Exam 1 Flashcards

(243 cards)

1
Q

Things like biological populations that grow at the constant or steady rate, R, double over the interval of

(1) ln(2)/R
(2) 0.693/R
(3) about (70/R%)
(4) all of above
(5) none of above

A

(4) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you put money into a savings account paying 3.5% interest per year, your money would double in about

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To illustrate how explosive steady growth is, consider bacteria in a bottle that grow by doubling every minute. Suppose that the bottle contains only a single bacterium at 11:00 pm, but is full at midnight. When is the bottle half full?

A

11:59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Suppose the bacteria discovered another bottle to colonize that was the same size as their home bottle. When will they fill up the new bottle?

A

12:01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Without hydrocarbons (coal, oil, gas), the survival of roughly ______ in 7 people living today could be in jeopardy.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The estimate of 50% of US and world hydrocarbons being consumed by 1975 and 2010, respectively.

A

Hubbert’s Peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It took 6 doubling times over 240 years to use up 50% of the world’s supply of hydrocarbons. At this rate of consumption, another ______ years of supply is left.

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What else grows at steady rates?

(1) car loan (2) credit card debt (3) student loan (4) all of above

A

(4) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-critical resource for humanity’s survival?

(1) food (2) fresh water (3) energy (4) internet

A

(4) internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The frog resting in a stew-pot graphic signifies

(1) frogs are good eating (2) enjoy life while you can (3) taking the hazard as the norm (4) having excuses is ok

A

(3) taking the hazard as the norm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A growing humanity breeds more

(1) freedoms (2) fresh air (3) environmental resources (4) laws

A

(4) laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Renewable resource

(1) coal (2) oil (3) uranium (4) wood (5) natural gas (6) methane

A

(4) wood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Geological hazard

(1) air pollution (2) water pollution (3) earthquake (4) flooding (5) landslide (6) all of the above

A

(6) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Malthus was the father of classical

(1) theology (2) economics (3) genetics (4) chemistry (5) political science (6) social science

A

(2) economics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ‘trillion pound gorilla’ refers to 7 billion people each weighing about
(1) 20 lbs (2) 50 lbs (3) 150 lbs (4) 250 lbs (5) 300 lbs

A

(3) 150 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The number of people at risk when fossil fuels dry up.

(1) 0/7
(2) 2/7
(3) 5/7
(4) 7/7

A

(3) 5/7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Egyptian hieroglyph in the trillion pound gorilla graph signifies
(1) female (2) mother (3) woman (4) key to solving the overpopulation problem (5) all of above

A

(5) all of above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The time it takes for Africa’s population to reach 1,888 million people is given by dividing 2.4% into

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The time it takes for Europe’s population to decay to 367 million people is given by dividing 0.001 into

A

0.7 or ln(2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Best argument for family planning.

(1) reduce abortion rate (2) grow tax base (3) estate preservation (4) grow government

A

(1) reduce abortion rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Estimated number of people killed in WW I

(1) 16x106 (2) 16x103 (3) 16x109 (4) 16x1011 (5) 16x1012

A

(1) 16x106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Estimated number of people killed in WW II

(1) 60x106 (2) 60x103 (3) 60x109 (4) 60x1011 (5) 60x1012

A

(1) 60x106

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Used for porcelain.

