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FireFighter I & II Exam 1-3 > Exam 1-3 > Flashcards

Exam 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the leading cause of fire fighter injuries?
A. Exposure to fire products
B. Being struck by objects
C. Overexertion and strain
D. Exposure to chemicals

A

C. Overexertion and strain

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2
Q

What is developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions?
A. Analyses
B. Policies
C. Comparisons
D. Post-Incident Plans

A

B. Policies

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3
Q

About how much of a kernmantle rope’s strength is provided by the mantle?
A. 10 to 15 percent
B. 25 to 30 percent
C. 45 to 50 percent
D. 60 to 75 percent

A

B. 25 to 30 percent

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4
Q

Rope should be protected from prolonged exposure to sunlight because:
A. Exposure to ultraviolet radiation can damage rope
B. The inside of a rope heats up to damaging temperatures
C. The heat causes delamination of the sheath of ropes
D. The rope can easily become hot enough to touch to cause burns

A

A. Exposure to ultraviolet radiation can damage rope

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5
Q

Another term for a safety knot is a/an:
A. Rescue knot
B. Finishing knot
C. Overhand knot
D. Double hitch

A

C. Overhand knot

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6
Q

Who should always plan ahead so that there is a fresh or rested crew ready to rotate with a crew that needs rehabilitation?
A. The staging officer
B. The company officer
C. The incident commander
D. The logistics section chief

A

C. The incident commander

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7
Q

How soon after a traumatic call should Critical Incident Stress Debriefing be held?
A. As soon as possible
B. After returning to the station, showering, and calming down
C. Sometime during the next shift
D. Not less than three days later, preferably in the evening

A

A. As soon as possible

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8
Q

The primary use of the ______ is to attach a rope to a round object such as a pike pole.
A. Clove hitch
B. Bowline
C. Becket/Sheet Bend
D. Rescue Knot

A

A. Clove hitch

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9
Q

The ______is tied as illustrated in the drawing below.
A. Bowling
B. Becket/sheet bend
C. Square knot
D. Follow through

A

B. Becket/sheet bend

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10
Q

The end of the rope that is used to tie a knot is called the:
A. Running end
B. Standing Part
C. Safety End
D. Working End

A

D. Working End

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11
Q

Which of the following best describes a bight?
A. The part of the rope used for work
B. The part of the rope used for hoisting or pulling
C. Bending one end of the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel
D. Forming a loop around to a plane parallel with the other side

A

C. Bending one end of the rope back upon itself, while keeping the two sides of the rope parallel

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12
Q

Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regard to natural fiber ropes?
A. When compared to synthetic materials, they have a very low strength-to-weight ratio.
B. They work best as life safety lines
C. They have a low shock load absorption capability
D. They suffer from natural deterioration/degradation due to age

A

B. They work best as life safety lines

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13
Q

The first step in tying the becket/sheet bend is to form a:
A. Loop
B. Bight
C. Round hitch
D. Half hitch

A

B. Bight

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14
Q

The strategy of the incident includes which of the following?
A. Offensive or defensive mode
B. Rescue of fire suppression tactics
C. Establish or pass command
D. Incident stabilization or property conservation

A

A. Offensive or defensive mode

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15
Q

The ratio of the mass of a given volume of liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is:
A. Specific gravity
B. Vapor density
C. Flash point
D. Surface to mass ratio

A

A. Specific gravity

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16
Q

All fire department radio operations must follow rules of the:
A. NFPA
B. DOT
C. FCC
D. CFR

A

C. FCC

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17
Q

Computer aided dispatch (CAD) can be defined as a/an:
A. Computer based automated system that assists the telecommunicator in assessing dispatch information and recommends responses
B. Organizing collection of similar facts
C. System typically used by operations chief officers in fire service
D. Emergency alerting devices primarily used by volunteer department personnel to receive reports of emergency incidents

A

A. Computer based automated system that assists the telecommunicator in assessing dispatch information and recommends responses

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18
Q

Information needed to determine the scope of emergency includes:
A. Incident location
B. Incident/situation
C. Time the incident occurred
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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19
Q

What does the Automatic Number Identification feature of Enhanced 911 do?
A. Provides the caller’s identity
B. Lock the caller’s phone open
C. Show the caller’s phone number
D. Provide access to real-time language translation

