Exam 1 Flashcards
(118 cards)
1
Q
T/F most foodborne disease originates from animals
A
T
2
Q
T/F zoonoses account for 60% of emerging diseases
A
F: 75%
3
Q
What is epizootiology?
A
study of the distribution and determinants of disease and other health outcomes in animal populations
4
Q
How is cholera transmitted?
A
fecal oral (thanks John Snow)
5
Q
T/F With disease prevention, knowing the mode of transmission is more important than knowing the specific agent of disease
A
T
6
Q
What is a reservoir?
A
habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies; maintains pathogen over time
7
Q
3 questions to determine if an animal is a reservoir
A
- is it naturally infected
- can that animal maintain the pathogen over time
- can it transmit to a new susceptible host
8
Q
balanced pathogenicity
A
pathogens can cause chronic infections with minimal symptoms
9
Q
T/F if you are infected, you have the disease
A
F
10
Q
T/F clinically ill animals that are reservoir competent are probably infectious
A
T
11
Q
T/F all sick animals are reservoirs
A
F
12
Q
T/F you must be clinically ill to be a reservoir
A
F: asymptomatic carriers
13
Q
vertical transmission
A
from a reservoir host to its offspring
- congenital : crosses placenta
- perinatal: parturition, colostrum
14
Q
horizontal transmission
A
from the reservoir to a new host
direct or indirect
15
Q
T/F vectors must be living organisms
A
T
16
Q
mechanical vector
A
the agent does not multiply while in or on the arthropod
17
Q
biological vector
A
the agent undergoes change or multiplies while in the arthropod and the arthropod is necessary for transmission
18
Q
What is the vector for Lyme disease?
A
ticks!
19
Q
What is the reservoir host for West Nile?
A
birds
20
Q
latent period
A
microbe is multiplying but not yet enough for host to be infectious
21
Q
incubation period
A
microbe is replicating but not yet symptomatic yet **doesn’t always correlate with latent period
22
Q
infestation
A
invasion but not multiplication of an organism on/in a host
23
Q
contagious
A
disease capable of transmission via direct or aerosol routes
24
Q
What do epidemic curves represent?
A
new cases of disease over time
25
The propagated source curve represents what kind of diseases?
contagious diseases
26
In a propagated source curve, what do the spaces between "waves" represent?
incubation period
27
T/F With a common source single point exposure curve, all animals are exposed at once.
T: it only forms one peak!
28
T/F with a common source intermittent exposure, the incubation period is clearly shown
F: this is the crazy looking curve
29
endemic stability
all factors influencing the disease are relatively stable, resulting in little fluctuation in incidence over time
30
primary determinant
major contributing factor, often necessary
31
secondary determinant
make the disease more or less likely
32
T/F primary determinants must be there for the disease to occur
T
33
primary extrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever
exposure to shipping fever
34
secondary extrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever
if you mix cattle
35
primary intrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever
immunologically naive animal
36
secondary intrinsic determinant for bovine shipping fever
young cattle
37
primary extrinsic determinant for flea allergy dermatitis
exposure to fleas
38
Which determinant is the best target for prevention of disease?
something that is both primary and extrinsic
39
intrinsic host determinants
age, breed, sex, nutrition, immunity, genotype
40
Is diet an extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?
extrinsic
41
Is nutritional status extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?
intrinsic
42
Is vaccination an extrinsic or intrinsic determinant?
extrinsic
43
Is immunity extrinsic or intrinsic?
intrinsic
44
Does herd immunity protect individuals?
NO: some non-immune individuals will probably get infected
45
What is a human example of herd immunity?
When people stopped getting the MMR vaccine becaucse of autism scare
46
What is an emerging disease?
a previously unknown disease that suddenly appears in a population OR a known disease that appears in a new population
47
What is a re-emerging disease?
a known disease that was on the decline but is now becoming more common and will likely continue to do so
48
What does disease detection involve?
identifies something abnormal, diagnose the dilemma
49
What does disease investigation involve?
communicates disease importance, attracts resources
50
What does disease control involve?
implement disease control, management, eradication
51
What are the stages of cross-species disease emergence?
1. pathogen exclusive to animal reservoir
2. transmits to another species, but no transmission among them
3. transmits to another species with a few cycles of transmission
4. transmits to another species with sustained transmission
5. pathogen exclusive to new species
52
Examples of stage 2 diseases
rabies, WEEV, EEEV, West Nile, Influenza H1N1
53
Examples of stage 3 diseases
Mycobacterium bovis, Nipah virus
54
Examples of stage 4 diseases
SARS, Schmallenberg, H1N1
55
T/F pathogens that cross between distantly related species often cause more severe disease
T
56
4 portals of entry for transboundary disease
1. animals/animal products
2. vectors
3. fomites
4. people
57
What is bioterrorism?
deliberate release of viruses, bacteria, toxins or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants
58
What is agroterrorism
malicious attempt to disrupt or destroy the agricultural industry and/or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural sectors
59
4 phases of disaster management
preparedness
response
recovery
mitigation
60
What is mitigation?
attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters or to reduce effects of disasters
61
What is preparedness?
plans and preparations made to save lives and property and to facilitate response operations
62
What is response?
actions taken to provide emergency assistance, save lives, minimize property damage,e and speed recovery
63
What is recovery?
actions taken to return to normal or improved condition following a disaster
64
What are some issues with companion animals in disasters?
