
What is seclusion?
A
Involuntary confinement in a locked room for monitoring
Seclusion must be used only when necessary and for the shortest time possible.
21
Q
What are the patient rights regarding the least restrictive environment?
A
- Right to treatment in the least restrictive environment
- Free from restraint or seclusion unless necessary
Patient rights must be preserved in mental health settings.
22
Q
What is voluntary hospitalization?
A
Right to request discharge at any time unless danger is present
Patients can be released unless they pose a risk to themselves or others.
23
Q
What is involuntary hospitalization?
A
Admission due to risk of harm to self or others
This may include emergency involuntary admission and requires legal processes.
24
Q
What is mandated outpatient treatment?
A
Continued involuntary treatment after release
This includes taking prescribed medications and attending follow-up appointments.
25
What are intentional torts?
* Assault
* Battery
* False imprisonment
## Footnote
These involve willful acts that cause harm or injury.
26
What are the three elements to prove liability in intentional torts?
* Willful, voluntary act
* Intention to bring about consequences or injury
* Act was a substantial factor in injury
## Footnote
Establishing these elements is crucial for cases involving intentional torts.
27
What are ethical principles in nursing?
* Beneficence: do good
* Nonmaleficence: do no harm
* Veracity: be honest
* Autonomy: self-determination
* Fidelity: honor commitments
* Justice: fairness
## Footnote
These principles guide ethical nursing practice.
28
What is Mental Health?
A dynamic, ever-changing state characterized by the ability to think rationally, communicate appropriately, and cope effectively with normal stress
## Footnote
Includes emotional growth, resilience, and healthy self-esteem.
29
What is Mental Illness?
Disorders with specific symptom constellation as outlined in the DSM 5 TR, causing significant dysfunction in mood, cognition, and behavior
## Footnote
Defined by the American Psychiatric Association.
30
What factors affect Mental Health?
* Individual factors: genetic inheritance, biological make-up, individual temperament, personality
* Interpersonal factors: communication effectiveness, ability to establish relationships
* Social/cultural factors: peer group, culture/ethnic norms, broader societal norms
31
What is the purpose of the DSM 5 TR?
To standardize nomenclature and language, emphasize characteristics or symptoms, and assist in identifying underlying causes of disorders
32
What is the Diathesis-Stress Model?
A model explaining that many psychiatric disorders result from a combination of genetic vulnerability (diathesis) and environmental stressors (stress)
33
Who began the asylum movement in the 1800s?
Dorothea Dix
34
What is the significance of the Community Mental Health Act of 1963?
It marked the deinstitutionalization movement to provide community-based care for mental health
35
Define Basic Level Psychiatric Nursing Practice.
Generalist practice requiring certification as psychiatric mental health registered nurse (PMH-RN) after 2 years of full-time work, 2000 clinical hours, and 30 hours of continuing education
36
What are the advanced-level functions of psychiatric nursing?
* Psychotherapy
* Prescriptive authority for drugs
* Consultation and liaison
* Evaluation
* Program development, management
* Clinical supervision
37
Fill in the blank: The first American psychiatric nurse was _______.
Linda Richards
38
What is the role of Psychiatric Mental Health Nurses?
Promote mental health through assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of behavioral and mental disorders
39
Why is self-reflection important in psychiatric nursing?
It helps recognize one's own feelings, beliefs, and attitudes, and accept differences in clients
40
What are the ultimate goals of psychosocial theories and therapies?
To be able to predict behavior and to be able to change behavior
41
Name three components of Freud's personality structure.
* Id
* Ego
* Superego
42
What is the pleasure principle associated with in Freud's theory?
Id
43
What is the primary function of the ego according to Freud?
Problem solver and reality tester
44
What term describes Freud's concept of repressed sexual impulses as motivation for behavior?
Unconscious wishes and fears
45
True or False: Defense mechanisms operate on a conscious level.
False
46
Fill in the blank: Freud’s theory includes the notion that dreams are the _______.
royal road to the unconscious
47
What are the stages in Freud's Psychosexual Stages of Development?