(1) copper (2) clays (3) salt (4) zinc (5) cement (6) iron ore

A

(3) clays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mined in Ohio

(1) copper (2) gold (3) salt (4) zinc (5) cement (6) iron ore

A

(3) salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How many tons of minerals, metals, and fuels are used by the average American in a lifetime? (1) 1.8 (2) 18 (3) 180 (4) 1800
(4) 1800
26
Legacy of Ohio’s glaciers. | (1) agricultural soils (2) ground water (3) sands & gravels (4) all of above
(4) all of above
27
Hydrocarbons are found in ______ rocks. | (1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) crystalline (5) volcanic
(3) sedimentary
28
Rocks holding hydrocarbons make up _____ part of the crust. | Rocks holding hydrocarbons make up _____ part of the crust. (1) a minor (2) a major (3) an intermediate (4) all of above
(1) a minor
29
Nature controls overpopulation by _______. | (1) disease & starvation (2) pestilence (3) war (4) all of above
(4) all of the above
30
When something is changing at a rate > 0, it is ____. | (1) declining (2) growing (3) constant (4) all of above
(2) growing
31
When something is changing at a rate < 0, it is ____. | (1) declining (2) growing (3) constant (4) all of above
(1) declining
32
When something is constant, it is changing at a rate _____. | (1) < 0 (2) > 0 (3) = 0 (4) all of above
(3) = 0
33
ln(y) = a×log(y) where a = ______. | (1) 2.3026×100 (2) 2.3026×10-1 (3) 2.3026×10-2 (4) 2.3026×10-3
(1) 2.3026×100
34
log(y) = b×ln(y) where b = _____. | (1) 4.3429×100 (2) 4.3429×10^-1 (3) 4.3429×10^-2 (4) 4.3429×10^-3
(2) 4.3429×10^-1
35
10% = | (1) 10 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.001
(2) 0.1
36
If R=10% and t=3 months, then R×t = _____ yrs. | (1) 2.5×100 (2) 2.5×10^-1 (3) 2.5×10^-2 (4) 2.5×10^-3
(3) 2.5×10^-2
37
If 10 lbs of something is growing at an annual rate of 30%, then in 6 months it will weigh (1) 11.0 lbs (2) 11.2 lbs (3) 11.4 lbs (4) 11.6 lbs (5) 11.8 lbs (6) 12.0 lbs
(4) 11.6 lbs
38
At 15% annual interest, the credit card debt doubles in a little over (1) 3.5 yrs (2) 4.5 yrs (3) 5.5 yrs (4) 6.5 yrs (5) 7.5 yrs (6) 8.5 yrs
(2) 4.5 yrs
39
At 19% annual interest, the credit card debt doubles in a little over (1) 3.5 yrs (2) 4.5 yrs (3) 5.5 yrs (4) 6.5 yrs (5) 7.5 yrs (6) 8.5 yrs
(1) 3.5 yrs
40
According to Bankrate.com, the average US savings account rate in 2014 is 0.48%, and thus your savings account doubles in a little over (1) 14.5 yrs (2) 29 yrs (3) 45.5 yrs (4) 91 yrs (5) 145 yrs (6) 250 yrs
(5) 145 yrs
41
According to Bankrate.com, the average 30 yr fixed home mortgage rate in 2014 is 4.21%, and thus your mortgage doubles in a little over (1) 16.5 yrs (2) 33 yrs (3) 49.5 yrs (4) 56 yrs (5) 72.5 yrs (6) 89 yrs
(1) 16.5 yrs
42
According to Bankrate.com, the average 36 month auto loan rate in 2014 is 2.93%, and thus your auto loan doubles in a little over (1) 16.5 yrs (2) 23 yrs (3) 49.5 yrs (4) 56 yrs (5) 72.5 yrs (6) 89 yrs
(2) 23 yrs
43
According to Bankrate.com, the average Stafford in-school loan rate in 2014 is 6.80%, and thus your school loan doubles in a little over (1) 5 yrs (2) 10 yrs (3) 15 yrs (4) 20 yrs (5) 25 yrs (6) 30 yrs
(2) 10 yrs
44
Suppose you invest $100 at 7% per year. After 25 years, the value of your investment will be about (1) $266 (2) $366 (3) $466 (4) $566 (5) $666 (6) $766
(4) $566
45
About how much do you need to invest at 7% per year to get a million dollars in 25 years? (1) $1.77×102 (2) $1.77×103 (3) $1.77×104 (4) $1.77×105 (5) $1.77×106 (6) $1.77×107
(4) $1.77×105
46
2^0 = | (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
(2) 1
47
2^6 = | (1) 23 + 23 (2) 22×24 (3) 2×106 (4) 6
(2) 2^2×2^4
48
If carrying capacity involved 6 doubling times, then the first 50% of supply will be consumed in _____ doubling times. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 5
49
The remaining 50% of supply will be consumed in _____ doubling times. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6
(1) 1
50
At any doubling time, the available and consumed supply amounts add up to ___. (1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 200%
(3) 100%
51
Easter Island consists of about ____ square miles of land. | (1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 125 (5) none of the above
