exam 1 Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
the branch of medicine, policy, and administration that protects populations of people from diseases
A
public health
2
Q
intersection of vet medicine and public health
A
vet public health
3
Q
T/F
there are less than 70 million food borne disease cases a year in the USA
A
FALSE – more and 70 mill
4
Q
T/F
Most foodborne disease agents originate from
animals
A
TRUE
5
Q
diseases with animal reservoirs
A
zoonoses
6
Q
zoonoses account for what percent of emerging diseases
A
75%
7
Q
what was SARS originally
A
a bat coronavirus
8
Q
the study of distribution and determinants of disease and other health outcomes in animal populations
A
epizootiology
9
Q
what are the three “dynamics” of disease transmission
A
host
agent
environment
10
Q
who discovered cholera was spread fecal-orally in londons water supply
A
john snow - 1849
11
Q
earliest reports of anthrax
A
1491BC
12
Q
who first isolated the bacteria that causes anthrax
A
robert koch 1879
13
Q
who had the anthrax vaccine in 1881
A
pasteur – for sheep goats and cattle
14
Q
discovered malaria is transmitted by mosquitos
A
Ronald Ross
15
Q
discovered yellow fever is from mosquitoes
A
Walter Reed
16
Q
T/F
knowing the specific agent is more important than transmission method in disease prevention
A
FALSE – other way
17
Q
habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, multiplies
A
reservoir
**maintain pathogens over time year to year, generation to generation
18
Q
three questions to decide if its a reservoir
A
- naturally infected
- maintain pathogen over time
- can source transmit disease to a new susceptible host
19
Q
T/F
all sick animals are reservoirs
A
FALSE
infection doesnt equal disease doesnt equal infectivity
20
Q
transmission from host to offspring
A
vertical
21
Q
pathogens that can cross the placenta
A
congenital transmission (vertical type)
22
Q
transmitted during parturition via colostrum
A
perinatal – vertical type
23
Q
transmission from reservoir to new host
A
horizontal
24
Q
T/F
airborne is a type of direct transmission
A
TRUE q
25
any inanimate object that serves to communicate a disease
vehicle
26
a living organism that serves to communicate a disease
vector
27
objects that can be contaminated and transmit disease on a limited scale
fomites
28
microbe is replicating but not enough to be infectious
latent
29
microbe is replicating but not yet symptomatic
incubation
30
invasion, not multiplication of an organism
infestation
31
disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, airborne, or indirect routes from an infected person, animal, plant or a contaminated inanimate reservoir
communicable
32
disease transmissible from one human/animal to another via direct or airborne routes
contagious
33
disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of a living agent in/on a host
infectious
34
what do epidemic curves tell you
– Most probable source of the outbreak
– If the pathogen is contagious
– If the outbreak is ending – or will continue
– Incubation period of the pathogen (sometimes)
– About outliers
35
Represent the number of new cases of
| disease, over time
epidemic curve
36
common point single source exposure curves
```
All animals are exposed at once
• All are exposed to the same source of
infection
• Not contagious
• Can determine the minimum, average, and maximum
incubation time
```
37
common source with intermittent exposure curve
* Animals are exposed at different times
* Exposed to the same source
* Incubation period is NOT clearly shown
38
A situation in which all factors influencing
disease are relatively stable, resulting in little
fluctuation in disease incidence over time
endemic stability
– New cases occur at a regular, usually low, level
– Young individuals may enter the population
– Old individuals die or are removed
39
Factors that help DETERMINE the probability, distribution, or severity of a disease in an animal or population of animals
determinants
```
Social
Economic
Physical environment
Person/animal individual characteristics,
behaviors, and genetics
```
40
primary determinant
a MAJOR contributing factor, usually a
| NECESSARY one
41
secondary determinant
factors that make the disease more or less LIKELY; predisposing or enabling factors
42
intrinsic determinant
determinants that are internal to the
| animal (age, breed, sex, etc.)
43
extrinsic determinant
determinants that are external to the
| animal (housing, medical treatment, etc.)
44
T/F
| primary determinants must always be present for a disease to occur
TRUE
45
extrinsic factors of an infectious agent
```
Infectivity
• Pathogenicity
• Virulence
• Immunogenicity
• Mutation rate
• Resistance
```
46
extrinsic factors of the environment
* Demographics
* Climate
* Housing
* Crowding/density
* Diet
* Stress
47
what can mutations include as far as agent determinants go...
– Increased infectivity within typical hosts
– Ability to infect new species / populations of hosts
– Acquisition of new toxins
– Immune system evasion
48
All of these host factors are intrinsic/extrinsic??