* Oral: birth to 18 months
* Anal: 18-36 months
* Phallic/oedipal: 3 to 5 years
* Latency: 5 to 11 years
* Genital: 11 to 13 years
48
What is the impact of fixation in Freud's psychosexual stages?
Problems arise when fixated (failure to transition to next level)
49
What are Erikson's first two stages of psychosocial development?
* Trust vs. mistrust (0-1.5 years)
* Autonomy vs. shame-doubt (1.5-3 years)
50
What does Piaget's Cognitive Developmental Theory include?
* Sensorimotor stage
* Preoperational stage
* Concrete operational stage
* Formal operational stage
51
Who developed the concept of the Therapeutic community or milieu?
Harry Stack Sullivan
52
What is the focus of Hildegard Peplau's theory in nursing?
Importance of interpersonal interactions and the therapeutic relationship
53
What are the four levels of anxiety according to Peplau?
* Mild
* Moderate
* Severe
* Panic
54
What is the main assertion of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
Psychology must include love, compassion, happiness, exhilaration, and well-being
55
Fill in the blank: Carl Rogers emphasized _______ in client-centered therapy.
unconditional positive regard
56
What is the primary focus of Gestalt Therapy?
Here and now issues
57
What is Logotherapy and who developed it?
Search for meaning developed by Viktor Frankl
58
What is the focus of Behaviorism?
Observable behaviors, not on how the mind works
59
Who is associated with classical conditioning?
Ivan Pavlov
60
What is the main idea behind B.F. Skinner's operant conditioning?
All behavior is learned and has consequences
61
What is positive reinforcement?
Increases frequency of behavior
62
Fill in the blank: Continuous reinforcement is the fastest way to increase _______.
behavior
63
What are some behavioral treatment modalities?
* Behavior modification
* Positive reinforcement
* Negative reinforcement
* Token economy
* Systematic desensitization
64
What is the focus of Cognitive Behavior Therapy?
Patterns of thought and their influence on emotion & behavior
65
What does Rational Emotive Therapy aim to challenge?
Distorted beliefs
66
Fill in the blank: Thoughts about the world are based on our own unique _______.
perspectives
67
What are the four stages of crisis?
* Exposure to stressor
* Increased anxiety when usual coping ineffective
* Increased efforts to deal with stressor
* Disequilibrium, significant distress
68
What is the typical duration of a crisis?
Usually 4 to 6 weeks
69
What are the possible outcomes of crisis resolution?
* Client functioning at precrisis level
* Higher level (enhanced coping)
* Lower level (maladaptive coping)
70
What are the two types of crisis intervention techniques?
* Directive, active interventions
* Supportive interventions
71
What do directive, active interventions focus on?
Assessing health status and promoting problem-solving
72
What do supportive interventions address?
The person’s needs for empathy and understanding
73
What is the primary goal of individual psychotherapy?
Bringing about change by exploring feelings, attitudes, thinking, and behavior
74
What is the key relationship in individual psychotherapy?
One-to-one relationship between therapist and client
75
What influences the style of therapy in individual psychotherapy?
Therapist’s theoretical beliefs
76
What defines group therapy?
Two or more people gathering to accomplish tasks requiring cooperation
77
What must be paid attention to in group therapy?
* Group Content (topics, themes)
* Group Process (how members interact)
78
What are the two types of group leadership?
* Informal leader
* Formal leader
79
What is the focus of effective group leaders?
Both group process and group content
80
What are the three leadership styles in group therapy?
* Authoritarian
* Authoritative (democratic)
* Laissez-faire (permissive)
81
What are some growth-producing roles in a group?
* Information seeker
* Opinion seeker
* Information giver
* Energizer
* Coordinator
* Harmonizer
* Encourager
* Elaborator
82
What are some growth inhibiting roles in a group?
* Monopolizer
* Aggressor
* Dominator
* Critic
* Recognition seeker
* Passive follower
* Silent
* Withholding
83
What is involved in the pregroup stage of group planning?