(5) 63
52
Easter Island is located about ____ kilometers west of the Chilean coast. (1) 2.30×10^2 (2) 2.30×10^3 (3) 3.68×10^3 (4) 3.68×10^2
(3) 3.68×10^3
53
The Falkland Islands are located at about ____ E longitude. | (1) 300º (2) 240º (3) 180º (4) 120º
(1) 300º
54
Easter Island lies _______ of the equator. | (1) north (2) south (3) east (4) west
(2) south
55
A source of protein. | (1) palm fronds (2) sea water (3) humans (4) volcanic tuff
(3) humans
56
240 tons equals ___ lbs. | (1) 2.4×10^5 (2) 4.8×10^5 (3) 2.4×10^4 (4) 4.8×10^4
(2) 4.8×10^5
57
Moai-like lookouts for planet earth.
(3) satellites and telescopes
58
Renewable fuel. | (1) coal (2) oil (3) wood (4) uranium
(3) wood
59
Hydroelectric energy was ____% of the total US energy consumed in 2005. (1) 45 (2) 0.027 (3) 2.7 (4) 27
(3) 2.7
60
Solar plus wind energy was ____% of the total US energy consumed in 2005. (1) 3 (2) 1.8 (3) 0.18 (4) 0.018
(3) 0.18
61
Assuming the US consumes 30% of he world’s annual energy production, how many kilowatthours annually would it be consuming in an equable world? (1) 2.931×10^13 (2) 4.4×10^13 (3) 0.44×10^13 (4) 0.2931×10^13
(3) 0.44×10^13
62
Assuming Hubbert’s global peak actually occurred in 2010, then the world is projected to run out of hydrocarbons around the year ____. (1) 2034 (2) 2044 (3) 2054 (4) 2064
(3) 2054
63
The ‘Oil Depletion Timer’ at www.poodwaddle.com/clocks/earthclock roughly projects the year _____ for the end of oil. (1) 2034 (2) 2044 (3) 2054 (4) 2064
2050 (choose 2054??)
64
Environmental geoscience dimensions. | (1) north-south & east-west directions (2) vertical direction (3) time (4) all of above
(4) all of above
65
In a college of arts and sciences, mathematics falls in the ______ category. (1) arts (2) sciences (3) medical (4) social sciences
(1) arts
66
Inferring that your ancestors 10,000 years ago breathed air like you do is an application of the _____ principle. (1) uniformitarianism (2) original horizontality (3) superposition (4) gravitational
(1) uniformitarianism
67
The original horizontality principle is due to the earth’s _______. (1) heat (2) air (3) magnetism (4) gravity
(4) gravity
68
If the oldest rocks are on top of younger rocks, then (1) the superposition principle doesn’t work (2) the rocks were disturbed (3) radioactivity reversed the original ages (4) none of above
(2) the rocks were disturbed
69
Scientific facts are | (1) absolute (2) conditional (3) valid for all time (4) faith-based
(2) conditional
70
``` The statement "the present is the key to the past" is the major emphasis of the principle of _________. original horizontality uniformitarianism geologic time superposition elastic rebound ```
uniformitarianism
71
The principle of superposition (sequence) states that rocks get from top to bottom. (1) darker (2) older (3) hotter (4) younger (5) more dense
(2) older
72
The Earth is fundamentally layered due to the effect of _____. (1) heat (2) air (3) magnetism (4) gravity
(4) gravity
73
Your birthday is an example of _______ dating. | (1) relative (2) absolute (3) sequential (4) radiometric
(2) absolute
74
Recognizing that you are a middle child of the family is an example of _______ dating. (1) relative (2) absolute (3) sequential (4) radiometric
(1) relative
75
Ohio’s Paleozoic rocks contain ___ unconformities. | (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9
(3) 7
76
Economically significant rocks. | (1) limestone (2) shale (3) coal (4) all of above
(4) all of the above
77
Changes in an organism observed from its fossils are taken as evidence of organic _____. (1) turbulence (2) creationism (3) polar wandering (4) evolution
(4) evolution
78
The trilobite is the state fossil of _____.
Ohio
79
A fossil found in a limestone and a sandstone located 100 miles apart suggests that the two units are _____ ages. (1) the same (2) different (3) all of above (4) none of above
(1) the same
80
A sandstone sits atop a 350-million- year-old granite, and a 15-million-year- old basalt dike cuts across both units. The sandstone is
between 15 and 350 million years old
81
``` Chunks of limestone in the underlying granite means the granite is ________ the limestone. older than younger than same age as less weathered than ```
