exam 1 Flashcards

(205 cards)

1
Q

How do you calculate your absolute nuke the blood cell differential values?

A

% × total nucleated cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you calculate your absolute reticulocyte count?

A

% reticulocyte × RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
You need to collect blood for a CBC, what color top tube would you use?
A. Red
B. Lavender
C. Blue
D. Gray
E. Green
A

B. Lavender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
What color tube what you use for coagulation test?
A. Red
B. Lavender
C. Blue
D. Gray
E. Green
A

C. Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
What color to what you use to separate the serum from rbc's? 
A. Red
B. Lavender
C. Blue
D. Gray
E. Green
A

A. Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much blood is approximately needed to run a CBC and a biochemical profile?B

A

Approximately 5 mL of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What size needle should you not use any smaller than filling tubes with blood?

A

20gauge needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How fast do you need to analyze blood for CBC?

A

Within an hour. You can also make a blood film and then refrigerate the tube.
*Don’t refrigerate the blood film.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens if you let the blood sent at room for 24 hours?F

A

Erythrocytes will swell resulting in an increase in MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the steps in doing biochemical profile with blood? (3)

A
  • Blood allowed to clot for 15 to 30 minutes -Centrifuge
  • Separate serum from clot using pipette

*Refrigerate harvested serum until analyzed Freeze if can’t analyze within two days
Some serum enzymes are not stable, but most are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the five basic hematologic techniques? T

A
  • Blood mixing
  • Packed cell volume by centrifugation
  • Plasma protein estimation by refractometry
  • Preparation of blood film
  • Differential leukocyte count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is another name packed cell volume (PCV)?

A

Hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How much should you fill the tube?

A

70 to 90% of its length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Will you find in your buffy coat? (3)

A

– Leukocytes
– nucleated erythrocytes
– platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If you see a yellow pigmentation in your plasma what would you think will cause this?

A

Icterus, where in March and was it may be due to carotene pigments associated with diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What could cause a white/opaque plasma?

A

Lipemia (chylomicrons) which is due to postprandial collection or may be due to diseases associated with abnormalities in lipid metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What could cause a red coloration in plasma?

A

Hemoglobin due to hemolysis
*May be in-vitro due to technique or presence of lipemia. May be in-vivo due to hemolytic anemia (intravascular hemolysis). If PCV not decreased, likely in-vitro.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What can artificially increase a protein estimate done by refractometry?P

A

Lipemia, along with urea, glucose, and cholesterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If you have an increased TP and PCV, what does it suggest?

A

Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you have a decreased TP and PCV, what does it suggest?

A

Blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?
How/why would it be increased?
How can it be decreased?

A

– it counts the hemoglobin in your blood.
– It could be increased by many reasons including: hemolysis, lipemia, or Heinz bodies (is an artifact/issue from collection)
– decreased may be due to an iron deficiency, or due to the presence of many reticulocytes (associated with regenerative anemia)., L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is red cell distribution width (RDW)?

A

It describes the relative width of the size distribution.O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What stain causes reticulocytes to be polychromatic?

A

Wrights stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
Which of the animals below do not release reticulocytes?
A. Cats
B. Dogs
C. Horses
D. Cows
A

C. Horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What the monocytes become?
Macrophages
26
What is the purpose of the eosinophils?
Modulation of immune complex reactions, modulation of allergic inflammation, defense against parasites, etc.
27
What can you find it in basophils? What would it increase in concentration of these mean?
Histamine, heparin, and numerous other proteins. It's related to a parasitic infestation.
28
What does penia mean?
Decreased concentration of cells
29
What does philia/cytosis it mean?
Increased concentration
30
What does a left shift referred to in blood? When would you see this?
An increase in concentration of immature neutrophils in the blood. Neutrophilia, normal concentration of neutrophils, or neutropenia. If neutropenia more severe inflammatory response.C
31
What does orderly maturation mean? What happens if it's not orderly?M
-- Concentration of each cell increases with the degree of maturity. In other words, if a left shift is orderly, there should be more bands than metamyelocytes, and more segmented neutrophils than bands. --IF it is disorderly, consumption is very severe, or a neoplastic process is present (leukemia).
32
What is leukemia?
Presence of neoplastic cells in the blood or bone marrow.
33
What can cause a neutrophil toxic change?
- Due to accelerated rate of production seen with inflammation, which results in persistence of ribosomes. - Increased basophilia of cytoplasm - Presence of Dohle bodies - Cytoplasmic vacuolation
34
True or false: you are more likely to see an excitement leukogram in a dog than a cat.
False. It is seldom seen in dogs. | *Lymphocytosis is the most prominent feature of feline excitement response.S
35
A lack of steroid response in a sick animal should trigger what consideration?
Hypoadrenocorticism
36
What will distinguish information from excitement and stress?
A left shift
37
What could cause lymphopenia? (Gen.) (3)
Steroid response, acute viral infections, immunodeficiency (rare)
38
What could cause monocytosis? (2)
Information, stress response
39
What could cause eosinophila? (3)
- Parasitism - Hypersensitivity - Lesions producing eosinophil chemoattractants, such as mast cell tumor *basophilia usually accompanies eosinophilia.
40
If you see a Schistocyte, what would you expect the disease to be?
DIC, or iron deficiency anemia
41
What can cause Heinz body anemia in small animals?(6)
-ACETAMINOPHEN (CATS) -PROPYLENE GLYCOL (CATS) -ILLNESS (CATS) (lymphoma, hyperthyroidism, diabetes) -ONIONS (ALL SPECIES), garlic powder -CEPHALOSPORINS (DOGS) -Zinc toxicosis (penny ingestion)
42
What can cause Heinz body anemia in large animals? (horses, cattle, sheep)
``` Horses: -Phenothiazine -Wilted red maple leaves Cattle: -Kale -Onions Sheep: Copper toxicosis ```
43
If you see a significant amount of Basophilic stippling in small animals you should consider what?
Lead poisoning *normal to see in ruminants. May see with very regenerative anemia in cats and dogs.
44
What are the five red blood cell parasites of dogs and cats that we need to worry about? N
- MYCOPLASMA HAEMOFELIS - CYTAUXZOON FELIS -MYCOPLASMA HAEMOCANIS - BABESIA CANIS & GIBSONI
45
What are the three ways you can have anemia?
– Increase loss (hemorrhage) –increased destruction (hemolysis) – decreased production by bone marrow
46
Define anemia.
Decrease in red blood cell mass, resulting in decreased oxygenation of tissues. *Decreased oxygenation results in numerous clinical signs.
47
What are some clinical signs associated with one destruction? (3)
– Splenomegaly – icterus (jaundice) – hemoglobinuria
48
Which is more severe for clinical signs, slow onset or rapid onset?
Rapid onset
49
What are the two different types of anemia?
Regenerative and non-regenerative
50
Where the two types of regenerative anemia?
– Blood loss (acute or chronic) | – blood destruction
51
In acute blood loss what happens to the protein in relation to PCV?
Protein decreases along with PCV. | *Erythrocyte morphologies usually normal (hemangiosarcoma in dogs is an exception)
52
List some examples of acute blood loss. (4)