```
-Age
• Sex & Behavior
• Genotype
• Breed
• Nutrition
• Immunity
```
INTRINSIC
49
genotype
a term describing the DNA
| sequence, or “type”, of an individual
50
T/F
| genetic diseases are entirely determined by genotype
TRUE
51
T/F
Nutrition has a strong effect on immune
function
TRUE
52
The idea that infectious diseases can be
contained if the population’s resistance to
infection is high enough
herd immunity
53
T/F
| herd immunity protects individuals
false
54
emerging dz definition
```
– PREVIOUSLY UNKNOWN disease that
suddenly appears (emerges) in a
population
– KNOWN disease that suddenly appears
(emerges) in a new population
```
55
KNOWN disease, previously on the
decline, that is becoming more common
and will likely continue to do so
re-emerging dz
56
4 drivers to pathogen emergence
1. land use changes
2. human behaviors
3. environmental systems
4. food and ag systems
57
determinants of disease emergence
type of pathogen/agent
host susceptibility
phyologenetic distance of reservoirs
transmission -- reservoir size, frequency, prevalence
58
percent of zoonotic pathogens
61%
59
T/F
Pathogens are more likely to
cross between closely related
species than distant ones
TRUE
60
– Diseases that people get from other people
| – Have a human reservoir
arthroponoses
61
– Infectious diseases that people get from animals,
either directly or indirectly
– Animals are the ultimate reservoir for the disease!
zoonoses
62
WHAT ARE SOME GLOBALLY IMPORTANT ZOONOTIC DISEASES
```
– Rabies
– Leishmaniasis
– Cysticercosis
– Brucellosis
– Leptospirosis
– Echinococcosis
```
63
T/F
| more people have pets than kids
TRUW
64
hazard
a danger or risk of an event occurring
65
the deliberate release of viruses, bacteria,
| toxins, or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants
bioterrorism
66
the malicious attempt to disrupt or
destroy the agricultural industry and/or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural
sectors
agroterrorism
67
what are the 4 phases of disaster mgmt
1. mitigation
2. preparedness
3. response
4. recovery
68
Attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters
altogether
OR… To reduce the effects of disasters when they occur
mitigation
69
what does preparedness involve
Plans and preparations made to save lives and property, and to facilitate
response operations.
Provisions to ensure that all the resources/services needed to cope with a disaster can be rapidly mobilized and deployed.
70
Actions taken to provide
emergency assistance, save lives, minimize
property damage, and speed recovery
response
71
what is recovery
Actions taken to return to a normal or improved
operating condition following a disaster
Reconstructing physical structures
Restoring emotional, social, economic, and physical wellbeing
May include continued veterinary care
72
County Animal Response Team (CART)
Intended for use by local government and
agencies to take immediate action in
providing a means of care to minimize animal
suffering in the event of a large scale disaster
Rapid response – local!
Utilizes local resources
Established relationships with local agencies
(EM, sheriff, fire, Animal Control, Ag Ext)
Familiarity with territory and special
considerations (special populations/features)
* Home court advantage
73
STATE animal response Team (SART)
```
Interagency organizations dedicated to
preparing, planning, responding, and
recovering during animal emergencies
Public private partnership, joining
governmental agencies with private goals
Train to facilitate a safe and efficient
response to disasters on the local, county,
state and federal level
```
74
Vet medical assistance team
```
Operate under the American Veterinary
Medical Association (AVMA)
Provide operational assistance to state animal
health authorities
Must be requested by a state
Funded through the American Veterinary
Medical Foundation
```
75
VMATS 3 primary functions
early assessment volunteer teams
basic treatment volunteer teams
training
76
National vet response team
Part of the Dept. of Health & Human Service’s
National Disaster Medical System
Fully supported Federal program.
Professional expertise in veterinary medicine,
public health, and research
Private citizens who have been approved as
intermittent federal employees and activated
in the event of a disaster.
Assigned to designated regional teams which
train in preparation for what might be
experienced during a response
77
*establishes a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response.
NRF - national response framework
78
what is a risk
A probability or threat of damage, injury,
liability, loss, or any other negative
occurrence that is caused by external or
internal vulnerabilities, and that may be
avoided through preemptive action
79
T/F
| denial is more common than fear
false -- less common
80
denial is reduced when...
we legitimize the fear
·we take actions to address fear
·we make decisions to act from a given
range of options
81
Most often used to describe an
organization facing a crisis and the
need to communicate about that crisis
to stakeholders and the public
risk communication
82
When the hazard is high and outrage is low...
precaution advocacy
·alerting insufficiently upset people to serious
risk
·“Watch out!”
83
When hazard is low and outrage is high:
·task=outrage management
·reassuring excessively upset people about
small risks
·“Calm down!”
84
When the hazard is high and outrage is also high:
·task= crisis communication
·helping appropriately upset people cope with
serious risks
·“We’ll get through this together”
85
When hazard and outrage are both intermediate:
·sweet spot
·dialoging with interested people about a
significant but not urgent risk
·“And what do you think?”