younger than
82
Only person to date who has won two Nobel Prizes in physics. | (1) Becquerel (2) M. Curie (3) Rutherford (4) Libby
(2) M. Curie
83
The time it takes for something to be steadily reduced to one half of its original amount. (1) doubling time (2) carrying capacity (3) decay rate (4) half-life
(4) half-life
84
The half-life of a radioactive isotope is
.
85
2^1 ×2^-1=
1
86
2^5 ×2^-2 =
2^3
87
2^-6 = | (1) 2^-3 + 2^-3 (2) 2^-2•2^-4 (3) 2×10^-6 (4) -64
(2) 2^-2•2^-4
88
For a radioisotope system with a half-life of 1,000 years, the decay constant is _____. (1) 6.93×10^-1 (2) 6.93×10^-2 (3) 6.93×10^-3 (4) 6.93×10^-4
(4) 6.93×10^-4
89
Units of the decay constant. | (1) dimensionless (2) years (3) years^-1 (4) months (5) months^-1 (6) percent
(3) years^-1
90
In seven half-lives, the amount of parent isotope has been reduced by about _____%. (1) 99 (2) 90 (3) 75 (4) 50
(1) 99
91
In seven half-lives, the amount of daughter isotope has grown to about _____×Ci. (1) 0.99 (2) 0.90 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.50
(1) 0.99
92
Thus, in seven half-lives, for every parent atom there are ____ daughter atoms. (1) 127×10^-2 (2) 1.27×10 (3) 1.27×10^2 (3) 1.27×10^3
(2) 1.27×10
93
If there are 127 daughter atoms for every parent isotope with a half-life of ten thousand years in a rock, then the rock is ____ years old. (1) 7×10 (2) 7×10^2 (3) 7×10^3 (4) 7×10^4
(4) 7x10^4
94
In the time equation (Cd/Cp) = ((2^N) – 1)
.
95
If (Cd/Cp) = 15 in a rock,
N=4
96
A rock started out with 4000 atoms of parent radioisotope X and none of its daughter Y. We now find in it 1,000 atoms of X and 3,000 of Y. The half- life of X is 10 million years. The rock is __________ years old.
20 million
97
The Tollund man died about 2,000 years ago. Assuming a 14C half-life of about 6,000 years means that he has been dead for about ______ half-lives.
1/3
98
Thus, the amount of 14C in the remains of Tollund man is about _____ of atmospheric concentration.
79%
99
For an organism that’s been dead for roughly 17 thousand years, the amount of 14C in the remains should be about ____ of the concentration in the atmosphere. (1) 0.125% (2) 1.25% (3) 12.5% (4) 125%
(3) 12.5%
100
Periods of the geological calendar for the earth like the Cretaceous were established from _____. (1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism
(3) fossils
101
Relative dating of the periods of the geological calendar from _______ is consistent with absolute dates from ______. (1) radioactive dating, plate tectonic theory (2) fossils, radioactive dating (3) paleomagnetism, radioactive dating (4) fossils, paleomagnetism
(2) fossils, radioactive dating
102
Most of earth’s history is contained in the _______ era. | (1) Cenozoic (2) Mesozoic (3) Paleozoic (4) Precambrian
(4) Precambrian
103
Radiometric clock that can date rocks containing both dinosaur and early human fossils. (1) 14N/14C (2) 87Ar/40K (3) 87Sr/87Rb (4) 206Pb/238U
(3) 87Sr/87Rb
104
The ‘tree of animal life’ including the names of eras, periods, and epochs was established from _____. (1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism
(3) fossils
105
The time scale for the ‘tree of animal life’ was established from _____. (1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism
(1) radioactive dating
106
The official state fossil of Ohio became extinct at the end of the ______. (1) Carboniferous (2) Permian (3) Triassic (4) Cambrian
(2) Permian
107
Fundamental source of the 6th major biological mass extinction of the earth. (1) global climate change (2) air pollution (3) water pollution (4) human population bomb
(4) human population bomb
108
The amounts of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock are measured by a (1) magnetometer (2) mass spectrometer (3) barometer (4) none of above
(2) mass spectrometer
109
Which of the following represents the oldest time unit?
day?
110
The nebular hypothesis for the solar system’s origin invokes a cosmic cloud of _____ dust and gas. (1) bituminous (2) hot (3) cold (4) soupy
(3) cold
111
Fourth rock from the sun. | (1) Jupiter (2) Mars (3) Earth (4) Venus
(2) Mars
112
Comets originate mostly from ______. | (1) the asteroid belt (2) Saturn’s rings (3) the Kuiper belt (4) other galaxies