A

C. Show the caller’s phone number

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20
Q

The telecommunicator’s first responsibility is to:
A. Obtain the information that is required to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location
B. Reassure the caller that help will be forthcoming shortly and that his/her problem can be dealt with.
C. Provide the caller with real-time, emergency instructions such as how to perform CPR
D. Ascertain the exact type of event that the caller is reporting

A

A. Obtain the information that is required to dispatch the appropriate units to the correct location

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21
Q

The coupling on the high pressure hose that is attached to an SCBA cylinder should be:
A. Of the reverse thread type
B. Hand tight
C. Secured with an adjustable wrench
D. Treated with Teflon tape

A

B. Hand tight

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22
Q

When using positive pressure SCBA, a poor seal between the face piece and the fire fighter’s face is:
A. Not dangerous, because the positive pressure will keep toxic gases out of the face piece
B. Dangerous, because it is depleting the air supply more quickly
C. Not possible, because the positive pressure will seal the face piece to the face
D. The main cause of deaths on the fireground

A

B. Dangerous, because it is depleting the air supply more quickly

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23
Q

As the oxygen supply in any given area falls below ___ percent, unconsciousness can occur
A. 21
B. 17
C. 12
D. 9

A

D. 9

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24
Q

The first noticeable signs of oxygen deficiency are:
A. Profuse sweating and ringing in the ears
B. Dizziness, impaired vision, giddiness
C. Increased respiratory rate and impaired muscular coordination
D. Headache and rapid fatigue

A

C. Increased respiratory rate and impaired muscular coordination

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25
Q

Rescue from sewers, grain silos, and similarly confined spaces requires the use of self –contained breathing apparatus due to the danger of:
A. Toxic gases
B. Oxygen deficiency
C. Ambient temperature
D. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

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26
Q

A fire fighter is susceptible to poisoning or irritation from carbon monoxide through:
A. Ingestion
B. Absorption
C. Inhalation
D. Injection

A

C. Inhalation

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a limitation affecting a fire fighter’s ability to use SCBA effectively?
A. Physical
B. Medical
C. Mental
D. Oxygen cylinder use

A

D. Oxygen cylinder use

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28
Q

When filling an SCBA cylinder, the cylinder must be:
A. Placed in a fragmentation containment or other shielded device
B. Placed in water
C. Filled in the open to allow for checking of signs of weakness in the cylinder
D. Wrapped in a blanket or towel

A

A. Placed in a fragmentation containment or other shielded device

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29
Q

Inhaled toxic gases can directly cause:
A. Disease in the ling tissue
B. Muscle cramps in the lower extremities
C. Blurred vision, leading to blindness
D. Amnesia

A

A. Disease in the ling tissue

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30
Q

Atmospheres are classified as oxygen deficient when they fall below ___ percent oxygen
A. 25
B. 19.5
C. 16
D. 13.5

A

B. 19.5

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31
Q

Recharging air cylinders can be done from a bank of three or more large air cylinders. This type system is called a/an _____system
A. Combination
B. Cascade
C. Multiple
D. In line

A

B. Cascade

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32
Q

The low alarm of the SCBA will sound when ___ percent of the cylinder is remaining
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

A

C. 25

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33
Q

There are two methods that can be used to don SCBA that is stored in a case:
A. Over-the-head and coat method
B. Compartment and coat method
C. Over-the-head and compartment method
D. Jacket and backup mount

A

A. Over-the-head and coat method

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34
Q

Which of the following is true regarding SCBA?
A. Tighten the top straps of the SCBA face piece first
B. All SCBA face pieces must be fit tested
C. Hoods should be worn under the SCBA straps and face piece
D. Positive pressure should be tested by breaking the regulator seal

A

B. All SCBA face pieces must be fit tested

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35
Q

The purpose for the use of reflective trim on PPE is to:
A. Increase the visibility of the wearer to others
B. Provide protection for the material under the trim
C. Allow the wearer to blend in with the surroundings
D. Be more stylish than the plain PPE

A

A. Increase the visibility of the wearer to others

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36
Q

Which of the following is not one of the advantages to wearing gloves that meet NFPA standards for structural firefighting?
A. Thermal protection
B. Protection from puncture
C. Protection from scrapes and cuts
D. Reduced dexterity

A

D. Reduced dexterity

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37
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding PPE?
A. It must comply with NFPA 1900 standard
B. It requires fire fighters to wear the most appropriate PPE for the hazard they face
C. It requires PASS activation whenever bunker gear is worn
D. It prevents a fire fighter from burns in situations such as flashover