* TRAUMA & SURGERY * COAGULATION DISORDERS • BLEEDING TUMORS * THROMBOCYTOPENIA* * *BLOOD LOSS DOES NOT CAUSE THROMBOCYTOPENIA*
53
List some examples of chronic blood loss. (3)
* GI ULCER * BLEEDING GI TUMOR * BLOOD CONSUMING PARASITES(90% has to do this) *LOSS VIA INTESTINE MOST COMMON
54
What is the cause of iron deficiency anemia in nursing animals and adult animals?
Nursing: inadequate intake adults: almost always do to chronic blood loss
55
Review anemia slide set slides 29-31, 34-35, 72-73, 83-87, 90-93, 98, 100, 103, 105, 107, 109-111, 114, 119, 121-126, *131-132*, 135-144
Look at Them!!!
56
What are the 2 categories of blood destruction?D
Intravascular hemolysis and extravascular hemolysis
57
What might you see with blood destruction?
``` – General signs associated with anemia – splenomegaly – hyperbilirubinemia, icterus – hemoglobinemia – hemoglobinuria – total protein normal ```
58
IMHA is often _____ two other disorders or events. Examples are infection, modified live virus vaccination, neoplasia, drugs, etc.
Secondary
59
What drugs are associated with IMHA? (4)
Penicillin, cephalosporins, trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole, levaminsole
60
What is IMHA associated with horses and cats?
Horses: penicillin clostridial infection, and neoplasia. Katz: Mycoplasma haemofelis, FeLV, neoplasia.
61
IMHA is more common in dogs than other species (or easier to recognize). List breeds most likely found in.
Cocker spaniels, poodles, collies. | *Incidence is slightly higher in females usually middle-aged to old, but also young.
62
If you see IMHA and thrombocytopenia what might be? | What would you expect the leukogram to be?
``` Immune mediated (Evans syndrome) DIC common with IMHA (also pulmonary thrombi) ``` inflammatory
63
What are the differential diagnosis for spherocytosis? (5) What is the prognosis? I
* Previous mismatched blood transfusion * Rattlesnake evenomation * Heinz body anemia in horses can look like spherocytes * Zinc toxicosis * Bee stings Mortality rate:25% to 50% *usually die of thromboembolism. Recurrence is common.R
64
What would you expect to see cell wise with IMHA?
Secure sites, a agglutination, neutrophilia with left shift, thrombocytopenia
65
What is neonatal isoerythrolysis?
Maternal antibodies against the neonates blood group antigen attached to the neonates RBCs, with subsequent RBC hemolysis.
66
What parasites cause intravascular hemolysis?
Babesia and Theileria cause intravascular hemolysis
67
What are the clinical signs of M haemfelis? (7)
``` • Those of anemia • Splenomegaly • Fever • Lethargy • Sometimes icterus • Concurrent disease, immunosuppresion, or splenectomy may predispose. • Regenerative anemia UNLESS Underlying disease, such as FeLV or severe inflammatory disease. ``` *FeLV and FIV titers indicated
68
How do you treat M haemfelis?
- Blood transfusion if anemia severe -Prednisone will suppress -RBC destruction -Doxycycline for 3 weeks - Enrofloxacin if problems with doxycycline **(Cats likely remain carriers)*
69
What transmits Feline cytauxzoonosis? Is a fatal? How do you treat it?
- Transmitted by ticks (common in Missouri) - Almost always fatal - Rx with diproprionate or diminazine aceturate.
70
What can cause methemoglobinemia in cats, cows, and horses?
Cats: acetaminophen toxicity cows: nitrite poisoning (rumen bacteria reduce nitrates to nitrites) horses: red maple leaf ingestion *congenital deficiency of NADH-methemoglobin reductase
71
What is methemoglobin?(refers to iron)
Iron is in ferric state, incapable of carrying oxygen. oxidative compounds result in excessive formation. Oxidative damage also causes Heinz body formation.
72
If blood appears to be chocolate brown, what can you assume? At what concentration of methemoglobin will an animal die? How can you treat this? A
30% of hemoglobin is methemoglobin 90% use methylene blue to reduce methemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin (activates methemoglobin reductase)
73
Where does copper accumulate in with copper toxicosis? Who is susceptible?S
It accumulates in the liver. Sheepare susceptible