(3) the Kuiper belt
113
The meteorite that made dinosaurs extinct probably came from ______. (1) the asteroid belt (2) Saturn’s rings (3) the Kuiper belt (4) other galaxies
(1) the asteroid belt
114
Pluto is sometimes closer to the sun than Neptune because of the ____ of its orbital plane. (1) declination (2) inclination (3) azimuth (4) speed
(2) inclination
115
Which of the following planets has an orbital radius between that of Mercury and Earth?
Venus
116
The asteroid belt is located between
Mars and Jupiter
117
Approximate age of the Earth.
4.6 billion years
118
The blast furnace analogy for the earth’s formation is an application of the _____ principle. (1) uniformitarianism (2) original horizontality (3) superposition (4) none of above
(1) uniformitarianism
119
Oil floats on water because it is ______ than water. | (1) lighter (2) heavier (3) warmer (4) colder
(1) lighter
120
Oil floats on water because its density is ______ that of water. (1) less than (2) more than (3) equal to (4) hotter than
(1) less than
121
The specific gravity of something is given by the ratio of its density to that of fresh water at 5ºC which is 1 g/cm^3. Thus, oil floats on water because its specific gravity is ______ than that of water. (1) more (2) less (3) warmer (4) colder
(2) less
122
The specific gravity of continental crust is ____. | (1) 5.5 (2) 10.7 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.8
(4) 2.8
123
Using gravity measurements taken on Japan’s Mt. Fuji, OSU’s first geodesist, Prof. T.C. Mendenhall, estimated the Earth’s mean specific gravity given by _____. (1) 5.5 (2) 10.7 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.8
(1) 5.5
124
The quasi-liquid portion of the Earth that may accommodate the drift of the continents. (1) crust (2) aesthenosphere (4) mantle (5) outer core
(2) aesthenosphere
125
The quasi-liquid portion of the Earth where a time- and space-varying magnetic field may originate. (1) crust (2) aesthenosphere (3) mantle (4) outer core
(4) outer core
126
The formation of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere is favored by the formation of the Earth from a _______ cosmic cloud of dust and gas.
cold
127
The first to measure the Earth’s circumference.
Eratostenes
128
You and I are moving through space at over _______ per hour.
67,000 miles per hour
129
Earth’s parameter obtained by Eratostenes circa 240 BCE. | (1) diameter (2) circumference (3) volume (4) all of above
(2) circumference
130
Difference in the Earth’s equatorial and polar radii. | (1) 21 km (2) 42 km (3) 5.5 km (4) 0 km
(1) 21 km
131
The existence of hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and other light elements on Earth is consistent with the Earth having formed from a ____ cloud of cosmic dust and gas. (1) bituminous (2) hot (3) cold (4) soupy
(3) cold
132
Free oxygen accumulating in the atmosphere is a waste product of _______. (1) volcanic eruptions (2) bioturbation (3) ozone depletion (4) photosynthesis
(4) photosynthesis
133
The crust of the oceans is generally _________ the crust of the continents.
younger
134
The is the largest volumetric component of the Earth.
mantle
135
The Mohorovicic Discontinuity (i.e., the Moho) is the boundary between the Earth’s (1) lithosphere and asthenosphere (2) crust and mantle (3) core and mantle (4) outer and inner core (5) upper and lower mantle
(2) crust and mantle
136
The gaseous envelope which surrounds the Earth.
atmosphere
137
``` The mean density of crustal rocks is ______ the average density of Earth which is _______. (1) smaller than, 5.5 g/cm^3 (2) larger than, 2.67 g/cm^3 (3) about the same as, 5.5 g/cm^3 (4) smaller than, 2.67 g/cm^3 (5) about the same as, 2.67 g/cm^3 ```
(1) smaller than (2.7), 5.5 g/cm^3
138
``` The point of origin of an earthquake. anticenter epicenter panic point focus seismic station ```
focus
139
Surface wave that moves the ground up and down in a retrograde motion along the direction of propagation. (1) L (Love) (2) P (Pressure or primary) (3) S (Shear or secondary) (4) R (Rayleigh)
(4) R (Rayleigh)
140
Surface wave that moves the ground in a sideways motion along the direction of propagation. (1) L (Love) (2) P (3) S (4) R (Rayleigh)
(1) L (Love)
141