A

B. It requires fire fighters to wear the most appropriate PPE for the hazard they face

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38
Q

What type of construction, found on some older wooden buildings, provides a path for rapid fire extension?
A. Side split
B. Bungalow
C. Slate roof
D. Balloon-frame

A

D. Balloon-frame

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39
Q

Tempered plate glass should be broken only as a last resort. It is recommended that it be shattered by striking:
A. In the center with a large, blunt object
B. At the lowest corner with the pick end of a fire axe
C. With a flat headed ax with hands above the head
D. With a flat headed ax at the highest corner

A

B. At the lowest corner with the pick end of a fire axe

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40
Q

In what type of occupancy will fire fighters usually find sliding doors?
A. Barns or warehouses
B. Commercial
C. Residential
D. Institutional

A

C. Residential

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41
Q

Fire fighters can expect to find ledge doors in:
A. Barns and warehouses
B. Single family residential buildings
C. Churches and temples
D. Commercial occupancies

A

A. Barns and warehouses

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42
Q

A battering ram is intended to be used by two or four fire fighters. Which of the following describes its recommended use?
A. It is held horizontally by all involved fire fighters, who run toward the object to be battered.
B. If four fire fighters are involved, one guides the tip of the ram while two swing it in the direction of the fourth person
C. It is held horizontally by pairs of operators who swing it repeatedly against the object
D. It is held against the object to be battered by two fire fighters, while the third person pounds on the end with a sledge hammer

A

C. It is held horizontally by pairs of operators who swing it repeatedly against the object

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43
Q

With a pry bar/ramber, the bar acts as a _________to multiply the amount of force the person could otherwise apply.
A. Mechanical
B. Sear
C. Spring
D. Lever

A

D. Lever

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44
Q

What is one example of a hand powered hydraulic spreader tool?
A. Spanner tool
B. Pompier tool
C. Rabbet tool
D. Pilot tool

A

C. Rabbet tool

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45
Q

A cutting torch has a flame temperature of approximately:
A. 10,000F
B. 15,000F
C. 12,000F
D. 5,000F

A

D. 5,000F

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46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the “K-Tool” is incorrect?
A. The front of the tool is shaped like the letter “K” and slides over the lock cylinder
B. The K-tool is designed to pull out lock cylinders and expose the mechanism in order to open the lock with key tools
C. The back of the tool is shaped like the letter “K” and slides over the lock cylinder
D. The front of the tool has a loop for the adz of the Halligan tool

A

A. The front of the tool is shaped like the letter “K” and slides over the lock cylinder

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47
Q

The quickest way to force entry through a security roll-up door is to:
A. Cut the door with a torch or saw
B. Apply a K-tool to the latch
C. Use a J-tool on the roller
D. Use the irons

A

A. Cut the door with a torch or saw

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48
Q

How many people are needed to use a battering ram?
A. Two or four
B. One or two
C. Four to six
D. Six only

A

A. Two or four

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49
Q

From a forcible entry standpoint, which of the following is not one of the ways doors function?
A. Revolving
B. Swinging
C. Overhead
D. Lifting

A

D. Lifting

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50
Q

Which of the following is not one of the basic types of locks?
A. Mortise
B. Bored (cyndrilical)
C. Rim
D. Tumbled

A

D. Tumbled

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51
Q

An important benefit of using a Personnel Accountability System is:
A. Knowing who is on the fireground
B. Knowing which fire fighter has seniority
C. Knowing which company arrived on the scene first
D. Keeping track of which fire fighters work on which shift

A

A. Knowing who is on the fireground

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52
Q

In the system of accountability, what should be requested at the occurrence of tactical benchmarks, such as going from an offensive to a defensive strategy?
A. A rehabilitation assignment for those coming off the flight
B. A system communications check
C. A PAR
D. A BARKS check

A

C. A PAR

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53
Q

OSHA regulations require that when fire fighters are inside a structure fire, at least ____ trained and equipped fire fighters must be standing by outside
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

A

A. 2

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54
Q

A fire fighter who is lost in a structure and finds a fire hose should remember:
A. Male coupling indicates the direction of the exit
B. Female coupling indicates the direction of exit
C. Activation of bypass is the best process for escape breathing
D. To immediately issue a PAR and then try to attempt a rescue

A

A. Male coupling indicates the direction of the exit

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55
Q

The parts of an extension ladder that prevent the fly section from being extended too far are called:
A. Guides
B. Locks
C. Anchors
D. Stops