* Determine purpose and membership
* Open versus closed membership
* Membership (homogeneous or heterogeneous)
* Time, place, length, end dates
* Rules of conduct
84
What is the focus of the initial stage of group development?
Developing trust and group identity ('we')
85
What occurs during the working stage of group therapy?
Focus on task and development of cohesiveness
86
What happens during the termination stage of group therapy?
Wrap up and review of the group experience
87
What are some curative factors in groups according to Yalom?
* Interpersonal learning
* Catharsis
* Instillation of hope
* Universality
* Imparting of information
* Altruism
* Corrective recapitulation of primary family group
* Development of socializing skills
* Group cohesiveness
* Existential resolution
88
What are some therapeutic results of group therapy?
* New information or learning
* Inspiration or hope
* Interaction with others
* Feeling of acceptance and belonging
* Awareness of not being alone
* Insight into problems and behaviors
89
What are the different types of therapy groups?
* Psychotherapy groups
* Family therapy
* Family education
* Education groups
* Support groups
* Self-help groups
90
What is complementary medicine?
Used with conventional practices
91
What is alternative medicine?
Used in place of conventional treatment
92
What does integrative medicine combine?
Conventional and CAM practices
93
What are some types of therapies in CAM?
* Alternative medical systems
* Mind–body interventions
* Biologically based therapies
* Energy therapies
94
What is the focus of psychiatric rehabilitation?
Ongoing services for individuals with chronic mental illness
95
What is important in planning community support programs?
Client’s participation
96
True or False: No one theory or treatment approach is effective for all clients.
True
97
What increases a nurse’s effectiveness in psychosocial approaches?
Using a variety of psychosocial approaches
98
Whose feelings and perceptions are most influential in determining response?
The client’s
99
What are the historical roots of asylums?
Roots in the Civil War era
100
When was the first antipsychotic medication introduced?
1950s
101
What therapeutic approach became popular in the 1950s?
Freudian analysis and the 'talking cure'
102
What significant change occurred in psychiatric care funding in the 1960s?
Medicare and Medicaid had no funding for psychiatric care
103
What was the Olmstead Decision of 1999?
Deinstitutionalization leading to quicker discharges
104
How many state psychiatric hospitals existed in 1950 compared to 2016?
322 in 1950; 195 in 2016
105
What is emphasized in current psychiatric care settings?
Community and outpatient settings
106
What is the need for a continuum of service intensity?
From involuntary inpatient to self-help
107
What are the key components of inpatient psychiatric care?
* Rapid assessment
* Stabilization of symptoms
* Discharge planning
108
What approach is taken for short-stay clients in inpatient care?
Client-centered multidisciplinary approach
109
What are Partial Hospitalization Programs designed to achieve?
Stabilizing psychiatric symptoms and improving skills
110
List the eight broad categories of goals in Partial Hospitalization Programs.
* Stabilizing psychiatric symptoms
* Monitoring medication effectiveness
* Stabilizing living environment
* Improving skills in ADLs
* Constructive use of leisure time
* Developing and practicing social skills
* Linking to meaningful work or volunteering
* Follow-up of health concerns
111
What types of community-based residential settings exist?
* Group homes
* Supervised apartments
* Board and care homes
* Adult foster care
* Respite/crisis housing
* Transitional housing
112
What is the expectation for clients in transitional housing?
Progress to independent living
113
What barriers exist regarding group homes and residential facilities?
Zoning regulations and NIMBY attitudes
114
What is the focus of psychiatric rehabilitation and recovery programs?
Promote recovery beyond symptom control
115
What rights are guaranteed in the Clubhouse Model?
* A place to come to
* Meaningful work
* Meaningful relationships
* A place to return to (lifetime membership)
116
What is the key focus of the Assertive Community Treatment (ACT) model?
Community-based training in living
117
What are the characteristics of the multidisciplinary team in ACT?