74
What Clostridium is responsible for causing hemolytic anemia in lambs and calves? What is another name for this disease?
Clostridium perfringins type a yellow lamb disease
75
What Clostridium is responsible for red water disease/bacillary hemoglobinuria? What animal is usually affected? What is it associated with? What are the signs?
Clostridium hemolyticum Cattle Liver fluke migration anemia, arched back, bloody diarrhea, fever, dyspnea, hemoglobinuria(+/-)
76
Look at the slides 4, 5, 8, 11, 13, *14-17*, 38 | slide set number 6 non-responsive bone marrow
Look at them
77
What is helpful in the diagnosis of a non-regenerative anemia?
–Biochem profile (anemia of renal disease) –Bone marrow aspirate – size (only help for FeLV macrocytosis) – RBC morphology (usually not helpful)
78
What can you see if there's anemia due to bone marrow problems?T
If generalized all cell lines will decrease. RBC production problem only – hypoplasia: red cell production decreased – aplasia: no red cell production
79
What agents can cause aplastic anemia?
FeLV, ehrlichia canis, EIA (a lentivirus)
80
What is immune mediated aplastic?
Antibodies directed against stem cells. *Maybe drug-induced. Maybe idiopathic
81
What are the intrinsic factors that can cause erythroid hypoplasia? (3)i
Myelodysplasia, leukemia, immune mediated destruction of erythroid precursors
82
What are the extrinsic factors that can cause erythroid hypoplasia? (3)
Chronicling the seas, endocrine disorders, inflammatory disease.h
83
What would you expect to see with anemia of an inflammatory disease?
– mild to moderate anemia – low serum iron – increased storage iron *erythroid suppression may be due to unavailability of iron, or inflammatory cytokines
84
What are the types of endocrinopathy related anemias? (2)
Hypothyroidism, hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)
85
What would you see anemia wise with hypothyroidism?
``` Mild anemia (usually 30%) decreased metabolic rate ```
86
What would you see anemia wise with hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)?W
Mild anemia often masked by dehydration. | *Mechanism is unclear
87
Look at the slides 16, | in 7. bone marrow aspiration and interpretation slide set.
Look at slides
88
What are the five indications you should do a bone marrow aspiration?
1. Non-regenerative anemia 2. Neutropenia 3. Thrombocytopenia 4. Suspected neoplasia or monoclonal gammopathy 5. To better classifyleukemia
89
Where should you take a bone marrow aspirate from?
Trochanteric fossa or humorous.
90
True or false: local or general anesthesia is needed before doing a bone marrow aspirate.
True
91
What size needle do you need to do a bone marrow biopsy?
16 to 22gauge needle
92
What should you do when trying to take a bone marrow biopsy?
Avoid diluting with blood
93
True or false: if you don't use EDTA and are doing a bone marrow aspirate you need to make the slide (film) very quickly.
True *you have about 30 seconds to make a film.
94
After you place the bone marrow aspirate on the slide what should you do?
Are dry and use Wright's stain
95
If you are unable to obtain a bone marrow aspirate what should you do?
Take a core biopsy for histopathology.
96
What is the normal ratio for the number of granulocytes to nucleated erythrocytes? What is another name for this ratio?
1:1 up to 3:1 is normal M:E ratio
97
What does an increased M:E ratio mean? (4)
Erythroid hypoplasia or achalasia and/or granulocytic hyperplasia, granulocytic leukemia
98
What does a decreased M:E ratio mean?
Lack of production of neutrophils, or an increase in RBC production.
99
What other cells might you see in a bone marrow aspirate? (6)
Plasma cells, lymphocytes, macrophages, mast cells (common in dogs), osteoblasts and osteoclasts (rare to see in bone marrow aspirate)
100
What microorganisms might you see in the bone marrow aspirate? (4)
Histoplasma capsulatum Toxoplasma gondii Leishmania donovani Red cell parasites
101
What does homeostasis mean?
Stoppage of blood
102
How do you achieve the goal of homeostasis without obstructing blood flow?