A

D. Stops

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56
Q

A bangor ladder has attachments for added leverage that are called:
A. Staypoles
B. Truss poles
C. Guide poles
D. Rails

A

A. Staypoles

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57
Q

Other than a ladder safety belt, a fire fighter can be safely secured to a ground ladder using:
A. A rope
B. An arm lock
C. Hose strap
D. A leg lock

A

D. A leg lock

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58
Q

An upper section or top section of an extension ladder is known as a:
A. Tuss
B. Bed
C. Fly
D. Main

A

C. Fly

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59
Q

If 40 feet of a 50 foot extension ladder is used, the butt of the ladder should be placed approximately ____ feet from the building
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

A

B. 10

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60
Q

The proper distance the foot or butt of a ladder should stand out from a building is _______ of the working distance of the ladder from the base of the wall
A. One-half
B. One-quarter
C. One-third
D. One-eigth

A

B. One-quarter

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61
Q

The very top of a ladder is called the:
A. Fly
B. Top plate
C. Claw
D. Tip

A

D. Tip

62
Q

The reason that ground ladders must be cleaned periodically even if not used at a scene is that:
A. Their heat resistant treatment attracts dust
B. They build up an ionic charge which attracts dirt out of the air
C. Normal atmospheric moisture reacts with them depositing a thin film
D. They accumulate dirt from being on the apparatus

A

D. They accumulate dirt from being on the apparatus

63
Q

Which of the following statements concerning ground ladder placement is correct?
A. If a ladder is to be used for a fire fighter to break a window for ventilation, it should be placed on the leeward side
B. If a ladder is to be used for a fire fighter to break a window for ventilation, its tip should be even with the bottom of the window
C. If a ladder is to be used for entry or rescue from a window, its tip is placed slightly below the sill
D. If the window opening is wide enough to permit the ladder tip to project into it, place the ladder so that five rungs extend above the sill

A

C. If a ladder is to be used for entry or rescue from a window, its tip is placed slightly below the sill

64
Q

Which of the following is not one of the recommended steps in fighting a fire in an electrically powered vehicle?
A. Cut into high voltage components
B. Secure and stabilize the vehicle
C. Identify vehicle type
D. Use standard tools and cut in areas for victim extrication

A

A. Cut into high voltage components

65
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of a primary search?
A. Rapid and systematic
B. Slow and deliberate
C. Accomplished only with a charged hose line
D. Begun only after top-side ventilation is provided

A

A. Rapid and systematic

66
Q

When conducting a primary search within a structure, a fire fighter should begin:
A. In the center of the room
B. On a wall
C. Always start with right hand pattern
D. Under or behind furnishings

A

B. On a wall

67
Q

When lifting an object during a search, fire fighters should always:
A. Use their back to lift
B. Use their legs to lift, not their back
C. Try to twist and reach at the same time
D. Lift with their arms and back

A

B. Use their legs to lift, not their back

68
Q

In a multi-story building with a standpipe system, a fire fighter should make the connection _________ the fire floor
A. On the floor below
B. On the floor above
C. On
D. Two levels above

A

A. On the floor below

69
Q

One advantage of a solid stream nozzle is:
A. For ladder pipe applications
B. That it creates more stream
C. Its effectiveness is subduing stubborn Class B fires
D. It provides an extended reach

A

D. It provides an extended reach

70
Q

To achieve extinguishment, sufficient water must be applied to:
A. Thoroughly saturate the burning fuel
B. Smother flames
C. Absorb heat faster than it is being generated
D. Produce stream

A

C. Absorb heat faster than it is being generated

71
Q

One way to identify the physical structure of a male coupling is by the:
A. Swivel protector
B. Lugs on the shank
C. Coating
D. Shank length

A

B. Lugs on the shank

72
Q

The primary purpose of a spanner wrench is for use in:
A. Breaking glass
B. Shutting off gas valves
C. Operating hydrant valves
D. Tightening/loosening hose couplings

A

D. Tightening/loosening hose couplings

73
Q

A hose _______ is used to seal small cuts or breaks that may occur in fire hose or to connect mismatched or damaged couplings of the same size to stop leaking
A. Bridge
B. Clamp
C. Jacket
D. Seal

A

C. Jacket

74
Q

A fire fighter without a spanner wrench can usually break a tight coupling if the ________ method is used
A. Knee-jerk
B. Stiff-arm
C. Arm-press
D. Knee-press