* Intensive case management
* Problem-solving orientation
* Direct provision of service
118
What is telepsychiatry?
Virtual visits via ICT
119
Why is telepsychiatry particularly helpful?
* For rural and isolated individuals
* For clients concerned about stigma
120
What is a major concern regarding telepsychiatry?
Access to technology and knowing how to use it
121
What is the PATH program?
Projects for Transitions from Homelessness
122
What is the estimated rate of mental illness among incarcerated individuals?
Five times higher than the general population
123
What are some barriers to successful community reintegration?
* Poverty
* Homelessness
* Substance use
* Violence
* Victimization
* Self-harm
124
What is the prevalence of PTSD and major depression among active military and veterans?
Greater than their civilian counterparts
125
List common issues faced by active military and veterans.
* Suicide
* Homicide
* Injury
* Physical illness
* Sleep disorders
* Substance abuse
* Marital and family dysfunction
126
What are some additional concerns for military and veterans regarding treatment?
* Reluctance to seek treatment
* Reluctance to talk about experiences
* Stigmatization
127
Who are included in interdisciplinary teams for mental health?
* Pharmacist
* Psychiatrist
* Psychologist
* Psychiatric nurse
* Psychiatric social worker
* Occupational therapist
* Recreation therapist
* Vocational rehabilitation specialist
128
What core skills are essential for the mental health team?
* Interpersonal skills
* Knowledge base
* Communication skills
* Personal qualities
* Teamwork skills
* Risk assessment and management skills
129
What are the three levels of prevention in mental health?
* Primary prevention
* Secondary prevention
* Tertiary prevention
130
Fill in the blank: Primary prevention aims to _______ before it starts.
[stop the problem]
131
Fill in the blank: Secondary prevention focuses on early _______ and treatment.
[identification]
132
What is a key issue regarding self-awareness in mental health treatment?
Respect for clients’ autonomy in decision-making
133
What shift is noted in service provision for mental health?
From hospital-based goals to client-centered goals
134
What frustration is commonly experienced by mental health professionals?
Working with clients having persistent and severe mental illness
135
What is self-concept?
Personal worth and dignity, description of own physical characteristics/body image, emotions the client frequently experiences
## Footnote
Self-concept is a crucial aspect of an individual's identity and how they perceive themselves.
136
What are the key areas of roles and relationships in psychosocial assessment?
Current roles and ability to fulfill them, changes in roles, satisfaction with relationships, online activity/social media
## Footnote
Understanding an individual's roles and relationships can provide insight into their social support and functioning.
137
What are the components of speech assessment?
Quantity (rate, degree of elaboration), Quality (volume, rhythm, prosody, articulation, pressured, blocked)
## Footnote
Speech assessment helps in evaluating the communication abilities and mental status of the client.
138
What should be included in the general appearance assessment?
Hygiene and grooming, chronological age, dress, posture, muscle tension, agitation/psychomotor retardation, gestures, mannerisms, eye contact
## Footnote
The general appearance provides important nonverbal cues about the client's mental state.
139
What are some techniques for therapeutic communication?
Complete introductions, open-ended questions, closed-ended questions
## Footnote
Effective communication is essential for building rapport and gathering accurate information during assessments.
140
True or False: Closed-ended questions are preferred when the client is confused or in crisis.
True
## Footnote
Closed-ended questions provide clear, specific information which can be crucial in high-stress situations.
141
What factors should be considered in the interview environment?
Comfortable, private, physically and psychologically safe, quiet with few distractions
## Footnote
A conducive environment promotes open communication and honest responses from the client.
142
What is the difference between mood and affect?
Mood is the client's internal emotional state; affect is the outward expression of emotion
## Footnote
Distinguishing between mood and affect helps in understanding the client's emotional experience.
143
Name the types of affect.
Flat, Blunted, Restricted, Broad, Expansive, Inappropriate
## Footnote
These categories describe the range and appropriateness of emotional expression in clients.
144
What are some types of thought processes?
