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RUSVM PID > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Opportunistic disease

A

Pre-infection before clinical signs show. Often times disease is due to a weakened immune system

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2
Q

What is the response period for innate/adaptive immunity?

A

Innate: minutes/hours
Adaptive: days

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3
Q

What are the self recognizing cells in the innate immune system?

A

PRRs (recognize PAMPs)
-PAMPs are on the surface of the microbe, they will bind to the PRRs on the macrophage cell, the microbe will then be engulfed and digested
Toll like receptors
NK cells

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4
Q

Endogenic infection

A

Reactivity on of previously dormant bacteria. Can be caused from stress.

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5
Q

Obligate symbionts

A

Require a host

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6
Q

Phagocytosis

A

Engulfment and digestion of infectious agents or other foreign bodies by phagocytic cells

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7
Q

Host specificity

A

Parasites prefer specific hosts and require a specific host to complete life cycle

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8
Q

Example of gram-negative enterobacteriacae

A

E. Coli

Salmonella

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9
Q

What are the two structural classes of a bacterial envelope?

A

Gram-positive

Gram-negative

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10
Q

Premunition

A

Resistance to reinfect ion or super infection due to presence of parasites that are alive but in check by host immunity

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11
Q

What are three secretion systems?

A

Porin
Injection system
Membrane vesicles

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12
Q

Obligate pathogen

A

Pathogen must cause disease in current host before moving to the next host cell

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13
Q

What are the functions of the bacterial envelope?

A

Protection
package internal components
provide structural rigidity
produce energy

Some also: enable adhesion, provide resistance to antibiotics or detergents, enable mating

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14
Q

What is the cellular mechanism of innate immunity?

A

Phagocytes (macrophages and neutrophils)

Natural killer cells

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15
Q

What are the 6 common entry routes for parasites?

A 
Ingestion
Skin or mucosal penetration
Transplacental 
Transmammary
Arthropod bite
Sexual contact
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16
Q

Incidental host

A

Unusual host, unnecessary for maintenance of the parasite in nature

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17
Q

What are the characteristics of gram-positive cells

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer
Teichoic acids attached to peptidoglycan
Stains purple

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18
Q

Where are a large amount of neutrophils stored?

A

Bone marrow

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19
Q

What are the functions of type I interferon?

A
  1. Induce resistance to viral replication in the cell
  2. Increase MHC class I expression and antigen presentation in all cells
  3. Activate NK cells to kill virus-infected cells
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20
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

No need for oxygen to grow

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21
Q

Exogenic infection

A

Infection coming from outside the host

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22
Q

What 6 concepts do we need to know about HHM as a vet?

A
  • functional structure of the farm relating to health, production, economics, animal welfare and environment
  • pathophysiology, diagnosis, disease prevention and production deficiencies
  • epidemiological skills (diagnostic test parameters, outbreak investigation, surveillance, interpret results)
  • data processing techniques
  • communication and education
  • food/public safety aspects
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23
Q

What are three virulence factors against phagocytes?

A 
Extracellular bacteria (capsule/metabolites)
Biofilm
Facultative intracellular
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24
Q

Endotoxins provide significant immune response. (T/F)

A

False- these components hide from the immune system

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25
Q

What is an example of a gram-negative endotoxin?

A

LPS- made up of lipid A on the inner core, also contains O-antigen on the outer core which triggers the immune system

Functions to protect bacteria from toxins

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26
Q

What are the characteristics of insects?

A

Three pairs of legs
Head, thorax and abdomen
Antenna

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27
Q

What are the components of the adaptive immune system that recognize self from non-self?

A

Antigen presentation
Antibodies
T-cell receptors

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28
Q

What are two classes of Arthropods?

A

Arachnids

Insects

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29
Q

What is the importance of a capsule?

A

Assists in bacterial invasion by prevention of engulfment via WBC
Aids in attachment
Increased tolerance to antimicrobial agents

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30
Q

Subunit vaccines

A

Antigenic part of bacteria isolated

Humoral activation only

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31
Q

When is a drastic increase in NK cells seen?