A

D. Knee-press

75
Q

The first due engine company’s purpose on the fire scene is:
A. Ventilation
B. Salvage and overhaul
C. To advance hose lines
D. Forcible entry

A

C. To advance hose lines

76
Q

When should the fire fighter attaching hose to the hydrant charge the supply line?
A. As soon as possible
B. Not until the driver/operator’s signal is received
C. After slowly opening the hydrant all the way
D. After ten full minutes from the time of drop-off

A

B. Not until the driver/operator’s signal is received

77
Q

A fire stream is:
A. The flaming material shot through the air by a flame thrower
B. Is the main attack line on interior attack
C. Water or another agent as it leaves the nozzle toward the target
D. The total number of streams needed for knockdown and extinguishment of a fire

A

C. Water or another agent as it leaves the nozzle toward the target

78
Q

Hose that is usually carried on a hose reel, is made of rubber, and flows only 30 to 50 gallons per minute is called:
A. Booster hose
B. Dumpster hose
C. Fool’s hose
D. Attic hose

A

A. Booster hose

79
Q

The main difference between types I and II construction is that:
A. The occupants in type I construction are the main hazard
B. Type I is more prone to building collapse
C. Roofs in type II construction are more stable
D. Structural components in type II construction lack insulation and protection

A

D. Structural components in type II construction lack insulation and protection

80
Q

The primary concern of ordinary construction is:
A. The exterior building materials
B. Fire and smoke spreading through concealed space
C. Early wall collapse
D. Combustible contents and building materials

A

B. Fire and smoke spreading through concealed space

81
Q

When a window is opened for the purpose of ventilation:
A. Screens may be left in place
B. Curtains or drapes may be left in place
C. Screens must be removed
D. It signifies that search and rescue has been accomplished

A

C. Screens must be removed

82
Q

Heat transfer that takes place in the form of electromagnetic waves is known as:
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Flame contact

A

B. Radiation

83
Q

Heat can travel throughout a burning building by one or more of the following methods:
A. Conduction, radiation, and convection
B. Extension, conduction, and exposure
C. Convection, extension, and expansion
D. Conduction, radiation, and expansion

A

A. Conduction, radiation, and convection

84
Q

The principle which most closely describes how water extinguished fire is:
A. Removal of fuel
B. Reduction of temperature
C. Exclusion of oxygen
D. Inhibition of chain reaction

A

B. Reduction of temperature

85
Q

A fire in the presence of a higher-than-normal concentration of oxygen will:
A. Burn slower than normal
B. Burn faster than normal
C. Not be effected by the oxygen
D. Not burn if oxygen is too rich

A

B. Burn faster than normal

86
Q

Which of the following are not products of combustion?
A. Convection, conduction, radiation, and direct contact
B. Fire gases, heat, smoke, and light
C. Fire gases, water vapor, and carbon particles
D. Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, and hydrogen cyanide

A

A. Convection, conduction, radiation, and direct contact

87
Q

The term vapor density refers to the weight of a gas as compared to the weight of:
A. Water
B. Air
C. Carbon
D. Nitrogen

A

B. Air

88
Q

During _________, conditions in the compartment change very rapidly
A. Rollover
B. Growth
C. Flashover
D. Fully developed

A

C. Flashover

89
Q

Just prior to flashover, what are the conditions within the burning compartment?
A. Temperatures are rapidly increasing
B. Additional fuel packages are becoming involved
C. Fuel packages in the compartment are giving off combustible gases
D. All the above are occurring

A

D. All the above are occurring

90
Q

Which of the following gases is not produced in fires?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen chloride
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen

A

D. Oxygen

91
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit of proper ventilation?
A. More oxygen is fed to the fire
B. Heat is removed from the structure
C. Visibility is improved by removing smoke from the structure
D. It allows occupants of the structure more survival time

A

A. More oxygen is fed to the fire

92
Q

By venting an enclosure, the heat level kept from becoming capable of producing:
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Rollover
D. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

93
Q

The size of an outside fire in the fully developed stage is dependent on:
A. Oxygen
B. Temperature
C. Available fuel
D. Barometric pressure

A

C. Available fuel

94
Q

Thermal layering is:
A. A column of heat rising from a source
B. A process in which the molecules of a liquid are liberated into the atmosphere at a rate greater than the rate at which the molecules return to a liquid
C. The layered configuration of heat with higher temperature at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels
D. Decomposition or transformation of a compound caused by heat