You need interaction of: (blood vessels, platelets, coagulation factors) = fibrin formation and fibrinolysis. Or thrombus formation (blood clot)
103
Look at slide number 12 slide set number 8
.
104
How long does the platelet last? (It's lifespan)
3 to 5 days
105
How much the spleens mass is taken up my plate?
1/3
106
What are macro platelets suggestive of and what's their size?
They are about the size of a red blood cell and they suggest an increase in the production
107
Look at slide 15 – 17 in set 8
.
108
What is the maturation time of a megakaryoblast to platelet release?
4 to 5 days
109
Where is thrombopoietin(TPO) made? (List 2)
Liver and endothelium | *look at slide 18
110
What are the functions of platelets? (3)
Increase metabolic activity, primary homeostasis, support secondary homeostasis.
111
What happens during the formation of a primary and metastatic plug (primary homeostasis)?(KNOW THESE)
``` – 3-5 minutes – PLTs adhere to subendothelium – Undergo activation (including shape change) – Secrete their granules – Aggregate to form a platelet plug ```
112
What is necessary for adhesion of the platelets?(4)
``` *1. Von Willebrand factor (vWF) – binds to GPIb on PLT surface – bridge b/w PLTs and collagen* 2. ADP 3. Ca2+ 4. Serotonin ```
113
What is one of the main things that happen during activation?
Shape change
114
Why is shape change so important when it comes to the activation step of primary hemostasis?
• From smooth discs to spheres with many filopodia • Occurs in response to thrombin • *↑ surface area* *can increase surface area by 3 to 5 times. This will create a bigger area for secondary hemostasis to occur.
115
What are the different steps during the activation stage of primary hemostasis? (4)
–Shape change – flip the membranes – carry a negative charge on the outer membrane surface – the creation of granule products(look at slide 30 for more information on this step)
116
What do the granule contents made during primary hemostasis stimulate?
``` • Aggregation – Irreversible process – Fibrinogen binds activated PLTs and bridges adjacent PLTs – Ca2+ is required • Platelet plug formation ```
117
Look at slide 32 of set8
.
118
What are the important tests to find completely concentration and morphology (size)?
Blood smear and hematology analyzers
119
What's a good test to find out the production of platelets?
Bone marrow aspirate (BMA)
120
Look at the slides 35 – 48. Set 8
.
121
During your hematology analyzer test you see an increased MPV, what can this suggest?
Increased thrombopoiesis
122
KNOW slides 50 – 66 set 8 this will be all over the exam.S
.
123
Is there any disease specifically associated with thrombocytopenia?
Diagnostic problem, not a specific disease
124
What are the clinical features of thrombocytopenia? (5)
– Mucosal bleeding – Petechiation – Ecchymosis – Spontaneous hemorrhage: PLT count <20,000/μL – +/- Hemorrhagic anemia
125
What are the mechanisms of thrombocytopenia? (6)
``` – Loss(hemorrhage) – consumption – destruction – decreased production – abnormal distribution – Pseudothrombocytopenia ```
126
Can hemorrhage cause significant thrombocytopenia on its own? Any exceptions?E
Hemorrhage alone does not usually cause significant thrombocytopenia. an exception is acute severe hemorrhage may result in mild thrombocytopenia.
127
What is meant by consumption as a mechanism of thrombocytopenia?A
Utilization of plates coagulation
128
What are some of the causes of consumption (thrombocytopenia)?(3)
–Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) – vasculitis (Rickettsial disease, FIP) – viral infection
129
What is the degree of thrombocytopenia caused by consumption?
Mild to moderate
130
When can hemorrhage occur during the consumption mechanism of thrombocytopenia?O
Hemorrhage occurs if there are coagulation defects (DIC) or leakage of blood from vessels (vasculitis).
131
If you see a low number of platelet count to the point where you can have instant bleeding, what should you think? (Can be exam question)
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP)
132