Body wave that moves the ground in a sideways motion along the direction of propagation. (1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R
(3) S
142
Body wave that moves the ground in a back-and-forth motion along the direction of propagation. (1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R
(2) P
143
First wave to arrive at seismograph station. | (1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R
(2) P
144
S-waves travel ____ P-waves.
slower than
145
The disappearance of earthquake ___ waves suggests that the ____ core may be something like a liquid.
S, outer
146
Pressure waves (sound) travel faster in _____ than in ______.
water than in air OR hard rock than in water/air
147
You hear the thunder about 5 seconds after the lightning flash. Thus, the lightning struck the ground about ___ mile(s) from you. (1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6
(1) 1
148
If the lightning hits water 5 miles away, the fish will hear the thunder in about ____ seconds. (1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6
(4) 6
149
If the lightning hits the hard rock 5 miles away, miners will hear the thunder in about ____ seconds. (1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6
(2) 1.4
150
For hard rock with VP = 18.9×10^3 ft/sec, VS = ____ ft/sec. | (1) 11.34×10^3 (2) 1.134×10^3 (3) 113.4×10^3 (4) 1134.0×10^3
(1) 11.34×10^3
151
For hard rock with VP = 18.9×10^3 ft/sec, VR = ____ ft/sec. | (1) 10.21×10^1 (2) 10.21×10^2 (3) 10.21×10^3 (4) 10.21×10^4
(3) 10.21×10^3
152
Earthquake shear waves are not observed at and beyond epicentral distances of about ______ miles. (1) 5×10^3 (2) 7×10^3 (3) 9×10^3 (4) 12×10^3
(2) 7x10^3
153
Where the S waves disappear, P waves are delayed by about ____ minute(s). (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 10
(3) 4
154
Half the shadow zone of P waves spans some ____ degrees. | (1) 103 (2) 43 (3) 40 (4) 77
(3) 40
155
Half the shadow zone of S waves spans some ____ degrees. | (1) 103 (2) 43 (3) 40 (4) 77
(4) 77
156
Surface waves produced by earthquakes.
R and L
157
Epicentral distance decreases with _____ differences in arrival times between P and S waves.
decreasing | this said "increasing," but I'm almost positive that's wrong
158
Wegner was a _____ by profession. | (1) geologist (2) biologist (3) geographer (4) meteorologist
(4) meteorologist
159
Ohio is part of ____. | (1) Gondwana (2) Eurasia (3) Tethys Sea (4) none of above
(2) Eurasia
160
A resource that southern Greenland shares with Ohio. | (1) rock salt (2) coal (3) rubies (4) gypsum
(2) coal
161
Gondwana includes
Africa, South America, Australia, India, Antarctica, Madagascar
162
The Earth’s magnetic field is derived from the part of the core that does not propagate seismic
S-wave
163
The magnetic compass needle points vertical at the ____. | (1) north magnetic pole (2) magnetic equator (3) south magnetic pole (4) #1 & #3 above
(4) #1 and #3 above
164
The magnetic compass needle points horizontal at the ____. | (1) north magnetic pole (2) magnetic equator (3) south magnetic pole (4) #1 & #3 above
(2) magnetic equator
165
The crustal plates are riding on the ____. | (1) lithosphere (2) inner core (3) asthenosphere (4) outer core
(3) asthenosphere
166
The Earth’s present day magnetic field has ______ polarity. | (1) positive (2) negative (3) obtuse (4) regular
(1) positive
167
The Earth’s magnetic field 200 Myr ago had ______ polarity. | (1) reversed (2) normal (3) obtuse (4) regular
(1) reversed
168
Absolute dates for the magnetic epochs were obtained from ______. (1) relative dating. (2) fossils (3) radiometric methods (4) coprolites
(3) radiometric methods
169
The Indo-Australian Plate includes ______. | (1) Africa. (2) Asia. (3) Sumatra. (4) India
(4) India
170
The San Andreas Fault is a ____-lateral fault. | (1) left (2) right (3) back (4) front
(2) right
171
The transform fault offsetting the oceanic ridge is a ____-lateral fault. (1) left (2) right (3) back (4) front
(2) right
172
Alaska’s Aleutian Islands are best characterized by ______ plate convergence.
ocean-ocean plate convergence
173
India started to break away from Antarctica about ____ years ago. (1) 200×10^6 (2) 150×10^6 (3) 100×10^6 (4) 50×10^6
(2) 150×10^6
174