A

C. The layered configuration of heat with higher temperature at the upper levels and cooler temperatures at the lower levels

95
Q

A Class A fire is fueled by:
A. Electricity
B. Ordinary combustible materials
C. Liquids
D. Metals

A

B. Ordinary combustible materials

96
Q

Positive-pressure ventilation is:
A. Pulling smoke out
B. Blowing fresh air in
C. Removing oxygen
D. Increasing thermal layering

A

B. Blowing fresh air in

97
Q

An important safety precaution that should be practiced when working on a roof is to:
A. Cut all guy wires to prevent tripping over them
B. Provide a secondary means of escape
C. Have more than two fire fighters on the roof at all times
D. Tie oneself to the roof ladder

A

B. Provide a secondary means of escape

98
Q

The most common type of building material in use today is:
A. Steel
B. Wood
C. Concrete
D. Plastics

A

B. Wood

99
Q

What is one warning signal of possible backdraft conditions?
A. Glass is smoked-stained and blackened due to heavy carbon deposits from the smoke
B. Smoke is observed pouring out of a burned-through opening in the roof
C. The front door is unaccountably wide open
D. Upper windows are observed to be open or shattered

A

A. Glass is smoked-stained and blackened due to heavy carbon deposits from the smoke

100
Q

The basic shape of the rigid framework of the truss is a/an:
A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Triangle
D. Oval

A

C. Triangle

101
Q

What does vertical ventilation require that horizontal ventilation does not?
A. Positive pressure fans
B. Openings in the roof or highest part of the building
C. Negative pressure fans
D. Airtightness everywhere but the vent opening

A

B. Openings in the roof or highest part of the building

102
Q

Searching for hidden fires is a primary function of:
A. Sizeup
B. Salvage
C. Fire investigation
D. Overhaul

A

D. Overhaul

103
Q

Hidden fires in concealed spaces can often be detected by:
A. Feeling with back of hand
B. Strategic fan placement
C. Tearing down the entire wall
D. Use of salvage techniques

A

A. Feeling with back of hand

104
Q

Ideally, when should fire investigators begin their work at a fire scene?
A. After overhaul starts
B. Before overhaul starts
C. Any time other than when overhaul operations are occurring
D. During salvage operations

A

B. Before overhaul starts

105
Q

During overhaul, what should be available to douse any hot spots or flare-ups that occur?
A. A Class D fire extinguisher
B. A pike pole and Halligan bar
C. A thermal blanket
D. A charged hose line

A

D. A charged hose line

106
Q

Which areas of a wall are usually opened first, during overhaul?
A. The most heavily damaged areas
B. The least damaged areas
C. The areas closest to any openings in that wall
D. The area closest to the baseboard

A

A. The most heavily damaged areas

107
Q

Methods and operating procedures that reduce fire, water, and smoke damage during and after fires are known as:
A. Overhaul
B. Sizeup
C. Salvage
D. A coordinated fire attack

A

C. Salvage

108
Q

In salvage operations, floor runners:
A. Are fire fighters who carry debris from the building
B. Are water chutes constructed of rolled up salvage covers placed to catch and drain excess water
C. Is a term used to describe the type of fire which progresses vertically
D. Are constructed of a lightweight, durable material placed over the floor to protect it from damage

A

D. Are constructed of a lightweight, durable material placed over the floor to protect it from damage

109
Q

Read the statements below. Then choose the appropriate answer from choices A-D listed below.

  1. Salvage work in the fire service consists of procedures that reduce fire, water, and smoke damage during and after fires
  2. Overhaul activities consist of all activities that take place after the fire has been extinguished.
  3. Overhaul operations must be completed before salvage

A. All statements are true
B. The first and second statements are false; the third statement is true
C. The first statement is true; the second and third statements are false
D. The first statement is false; the second and third statements are true

A

C. The first statement is true; the second and third statements are false

110
Q

In addition to controlling runoff water, a salvage cover may be used:
A. To collect debris
B. To cover furniture
C. As a catchall
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

111
Q

A fire department connection is nothing more than a:
A. Siamese
B. 2-1/2 inch wye
C. Water thief
D. Four-way valve

A

A. Siamese

112
Q

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A floor runner is a fire fighter who acts as a messenger
B. The perimeter of the salvage cover is ringed with grommets
C. A floor runner is used to cover the floor in a hallway or along a traffic area
D. Water vacuums come in two basic types, backpack and wheeled