What are your primary and secondary causes of ITP?
Primary/idiopathic secondary: drugs, viruses, sepsis, neoplasia *LOOK AT SLIDE 57
133
Look at slide 58
.
134
Where the clinical signs of thrombocytopenia due to destruction? (2)
– associated with thrombocytopenia | – +/- anemia
135
LOOK AT SLIDE 60 | WILL BE ON EXAM
.
136
If destruction is causing thrombocytopenia and you do a bone marrow aspirate, what would you expect to see?D
Increased megakaryocytes * look at slide 61
137
In thrombocytopenia what could cause the decreased production? (3)
– Bone marrow hypoplasia – neoplasia – myelonecrosis or myelofibrosis *look at slide 63
138
Look at slide 65 & 66.
.
139
What are the two major mechanisms of thrombocytosis?
Increased production and increased distribution plasma
140
What are some diseases associated with thrombocytosis?
*– chronic inflammatory disease – iron deficiency anemia – chronic hemorrhage – IMHA *look at slide 69
141
Look at slide 70.
.
142
What are the two things you see in animals that are suspect for qualitative disorders? What are the two causes?
1. Clinical signs of thrombocytopenia (mucosal bleeding, petechiation, ecchymosis 2. Normal platelet count acquired causes and inherited causes (many intrinsic platelet defects identified)
143
What are the required causes of qualitative disorders? (4)
Urania, drugs, fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs), paraproteins(slide 73 for this)
144
What are some examples of drugs in acquired qualitative disorders?
Aspirin, Phenylbutazone, acetaminophen, NSAIDS, Some anesthetics, xanthine derivatives, and calcium channel blockers.
145
How does fibrin degradation products (FDPs) work?
Inhibit PLT function in disease process ( e.g.DIC)
146
What are the inherited causes of qualitative disorders? (4)
– Absence of glycoprotein receptors – Absence or reduction in platelet granules – Signal transduction defects – Von Willebrand’s disease
147
KNOW SLIDE 75, 78-80.
.
148
vWF is a carrier for what factor?
VIII | know slide 78
149
What are the 2 types of coagulation factors in secondary hemostasis, and where are they made?
Enzymatic and non-enzymatic synthesized in the liver *look at slide seven set number nine
150
What is required for the initiation of secondary hemostasis?
tissue factor
151
Look at slide 21 and 23 in set number 9.
.
152
What are the vitamin K dependent cofactors/proenzymes ? (4) know these for example
Factors/Proenzymes II, VII, IX, X. Is all done in liver. *hint to help remember (2+7 = 9, which is close to 10)
153
What is the key factor that promotes amplification of secondary hemostasis?
Thrombin
154
What can inhibit the production of fibrin?
Antithrombin (AT)
155
What is the drug that works to activate antithrombin, thus inhibiting fibrin formation?
Heparin
156
What are the two primary test used for procoagulation activity?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT, PTT), and prothrombin time (PT)
157
Look at slides for set 10.
.
158
What are the two types of anticoagulant tests
Fibrinolytic activity, and inhibitor consumption.
159
What does the fibrinolytic activity test?
Fibrin degradation products (FDPs) and D – dime
160
What does inhibitor consumption test?
Anti- thrombin (AT)
161
How the citrate plasma differ from what?
No RBCs, no WBCs, no PLT's. Also decreased calcium (show latest by citrate)
162
Look at slide eight on set 10
.
163
What are the two intrinsic/common pathway test? What did both tests test? What is the significance of prolonged time?
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and activated clotting time (ECT) they both test for time 1) Deficiency or inhibition of any intrinsic or common pathway factor 2) Heparin therapy
164
What does the activated partial thromboplastin time measure time for? what percent efficiency is needed before you detect anything?
Fibrin clot formation inCitrate plasma plus contacted activator plus calcium plus PLT phospholipid substitutes 70%
165
What does ACT measure? What percent deficiency is needed before section?
Time for fibrin clot formation in non-anticoagulated whole blood 95%
166