Australia started to break away from Antarctica about ____ years ago. (1) 200×10^6 (2) 150×10^6 (3) 100×10^6 (4) 50×10^6
(4) 50×10^6
175
According to plate tectonics, some ____% of the Earth’s surface was produced in roughly the last 200×10^6 years. (1) 100 (2) 30 (3) 70 (4) 0
(3) 70
176
The oldest rocks recovered from the sea floor are about years old.
200 million
177
The igneous rocks of the sea floor.
basalt
178
Metamorphosed limestone.
marble
179
Metamorphosed shale.
slate
180
Metamorphosed sandstone. | (1) slate (2) quartzite (3) marble (4) schist
(2) quartzite
181
Unlikely sequence in the rock cycle. (1) metamorphic to igneous rocks (2) sedimentary to igneous rocks (3) igneous to metamorphic rocks (4) metamorphic to sedimentary rocks
(2) sedimentary to igneous
182
Which of the following is a mineral?
anything metallic/sans carbon and a solid
183
The elements O, Si, Al and Fe account for about ____% of the Earth’s crust. (1) 100 (2) 87 (3) 75 (4) 50
(2) 87
184
Which of the Earth’s common crustal elements is radioactive? | (1) oxygen (2) silicon (3) sodium (4) potassium
(4) potassium
185
The metal that is in greatest abundance in the Earth’s crust. (1) magnesium (2) silicon (3) aluminum (4) iron
(3) aluminum
186
Silicate mineral containing calcium. | (1) plagioclase (2) orthoclase (3) quartz (4) mica
(1) plagioclase
187
Silicate mineral containing potassium. | (1) plagioclase (2) orthoclase (3) quartz (4) mica
(2) orthoclase
188
Two most abundant elements (by weight)
oxygen and silicon
189
The plastic zone of partial melting just below the brittle plates is the
asthenosphere
190
Magnetic pole positions observed from igneous rocks produced today in Europe and North America are geographically _______________.
the same
191
Magnetic pole positions observed from 500 million year old igneous rocks in Europe and North America are geographically _______________.
distinct/separate
192
Magnetic poles of the same sign (1) attract (2) repulse (3) glow (4) decay (5) none of the above
(2) repulse
193
The magnetic field originates in the _________.
outer core
194
Plate boundary where crust is not produced or consumed.
transform faults
195
Tectonic plate boundaries control _______. | (1) earthquakes (2) mountains (3) volcanoes (4) all of the above (5) none of the above
(4) all of the above
196
The elastic strength of the rock sample is the slope of the stress-strain curve up to the ____. (1) proportional limit (2) elastic limit (3) ductile failure (4) none of above
(1) proportional limit
197
Where equal amounts of stress produce equal amounts of strain on the stress-strain curve. (1) linear elasticity (2) non-linear elasticity (3) plastic yielding (4) none of above
(1) linear elasticity
198
A twisting force.
sheer (torque as backup)
199
A pull-apart force.
tensile
200
A squeezing force.
compression
201
Hooke’s Law states that (1) stress is proportional to strain (2) older rocks are found under younger rocks (3) layered rocks are deposited horizontally (4) events of today happened in the past (5) none of the above
(1) stress is proportional to strain
202
The rocks become younger towards the middle of an eroded _______.
anticline (I think.... check on this)
203
The rock ages increase outwards from the center of the fold. | (1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above
(1) anticline
204
The rock ages decrease outwards from the center of the fold. | (1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above
(2) syncline
205
The erosional V’s point down dip for the dipping _____. | (1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above
(1) anticline
206
The erosional V’s point up dip for the dipping _____. | (1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above
(2) syncline
207
Intersection of a dipping layer with the horizontal. | (1) azimuth (2) dip & inclination (3) strike (4) azimuth & strike
(4) azimuth and strike
208
Angle of a dipping layer with the horizontal. | (1) azimuth (2) dip & inclination (3) strike (4) azimuth & strike
(2) dip and inclination
209
Intersection of an inclined rock layer with the horizontal.
strike
210
Produced by desiccation. | (1) mudcracks (2) columnar basalt (3) all of above (4) none of above
(1) mudcracks
211
Produced by cooling. | (1) mudcracks (2) columnar basalt (3) all of above (4) none of above