A

A. A floor runner is a fire fighter who acts as a messenger

113
Q

The temperature rating or a sprinkler head color-coded red is _____ degrees F
A. 175 to 225
B. 250 to 300
C. 325 to 375
D. 400 to 475

A

C. 325 to 375

114
Q

What technique is needed to use a sprinkler wedge to stop an activated sprinkler?
A. Insert one wedge into the deflector and hammer it into place with helmet
B. Insert one wedge into the orifice and tap it into place with palm of hand
C. Insert one wedge into the orifice and one into the deflector, then deform them to touch by hammering sharply
D. Insert one wedge from either side between the orifice and the deflector and push them together

A

D. Insert one wedge from either side between the orifice and the deflector and push them together

115
Q

One limitation of backpack water vacuums is that they:
A. Cannot pull water up from the floor
B. Cannot be worn with SCBA
C. Can only be used once
D. Are illegal in many places

A

B. Cannot be worn with SCBA

116
Q

What is the type of heat detector called which activates if the temperature of the surrounding air rises more than a set amount in a given period of time?
A. Closed chamber heat detector
B. Rate of rise heat detector
C. Open chamber heat detector
D. Variable threshold heat detector

A

B. Rate of rise heat detector

117
Q

When performing a forward lay, the pumper is driven from the:
A. Fire scene to water source
B. Water source to fire scene
C. Water source to fire scene to water source
D. Discharge of one pumper to intake of another

A

B. Water source to fire scene

118
Q

Which of the following statements regarding dead-end water mains is incorrect?
A. Connecting to a dead-end main may not provide adequate water
B. Two units on the same dead-end main may rob water from each other
C. Dead-end mains provide the most volume in the system
D. Where possible, fire fighters should avoid using them

A

C. Dead-end mains provide the most volume in the system

119
Q

All portable extinguishers are classified according to their:
A. Size
B. Freeze potential
C. Intended use
D. Conductivity

A

C. Intended use

120
Q

CO2 and dry chemical extinguishers will extinguish both Class B and C fires. What advantage does CO2 have over a dry chemical extinguisher?
A. CO2 is not a hazard in an enclosed area
B. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts
C. CO2 will prevent reignition longer than dry chemical extinguisher
D. CO2 is effective at a greater distance

A

B. CO2 does not leave a residue or corrode electrical contacts

121
Q

Class B fires involve fuels such as:
A. Flammable liquids
B. Energized electrical equipment
C. Combustible metals
D. Ordinary combustibles

A

A. Flammable liquids

122
Q

Energized electrical equipment and the surrounding area have to be protected with extinguishers that have a ________ rating
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

C. Class C

123
Q

Fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, and potassium, are _______ fires
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

D. Class D

124
Q

A carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguisher’s mean of discharge is:
A. Chemical reaction
B. Stored liquefied compressed gas
C. Cartridge activiation
D. Manual hand –pump

A

B. Stored liquefied compressed gas

125
Q

The manufacture of all ________ extinguishers has been discontinued
A. CO2
B. Dry chemical
C. Inverting
D. Pressurized-water

A

C. Inverting

126
Q

Regular dry chemicals (sodium bicarbonate-based and potassium-based) work on ______ fires.
A. Only Class D
B. Class A
C. Only Class B
D. Classes B and C

A

D. Classes B and C

127
Q

What extinguishing agents are being replaced because they have been banned for destroying the earth’s ozone layer?
A. Halons or halogenated hydrocarbons
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
D. Dry chemicals

A

A. Halons or halogenated hydrocarbons

128
Q

What is the relationship between dry powder and dry chemical extinguishing agents?
A. They are two different names for the same substance with the same application
B. Dry chemical is one of the many types of dry powder
C. Dry powder is one of the many types of dry chemical
D. They are entirely different substances with entirely different applications

A

D. They are entirely different substances with entirely different applications

129
Q

The first step for using a fire extinguisher is to:
A. Aim the nozzle
B. Squeeze the handle
C. Pull the pin
D. Sweep the base of the fire

A

C. Pull the pin

130
Q

One advantage of portable fire extinguishers over hose lines is that fire extinguishers:
A. Pack more suppression punch
B. Have controllable rates of flow
C. Don’t run out as quickly
D. Are quicker to deploy and use

A

D. Are quicker to deploy and use

131
Q

Dry chemical extinguishers can be used on Class C fires because dry chemicals:
A. Are chemically similar to water
B. Do not conduct electricity
C. Never actually touch the fuel
D. Are themselves electrically static