A

After a viral infection

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32
Q

What type of antigens do capsules, flagella and pili have?

A

Capsule: k-antigen
Flagella: h-antigen
Pili: F-antigens

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33
Q

Does multiplication of Protozoa occur within the host?

A

Yes

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34
Q

Facultative pathogen

A

Organisms are present in the body, but no harm is caused under normal conditions

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35
Q

Three things to keep in mind for parasite diagnosis.

A

Host species
Site of infection
Size of parasite

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36
Q

What is the life span of a neutrophil?

A

1 day

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37
Q

What type of immune cell is important in the defense against helminths?

A

Eosinophils

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38
Q

Intermediate host

A

Harbors larval or asexual stage of parasite

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39
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

Cell wall components in bacteria causing lots of cell damage with little immune response

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40
Q

Septicemia

A

Infection in the bloodstream

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41
Q

What are characteristics of nematodes (roundworms)?

A 
Free-living/parasitic
Elongated
Alimentary canal present (digestive system)
Sexes are separate
Direct life cycle
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42
Q

Eukaryotic cells

A

Contain a nucleus
Have membrane bound organelles
Large and complex

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43
Q

What are the virulence factors involved in adhesion?

A

Flagella

Pili

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44
Q

Explain loss of nutrients in relation to virulence.

A

Competition with host for nutrients, interface with nutrient absorption, nutrient loss

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45
Q

Definitive host

A

Harbors adult or sexual stage of parasite

Adult worms DON’T multiply here

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46
Q

Example of gram-negative non-fermentative rods.

A

Bordetella
Pseudomonas
Pasteurella
Brucello

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47
Q

What is the function of the surface components?

A

Flagella-motility
Pili/fimbriae-adherence to surfaces or bacterial interaction
Sex pilus-bacterial conjunction transfer of plasmids
Secretion systems-release of proteins

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48
Q

Does multiplication of Helminths occur in the host?

A

No

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49
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

Cellular and humoral activation
Fast production
Not very common for bacteria

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50
Q

What is the vet’s role in regards to parasitology?

A 
Know parasites that cause disease
Which are clinically relevant
Which are zoonotic
Diagnostic tools used to detect parasites
Minimize impact on production
Daily treatments used in practice
Sustainable interventions to manage
51
Q

What is the difference of ectoparasite vs. endoparasite?

A

Ectoparasite: lives on the host and causes infestation
Endoparasite: lives in the host and causes infection

52
Q

Bacterins

A

Inactivated complete bacteria isolated from diseased animal

Humoral activation only

53
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Antibody response (humoral) and lymphocyte-mediated response (cell-mediated) tailored to particular infection characterized by memory

54
Q

What function does the cytoplasm facilitate and what three molecules make up the cytoplasm?

A

Facilitate chemical reactions and dissolve solutes containing nucleoid and ribosomes
Macromolecules
Small molecules
Inorganic ions

55
Q

How does bacteria evade the innate immune system?

A

Intracellular multiplication
Virulence factors directed against phagocytes
Enzymes that degrade

56
Q

What is a way bacteria can evade the host immune system?

A

Intracellular multiplication

57
Q

What are characteristics of arachnids?

A

Four pairs of legs (adult) larvae have 3 pairs
Body has a cephalo-thorax and abdomen
No antenna

58
Q

What are the major cell types of the adaptive immune system?

A

T cells
B cells
Antigen presenting cells

59
Q

What are characteristics of Trematoda? (Flukes)

A

Dorso-ventrally flat (flounder like)
Leaf like
Oral and ventral suckers

60
Q

Examples of gram-positive aerobic rods

A

Bacillus
Listeria
Mycobacterium

61
Q

What are two examples of arachnids?

A

Ticks

Mites

62
Q

What is an example of a beta interferon?

A

Fibroblast interferon

63
Q

What are four types of insects?