What does prothrombin time test?
Fibrin clot formation in citrated plasma plus tissue factor plus calcium plus late with Oslo lipid substitutes (slide 18/10 )
167
Look at slide 23/10
.
168
When what you see an increase with FDPs?
Increased fibrinolysis, severe internal hemorrhage with fibrinolysis, decreased clearance of FDP by liver
169
Look at slide 26/0
.
170
Look at slide 29/10
.
171
Look at slide 34-58/10
.
172
What are some clinical features you would see with vitamin K deficiency?
Anemia, weakness, hypovolemia, shock, lameness, neurological signs, and even death.
173
How would you treat vitamin K deficiency/warfarin toxicity?
Supplement with vitamin K, decontaminate, and use plasma and/or blood transfusions.
174
What does DIC cause?
Continued activation of coagulation and fibrinolysis
175
Know slide number 46/10
.
176
Where the clinical signs associated with DIC?
Signs associated with signs of primary disease. Signs of organ dysfunction secondary to thrombosis. Bleeding (mucosal (PLT consumption), hemorrhage (factor consumption)).
177
KNOW SLIDE NUMBER 51/10
.
178
Slides 5 – 6/11 are terminology
.
179
What are the two major dog blood type systems? (Not the DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2, they are examples of one system)
The two systems are dog erythrocyte antigen (DEA) blood system and the Dal blood system.
180
What are the seven different types of blood in the DEA blood system?
DEA 1.1, 1.2, DEA 3 –7 *dogs can have more than 1 RBC antigen (blood type)
181
Which are the most immunogenic blood types of the DEA system?
DEA 1.1 (is 45% population) and DEA 1.2 (20% of population)
182
Which blood types are considered to be the universal donors for dogs?
DEA 4+ and/or DEA 6+
183
Which of the DEA blood types are expressed in 98% of dogs? (2 types)
DEA 4 and 6
184
Look at slides 23-24/11
.
185
Which DEA's is reported in delayed transfusion reaction?L
DEA 3, 5, and 7
186
What is the Dal blood system?
It's a blood system with one single antigen (Dal) it is ubiquitous in non-Dalmatians. *Look at slide 25/10
187
What are the two blood systems for cats?
The AB group system and the Mik system.
188
Do cats have a universal donor for blood?
No
189
What should you do before giving of blood transfusion to any and all Cats?
Blood type
190
In the AB group system what type it is most common?
Type A. 95% of cats have this type.
191
What is the antigenic reaction of type A blood to a type B transfusion?
Weak
192
What's the percent you find of type B blood in cats? (brittish breeds in US)
25 – 50%
193
What is the type B's blood antigenic response to a type A transfusion?
Very strong. Can be severe and lethal transfusion reactions.
194
What type of blood is the universal recipient in cats?
Type AB
195
Look at slide 32-35/10
.
196
How many blood systems do horses have? Do they have in universal donors?
They have 7 blood systems no universal donors *slide 36/10
197
What two types of blood are highly immunogenic in horses? | What is an implication with these two blood types? (Think of mother and foal)
Aa and Qa Neonatal isoerythrolysis (NI) *slide 37/10
198
Will you see equine neonatal isoerythrolysis with the first foal?
No, it's associated with the second | * slide 39-40/10
199
What are the clinical signs of equine neonatal isoerythrolysis?
Lethargy, weakness, icterus, increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate. (All in foal) severe cases: hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, severe hypoxia leading to convulsions/coma/death
200
Look at the slides 39-40, 47-50 set 11. equine neonatal isoerythrolysis
.
201
What is the purpose of blood typing?
Identify specific RBC antigens | slide 52/10
202
What are the different ways to blood type? (2) (slides 51-59 cover this)
typing cards and typing dipsticks
203
On a typing card for canine blood what would agglutination mean?
Positive
204
On a typing card for cats what would agglutination mean?
Type B | no agglutination= Type A
205
On a canine blood typing dipstick, what would a strong line beyond the control mean?
DEA 1.1 *weak line= 1.2 no line=not 1.1 or 1.2