Circumstantial thinking, Delusion, Flight of ideas, Ideas of reference, Loose associations, Tangential thinking, Thought broadcasting, insertion, blocking, withdrawal, Word salad
## Footnote
Understanding thought processes is vital for identifying potential mental health issues.
145
What should be assessed under physiological and self-care considerations?
Eating habits, sleep patterns, major or chronic health problems, use of drugs and/or alcohol, noncompliance with prescribed medications
## Footnote
These factors can significantly impact a client's mental health and treatment outcomes.
146
What is the purpose of the psychosocial assessment?
Establish rapport and trust, picture of client’s current emotional state, understand current problem, evaluate physical status, assess risk factors, perform mental status exam, assess psychosocial status, identify mutual goals, formulate a plan of care
## Footnote
A comprehensive psychosocial assessment guides the treatment process and ensures client-centered care.
147
Fill in the blank: The mental status exam provides a snapshot of current _______.
[functioning]
## Footnote
This assessment helps in evaluating cognitive and emotional states.
148
What does the assessment of cognitive processes include?
Orientation, memory, ability to concentrate, abstract thinking, insight, abnormal sensory experiences, ability to follow commands, ability to copy drawings
## Footnote
These components help in determining cognitive functioning and possible impairments.
149
What should be considered in risk and safety assessments?
Harmful to self, suicide assessment, pattern of high-risk behavior, harmful to others, threats, intensity, immediacy, means
## Footnote
Risk assessments are critical to ensuring the safety of clients and others.
150
What factors influence the assessment process?
Client’s ability to understand, willingness to participate, physical health status, expectations, prior experiences, perceptions of the nurse
## Footnote
These factors can affect the accuracy and effectiveness of the assessment.
151
What aspects of cultural considerations should be included in assessments?
Client’s understanding of the problem, acceptable solutions, spiritual beliefs
## Footnote
Cultural competence is essential in providing effective and respectful care.
152
What is bereavement?
Process of mourning and coping with the loss of a loved one beginning immediately after the loss but possibly lasting months or years.
153
What are the types of bereavement?
* Uncomplicated Bereavement
* Complicated Bereavement
154
What characterizes uncomplicated bereavement?
Normal grieving process without prolonged or complicated symptoms.
155
What is traumatic grief?
Grief resulting from suddenness, violence, or preventability of death.
156
What is bereavement overload?
Multiple deaths occurring close together, leading to heightened grief.
157
What is complicated bereavement?
Frozen in a state of chronic mourning lasting more than 1 to 6 months.
158
What are Rando’s six Rs of grieving?
* Recognize
* React
* Recollect and reexperience
* Relinquish
* Readjust
* Reinvest
159
What are Worden's tasks of grieving?
* Accept reality of the loss
* Work through pain of grief
* Adjust to changed environment due to loss
* Emotionally relocate loss and move on
160
What are the stages of loss according to Horowitz?
* Outcry
* Denial and intrusion
* Working through
* Completion
161
What are Engel's stages of grieving?
* Shock and disbelief
* Developing awareness
* Restitution
* Resolution of the loss
* Recovery
162
What does Bowlby's phases of grieving include?
* Numbness and denial of loss
* Emotional yearning for the lost loved one
* Cognitive disorganization and emotional despair
* Reorganization and reintegration
163
What are common cultural considerations in bereavement for Chinese Americans?
* Strict norms for announcing death
* Preparing body and arranging funeral
* Mourning practices including bowls of food for 1 year
164
What is disenfranchised grief?
Grief over loss that is not openly acknowledged, mourned publicly, or supported socially.
165
What are some symptoms of complicated grieving?
* Prolonged emotional void
* Disproportionate expressions of grief
* Maladaptive thoughts and behaviors
166
What risk factors contribute to complicated grieving?
* Low self-esteem
* Previous psychiatric disorders
* Sudden, unexpected death
* Death of a spouse or child
167
What is the role of a hospice nurse in bereavement?