A

Fleas
Flies
Louse
Hemiptera (bed bugs)

64
Q

Sub clinical disease

A

No recognizable clinical symptoms, patient may not be feeling normal but not actually sick. (Ex. Mastitis)

65
Q

What are two examples of gram-positive endotoxins?

A

Lipoteichoic acid

Peptidoglycan

66
Q

What is the key importance of endospores?

A

Dormant bacteria can survive in adverse conditions for long periods

67
Q

What are major cell types of the innate immune response?

A

Phagocytes (monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils)
NK cells
Dendritic cells

68
Q

How can tapeworms be transmitted to humans?

A

Eating raw/undercooked pork or ingesting the egg accidentally

69
Q

What are the three types of symbiotic bacteria?

A

Mutualism: +/+
Commensalism: +/0
Parasitism: +/-

70
Q

What is an anatoxin?

A

Chemically treated toxin
No longer toxic but still antigenic
Ex: vaccine

71
Q

What is a parasite?

A

Small organism that lives on or in and at the expense of a host

72
Q

Examples of gram-positive anaerobic rods

A

Clostridium

73
Q

Describe characteristics of Protozoa

A

Unicellular

Eukaryotic

74
Q

Type III exotoxins are made up of two components, what are they and what do they do?

A

A component: goes intracellular

B component: binds to the membrane

75
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

Prefers oxygenated environment, but can grow in either

76
Q

What are 5 constitutional factors of innate immunity?

A 
Genetic
Age
Metabolic factors
Neuroendocrine 
Environment
77
Q

What is virulence?

A

Degree or severity of disease caused by a microbe

78
Q

Acquired immunity

A

Specific immunity response resulting from previous infection

79
Q

What zoonotic parasite is seen in cat litter?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

80
Q

What does a bacterial membrane contain?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane, cell wall and capsule (+/-)

81
Q

Where are natural barriers and normal flora found?

A 
Skin
GI tract
Respiratory tract
Urogenital tract
Eyes
82
Q

Characteristics of a prokaryotic cell

A

Lack nucleus
No membrane bound organelles
Small and simplistic

83
Q

What are the virulence factors involved in invasion?

A

Capsule
Toxins
Biofilms

84
Q

What is contained within the nucleoid?

A

DNA, RNA, nucleoid associated proteins (NAPs), DNA gyrase and topoisomerase

85
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Includes the exotoxins

Humoral activation only

86
Q

Explain penetration of anatomical barriers

A

Parasites use mechanical or biting mouthparts as well as molecular interaction

87
Q

Virulence factors

A

Structural or chemical components of the microbe that cause disease

88
Q

What are the four types of surface components?

A

Flagella
Pili/fimbrae
Sex pilus
Secretion systems

89
Q

Facultative symbionts

A

Interacting species that derive benefit from each other, but don’t necessarily need each other to survive

90
Q

What are the 5 objectives of herd health management?

A
  • Optimize health status by preventing health, production and reproduction problems
  • optimize productivity by improving HHM
  • optimize animal welfare and ecological quality of measurement
  • optimize quality and safety of dairy/meat products
  • optimize profitability of enterprises
91
Q

What are the functions of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

Selective permeability layer
Key role in ETC and proton motive force
Anchor for external surfaces

92
Q

Explain hyperacute, acute, subacute and chronic disease

A

Hyperacute: rapid onset of disease, leads to death quickly
Acute: rapid onset of disease, brief period of symptoms, resolution in days with antibiotics and fluids
Subacute: patient gradually gets worse
Chronic: long and ongoing

93
Q

What are biofilms composed of and why are they hard to treat?

A

Composed of polysaccharides, proteins and nucleic acids

Harder to treat due to reduced susceptibility to antibiotics

94
Q

Describe a plasmid

A

Circular DNA replicating separately from the nucleoid
Non-essential in normal conditions
Contain genes associated with causing disease or survival in antimicrobial presence

95
Q

Explain the effects of exotoxins Type I, II, & III.