86
Veterinary equivalent of WHO
OIE -- maintains reportable dz lsit
87
Designates the list of OIE‐reportable diseases
| that are not found in the USA as notifiable
USDA
88
Systematic continuous observation of populations, and
| collection and analysis of data from many varied sources
surveillance
89
5 purposes of surveillance
1. Rapid detection of disease outbreaks
2. Support disease control/eradication
3. Assess population health and safety of food
4. Produce information about disease
5. Evaluate disease control/biosecurity programs
90
3 components of surveillance
1. detection
2. response
3. communication
91
Observation of a population or
collection, analysis and interpretation
of data from population
detection
92
goal of the response step to surveillance
Timely, appropriate
response to disease events
– Minimize the impact (loss of
animals, productivity, markets)
– Minimize the cost of the response
93
goal of surveillance communication
Produce and communicate timely accurate info
94
Surveillance of animals for diseases of
| importance to animals and people
animal health surveillance
95
Surveillance of people for human diseases
public health surveillance
96
Surveillance of humans, animals and plants for diseases
| affecting any or all of them
biosurveillance
97
Surveillance of food production chains and
| people for food safety risks and foodborne disease
food and safety surveillance
98
types of surveillance
1. Passive surveillance
2. Active surveillance
3. Sentinel surveillance
4. Targeted surveillance
99
Spontaneous report of cases or suspicion of a disease
Passive surveillance (MOST COMMON)
100
active surveillance ..
Committed effort of the veterinary/health authority to obtain
sample/data
101
A type of active surveillance:
•A small group is monitored as an indicator of the greater
population health or disease risk
sentinel surveillance
102
Targets a specific segment of the population to enhance
| detection of disease
targeted surveillance
103
goal of medicine ...
* To promote health
* To preserve health
* To restore health when it is impaired
* To minimize suffering and distress
**prevention
104
Actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the
impact of disease and disability, or if none of these are
feasible, retarding the progress of the disease and disability
prevention
105
Aims to inhibit the emergence of risk factors (mainly used in human
medicine so far)
Primordial prevention
106
Aim: maintain a healthy population by preventing the occurrence
of a disease
primary prevention -- before the disease occurs
107
Aim: Reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already
occurred
secondary prevention -- •Detecting and treating as soon as possible
108
Aim: Soften the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting
effects by reducing complications, slowing down the progression, and
reducing the severity of the symptoms
tertiary prevention
109
Steps taken to reduce a disease problem to a tolerable level
and maintain it at that level
control -- like secondary prevention
110
elimination
The final step in disease control efforts by eliminating the
disease from a population
111
refers to the reduction to zero (or a very low
defined target rate) of new cases in a defined geographical
area
elimination
112
refers to the complete and permanent worldwide
| reduction to zero new cases of the disease through deliberate efforts (up to 2017: Rinderpest and Smallpox)
eradication
113
what is Reservoir neutralization
Removing infected individuals
– Test and slaughter (e.g. TB and Brucellosis)
• Rendering infected individuals non shedders
– Some rotavirus vaccines
• Manipulating environment
– Parasite control: Taenia saginata (toilets facilities), Fasciola
hepatica (snail control)
– Mosquito control: West Nile Virus
114
‐ Reducing contact potential
Isolation or treatment of cases
– Reduce probability of contact
– Not ideal when non symptomatic are shedding
• Quarantine of possible infected
• Population control
– Leash laws to reduce fecal contamination
– Rabies control
115
‐Increasing Host Resistance examples
-Genetic selection, Good Welfare (nutrition and shelter)
• Chemoprophylaxis
• Vaccination
116
3 milk borne bacterias that can be controlled by milk pastuerization
mycobacterium bovis
brucella
Coxiella burnetii
117
M. bovis cases per year
230
118
human signs with TB from M.bovis
```
Percutaneous: nodules, slow
evolution, ulcers
• Pulmonary: Classical TB
(Ghon complex)
• Ingestion: gingivitis,
mesenteric adenopathy…
```
119
Brulla common in USA
no
120
what does brucella do to animals
abortions
121
what does brucella do to people
```
Septicemic form: fever
(recurrent), headache, back
pain…
• Visceral form:orchiepididymite,
osteo
articulaire
• Chronic form: join pain
```
122
water borne disease
```
Leptospirosis
Cryptosporidium
Giardia
Schistosoma
Fasciola
```
123
protozoan disease causing diarrhea in calves and humans
crypto
124
97% of USA surface water has ___
giardia
125
T/F
| you can easily kill crypto and giardia with chlorine
FALSE
126
T/F
| humans get fasciola from eating livers
FALSE -- contaminated veggies
127
– 2nd most important human parasite after Malaria
schistosoma
128
what does lepto cause in people and animals
```
• Renal insufficiency, acute or chronic
• Acute disease
– Fever, depression, lethargy
– Acute renal damage or felure
• Chronic disease
– Abortion, stillbirth
– Chronic renal insufficiency
```