- failure of people to evacuate because of pets
- animal ID
- animal abandonment
65
What are some issues with large animals in disasters?
- carcass disposal
- vet manpower
- environmental contamination
- animal ID
66
What is CART?
county animal response team intended for use by local government and agencies to take immediate action in providing means of care to minimize animal suffering in the event of a large scale disaster
67
What is SART?
State animal response team; interagency organization; public private partnership, joining governmental agencies with private goals
68
What is VMAT?
veterinary medical assistance team (federal); must be requested by a state; operate under AVMA
69
What are VMATs 3 functions
- early assessment volunteer teams
- basic treatment volunteer teams
- training
70
What is NVRT?
national veterinary response team; part of Dept of Health (federal); intermittent federal employees
71
What is NAHERC?
part of USDA; respond to exotic disease outbreaks and other disasters which affect livestock, poultry, companion animals and wildlife
72
US public health service
federal employee; 100+ vets included
73
What is NRF?
national response framework establishes comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response; through Dept Homeland Security;
*always in effect
74
What is NIMS?
national incident management system; core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for incident common and multi-agency coordination
75
What is the incident command system?
part of NIMS, standardized, all-hazard incident management with standardized terminology; 1:5 ratio ideal
76
Which two ICS functions are vets involved with?
operations and planning
77
How are diseases chosen to be considered "regulatory"?
adverse impact on agriculture or human health risk
78
T/F countries which are members of OIE must report an outbreak of a notifiable disease within 48 hours
F: 24 hours
79
T/F the USDA has vets in every state
T
80
What is the only lab in the US that can diagnose a FAD?
USDA lab
81
T/F negative results from state labs count but positive results must be confirmed at USDA lab
T
82
T/F only accredited vets can perform health certificate exams and activities related to bovine TB, rabies
T
83
Category II accreditation
all animals without exclusions; 6 units supplemental training every 3 years
84
Category I accreditation
excludes food and fiber species, horses, all birds, farm-raised aquatic species, and zoo animals that could transmit diseases to livestock; 3 units supplemental training every 3 years
85
risk equations
```
risk = probability X severity
risk = hazard + outrage
```
86
T/F fear is more common than denial
T but denial is more dangerous
87
4 risk communication tasks
1. precaution advocacy
2. outrage management
3. crisis communication
4. sweet spot
88
precaution advocacy
hazard high and outrage low
89
outrage management
hazard low and outrage high
90
crisis communication
hazard high and outrage high
91
sweet spot
hazard and outrage intermediate
92
What are 2 common risk communication mistakes in vet med?
withholding information with the intent to prevent panic; over-assurance of audience to lessen their fear
93
T/F trade borders can be closed if a nation has substandard surveillance
T even if not dz is detected
94
3 components of surveillance
detection
response
communication
95
biosurveillance
surveillance of humans, animals and plants for diseases affecting any or all of them
96
passive surveillance
submission initiated by and at discretion of sample provider; little or no control over who provides samples
*most common
97
What type of surveillance are reportable disease programs?
passive
98
active surveillance
vets identify subjects for sample collection; can be representative of population (but not necessarily)
99
T/F active surveillance is good for early detection of disease outbreaks
F
100
sentinel surveillance
a small group is monitored as an indicator of the greater population health or disease risk
101
targeted surveillance
targets a specific segment of the population to enhance detection of disease
102
What is required to maintain accredited free status for bovine TB?
- make bovine TB reportable by law
- vet infrastructure that can conduct TB eradication program
- surveillance to show prevalence is
103
primary prevention
aimed at maintaining a healthy population, preventing occurrence of a disease
104
What are some examples of primary prevention?
vaccination, border security, meat hygiene
105
secondary prevention
attempts to minimize damage after disease has occurred
106
What are some examples of secondary prevention?
PE and annual bloodwork for geriatric pets, test and slaughter
107
tertiary prevention
rehabilitation after primary and secondary prevention have failed
108
T/F tertiary prevention applies mostly to the population
F: to the individual
| symptomatic, diseased patient
109
Corrective shoes for equine navicular disease is an example of what kind of prevention?
tertiary
110
What is defined as steps taken to reduce a disease problem to a tolerable level and maintain that level?
control *similar to secondary prevention
111
What is practical eradication?
elimination of an organism from reservoirs of importance to humans or domestic animals
112
What is an example of a disease managed with practical eradication?
rabies
113
What is an example of a disease that is totally eradicated?
smallpox or rinderpest
114
T/F an animal can be infected before the symptomatic period of disease?
T
115
How do you achieve reservoir neutralization?
- removing infected individuals
- rendering infected individuals non shedders
- manipulating environment with parasite/mosquito control
116
Leash laws to control rabies is which principle of disease control?
reducing contact potential
117
What are some ways to increase host resistance?
genetic selection, good welfare, chemoprophylaxis, vaccination
118
T/F WTO member nations have the right to apply any measures to protect human, animal and plant life
F: must be based on science