(2) columnar basalt
212
Fault resulting from squeezing rocks together. | (1) normal (2) reverse (3) dip slip (4) hanging
(2) reverse
213
Fault resulting from pushing rocks apart. | (1) normal (2) reverse (3) strike slip (4) compressive
(1) normal
214
Normal faulting implies _________.
tension
215
The San Andreas is a ______, ______ fault.
right lateral
216
The real-estate on the west side of the San Andreas fault resides on the ______ plate.
Pacific
217
The fault results when the forces across it exceed the rock’s _______ strength. (1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal
(3) compressive
218
The last continental ice sheet of North America was centered on ______. (1) the Great Lakes (2) Baffin Bay (3) Hudson Bay (4) the Northwest Passage
(3) Hudson Bay
219
The average earth surface temperature. | (1) 14ºC (2) 57.2ºF (3) all of above (4) none of above
(3) all of the above
220
Kames are produced from sand, gravel and till that accumulate in depressions of ______ glaciers. (1) advancing (2) retreating (3) stationary (4) all of above
(2) retreating
221
Stratification of glacial materials implies sorting by _____. (1) wind (2) air (3) water (4) temperature
(3) water
222
Loess deposits consist of ______ sediments. | (1) till (2) drift (3) eolian (4) subduction
(3) eolian
223
Eolian glacial outwash deposits yielding desirable agricultural soils.
loess
224
Ohio’s glaciers have produced
agricultural soils, groundwater, sands/gravel
225
The density of ice is _____ that of water. | (1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above
(2) lower than
226
The specific gravity of ice is _____ that of water. | (1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above
(2) lower than
227
The specific gravity of ice is _____ that of air. | (1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above
(1) higher than
228
Due to the retreat of the continental ice sheet, the St. Lawrence River Basin is _____ northwards to Hudson Bay. (1) rising (2) sinking (3) subducting (4) overthrusting
(1) rising
229
Columbus was connected to the _______ canal. | (1) Miami & Erie (2) Pennsylvania & Ohio (3) Ohio & Erie (4) Erie & Michigan
(3) Ohio & Erie
230
In northern Ohio, the ground is ________ due to the retreat of the ice sheet some 12 thousand years ago.
rising
231
The 14C concentration in Ohio’s plants and animals from the time that ice sheet began to retreat is about ____% of atmospheric concentration.
25%
232
A plant root working its way into rock crevices and joints breaks the rock down when the root pressure exceeds the rock’s ______ strength. (1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal
(1) tensile
233
Frost wedging results when the force of the ice exceeds the rock’s _______ strength. (1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal
(1) tensile
234
A rotational slide. | (1) creep (2) rock slide (3) slump (4) mud slide
(3) slump
235
The compass orientation of the line of intersection of an inclined plane with the horizontal is its ______. (1) dip (2) plunge (3) vertical or plumb line (4) joint (5) strike
(5) strike
236
Surface waves travel at roughly ____ of the speed of the P wave. (1) 34% (2) 44% (3) 54% (4) 64%
(3) 54%
237
``` A rock fold with the youngest rocks in the center flanked by older rocks is called a _____. disconformity nonconformity angular unconformity anticline syncline ```
syncline
238
Rock conversion prohibited by the rock cycle. (1) metamorphic to igneous rocks (2) sedimentary to igneous rocks (3) igneous to metamorphic rocks (4) metamorphic to sedimentary rocks
(2) sedimentary to igneous rocks
239
``` To locate the epicenter, seismograms from at least ___ stations are needed. 2 3 4 6 ```
3
240
The seismogram observed closest to the epicenter shows the ____ difference in P- and S-wave arrival times. (1) greatest (2) least (3) fastest (4) slowest
(2) least
241
Due to retreat of the glaciers, northern Ohio is _____. (1) sinking (2) rising (3) not moving (4) melting
(2) rising
242
Plate boundary predicted by plate tectonic theory. (1) convergent (2) transform (3) divergent (4) metamorphic
(2) transform
243
The rock type containing fossil fuels. (1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) none of above
(3) sedimentary