A

Type I: disturbance of cell metabolism (C. Perfringens)
Type II: cell wall damage (S. aureus)
Type III: intracellular toxins (Botulism)

96
Q

What is the primary function of a neutrophil?

A

Phagocytize and kill EXTRACELLULAR bacterial and yeasts pathogens in acute inflammation

97
Q

Examples of gram-positive aerobic cocci

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus

98
Q

What are the characteristics of a gram-negative cell?

A

Thin peptidoglycan layer
Contain LPS in the outer membrane
Stains pink

99
Q

What type of cells commonly form spores?

A

Gram positive cells

Bacillus
Clostridium

100
Q

What are the three main parasites that are zoonotic?

A

Helminths
Ectoparasite
Protozoa

101
Q

What are four components of exotoxins?

A

Bacterial metabolites
High molecular weight=antigenic
Three classes (I, II, & III)
Anatoxins

102
Q

What are the factors that virulence and pathogenesis is dependent on?

A 
Infective dose and exposure
Penetration of anatomical barriers
Attachment
Cell and tissue damage (mechanical damage/toxic products)
Loss of nutrients
103
Q

What larvae penetrates the skin and creates cutaneous larval migrans(inflammatory tracks)?

A

Hookworms

104
Q

What is the herd health management approach?

A

Optimize health, welfare, and production based on records
Based on prevention
Proactive approach to health management

105
Q

Pathogenicity

A

Ability of an organism to cause disease

106
Q

What is an example of an alpha interferon?

A

Leukocyte interferon

107
Q

What four things do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common?

A

Cytoplasm
Cell membrane
Ribosomes
DNA

108
Q

Explain the two aspects of cell and tissue damage. (Mechanical damage and toxic products)

A

Mechanical damage: blockage of internal organs, pressure atrophy and migration through tissue
Toxic products: destructive enzymes, endotoxins, toxic secretions

109
Q

Nematodes hide in the host, emerge in synchrony and break down mucosal lining of the large intestine. What kind of virulence is this?

A

Penetration of anatomical barrier

110
Q

What are helminths and three classes of them?

A

Worm-like animals showing differentiation
Nematode (roundworm)
Cestode (tapeworm-flatworm)
Trematode (fluke-flatworm)

111
Q

Explain the direct transmission states for infection

A
  1. Susceptible
  2. Time of infection
  3. Latent period (infection setting in and multiplying)
  4. Infectious period (animal can shed infection)
  5. Non-infectious (host is removed or recovered)
112
Q

What are three characteristics of alpha/beta interferons?

A

Type I
Inducing agents
Antiviral action

113
Q

What is the traditional approach to herd health management?

A

Based on treatment of sick animals only

More medical management and less prevention

114
Q

Examples of gram-negative anaerobic rods.

A

Clostridium

Fusobacterium

115
Q

Nematode infection in an animal’s small intestine resulting in blockage, what kind of virulence is this?

A

Mechanical damage

116
Q

A small dog has a severe tick infestation and experiences anemia, what kind of virulence factor is this?

A

Loss of nutrients

117
Q

What are characteristics of Cestoda (tapeworms)?

A

Flat body
No alimentary canal-absorb everything
Contain a head (with suckers to hold onto intestines)
Contains strobila (body) with proglottid (segments)
Each proglottid is hermaphroditic

118
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Functions in normal hosts WITHOUT previous exposure to invading microbes

119
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Don’t use oxygen, uniform growth, won’t be harmed if oxygen is present

120
Q

What are the 7 farm operational areas?

A 
Animal nutrition
Health care
Reproduction
Milk production
Herd replacement
Fixed assets/labor
Cash management
121
Q

Explain direct transmission states of disease.

A
  1. Susceptible
  2. Time of infection
  3. Incubation period (infected but no clinical signs)
  4. Symptomatic period (display clinical signs)
  5. Non-infectious (removed or recovered)
122
Q

What are the steps of disease occurrence?

A

Adhesion
Invasion
Toxin release

123
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Require oxygen for growth

RUSVM PID (1 decks)

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