A

B. Do not conduct electricity

132
Q

What is one chemical used as a dry chemical extinguisher agent?
A. Ammonium nitrate
B. Tri-nitro toluene
C. Methyl isocyanate
D. Potassium bicarbonate

A

D. Potassium bicarbonate

133
Q

Class K fires involve:
A. Combustible metals
B. Wood and paper
C. Combustible cooking oils
D. Energized equipment

A

C. Combustible cooking oils

134
Q

When faced with an electrical emergency the fire fighter shall try to:
A. Obtain a pair of lineman gloves
B. Have equipment de-energized
C. Use a dry rope to pull victims from contact with an energized conductor
D. Wear rubber boots when approaching the emergency scene

A

B. Have equipment de-energized

135
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be shut off or disconnected by the fire fighter assigned to checking the utilities at a single family residential fire?
A. Telephone/cable televisions
B. Gas supply
C. Domestic water
D. Electric

A

A. Telephone/cable televisions

136
Q

The three most important factors that affect wildland firefighting are:
A. Fuel, equipment, and location
B. Topography, resources, and time of day
C. Fuel, weather, and topography
D. Staffing, resources, and apparatus

A

C. Fuel, weather, and topography

137
Q

Worn, damaged, and deteriorated parts of a SCBA must be replaced according to:
A. Past practice
B. NIOSH/OSHA Respiratory Protection Act
C. Manufacturer’s instructions
D. The wearer’s recommendations

A

C. Manufacturer’s instructions

138
Q

Composite SCBA cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every:
A. Year
B. Three years
C. Six years
D. Ten years

A

B. Three years

139
Q

A fire department’s comprehensive SCBA program should include:
A. Inspecting, disinfecting, maintaining, and storing
B. Visual inspection of the harness and frame only
C. An annual maintenance as a minimum
D. Using, recording, cleaning, and examining only

A

A. Inspecting, disinfecting, maintaining, and storing

140
Q

__________ should be applied to wooden tool handles to prevent roughness and warping.
A. Paint
B. Mild soap
C. Boiled linseed oil
D. Varnish

A

C. Boiled linseed oil

141
Q

After salvage covers are ______, they must be examined for holes and tears before being placed on the apparatus.
A. Rinsed off
B. Thrown
C. Dried
D. Rolled

A

C. Dried

142
Q

It is permissible to use paint on a fire department ladder:
A. To mark the bed section on multisection ladders
B. When there is a possibility of dry rot
C. To mark the ladder ends for visibility
D. When salt water may be a problem

A

C. To mark the ladder ends for visibility

143
Q

Fire department ladders should be _______ after each use and on a monthly basis.
A. Tested
B. Lubricated
C. Inspected
D. Varnished

A

C. Inspected

144
Q

When hose has been exposed to small amounts of oil, it should be washed with:
A. Clear water
B. Cold water and scrub brush
C. Mild soap or detergent
D. Solvent solution

A

C. Mild soap or detergent

145
Q

When loading fire hose, the ________ serves to change the direction of the hose and can also change the location of a coupling
A. Horsehoe
B. Flat load
C. Reverse lay
D. Dutchman

A

D. Dutchman

146
Q

The main advantage of the donut roll is:
A. The female end is exposed and the male end is protected in the center of the roll
B. Both ends are available on the outside of the roll
C. The hose can be rolled into a twin roll and secured by a portion of the hose itself
D. The couplings are connected to keep them together and protect the threads

A

B. Both ends are available on the outside of the roll

147
Q

Hose is unloaded at the scene of a fire and the pumper proceeds to the water source. This is an example of a _________ lay.
A. Combination
B. Forward
C. Reverse
D. Direct

A

C. Reverse

148
Q

Which of the following is not a method for preventing mechanical damage to fire hose?
A. Avoid closing the nozzle abruptly
B. Remove wet hose from apparatus and replace with dry hose
C. Prevent vehicles from driving over fire hose
D. Avoid laying hose over rough, sharp edges or corners

A

B. Remove wet hose from apparatus and replace with dry hose

149
Q

Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll?
A. The female
B. The male
C. Either A or B is correct
D. It depends on the diameter

A

B. The male

150
Q

Which of the following is not a common load for preconnected attack lines?
A. Flat load
B. Triple layer load
C. Straight load
D. Minuteman load

A

C. Straight load

FireFighter I & II Exam 1-3 (1 decks)

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