* Compassionate and caring
* Detail-oriented
* Emotionally resilient
* Good at discerning when to listen
168
What are the five stages of grieving according to Kübler-Ross?
* Denial
* Anger
* Bargaining
* Depression
* Acceptance
169
What are dimensions of grieving?
* Cognitive responses
* Emotional responses
* Spiritual responses
* Behavioral responses
* Physiological responses
170
What is anticipatory grieving?
Process where individuals facing an imminent loss begin to deal with the possibility of loss or death.
171
What are the critical elements of evidence-based nursing care for grieving persons?
* Mental health assessment
* Physical health needs
* Emotional and behavioral responses
* Social functioning and support
172
What are some cultural practices of mourning for Hispanic Americans?
* Novena (9-day devotion)
* Rosary
* Wearing black or black and white clothing
173
Fill in the blank: The first step of the Muslim burial procedure involves _______.
[traditional washing of the body by a Muslim of the same gender]
174
What is the importance of a therapeutic relationship in bereavement care?
Critical for the bereaved person, involving a calm, empathic approach and active listening.
175
What are the needs of a client's family during bereavement?
Acculturation and ensuring cultural rituals are observed.
176
True or False: Grieving is a uniform experience across all cultures.
False.
177
What should be avoided when supporting a grieving person?
Giving reassurance that everything will be fine.
178
What are symptoms of grief that may indicate the need for professional support?
* Thoughts of suicide
* Evident depression
* Prolonged grief reactions
179
What is community-based care?
A healthcare approach focusing on effective management of comorbid conditions and regular follow-up appointments
180
What are key components of effective management of comorbid conditions?
Compliance with prescribed medication and participation in community support programs
181
What is the purpose of anger management groups?
Help patients express their feelings and learn problem-solving and conflict-resolution techniques
182
True or False: Anger is an abnormal emotion that should not be expressed.
False
183
What should nurses be aware of regarding self-awareness issues?
Own management of anger and the need to practice restraint/seclusion before using
184
What is expected from leadership in managing workplace hostility?
New standards of leadership and a code of conduct defining acceptable and unacceptable behaviors
185
What is the process for managing disruptive behavior?
Education on expected professional behavior and zero tolerance for unacceptable actions
186
What are de-escalation techniques?
Methods to calm a situation and reduce aggression
187
What should a nurse assess during the nursing process?
Factors influencing aggression in the psychiatric environment
188
What are the phases of aggression?
Triggering, escalation, crisis, recovery, post-crisis
189
What are common medications used for managing aggressive behavior?
* Lithium
* Carbamazepine or valproate
* Atypical antipsychotics
* Benzodiazepines
* Haloperidol and lorazepam
190
In the triggering phase, how should a nurse approach a patient?
In a nonthreatening, calm manner and convey empathy
191
What should be done during the escalation phase of aggression?
Take control and provide directions in a firm, calm voice
192
What should a nurse do in the post-crisis phase?
Calmly discuss behavior and give feedback for regaining control
193
What is the goal of the nursing process during aggressive behavior management?
Teach patients to express feelings verbally and safely
194
Fill in the blank: Anger is a normal human emotion that results when a person is _______.
[frustrated, hurt, or afraid]
195
What are cultural considerations in managing aggression?
Cultural views affect expression of anger and may involve culture-bound syndromes
196
What is hostility?
Verbal aggression expressed through verbal abuse, lack of cooperation, and threatening behavior
197
True or False: Most clients with mental illnesses are aggressive.
False
198
What should nurses evaluate after managing aggressive behavior?
Their performance, strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement
199
What is the role of neurotransmitters in hostility and aggression?
Decreased serotonin and increased dopamine and norepinephrine may play a role
200
What are psychosocial theories related to aggression?
* Failure to develop impulse control
* Inconsistent responses to children's behaviors
* Interpersonal rejection
201
What is catharsis in the context of anger management?
The idea that expressing anger can lead to emotional relief
202
What is the expected outcome of effective interventions for aggression?
Management of aggressive behavior in the early phases of the aggression cycle
