Exam 1 Flashcards
(176 cards)
1
Q
True/False. Identifying the specific agent of a disease is usually more important than mode of transmission.
A
False. Mode of transmission is more important
2
Q
The interaction of what three factors are important in disease transmission?
A
Host, Agent, and Environment
3
Q
A ___ is a habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies.
A
Reservoir
4
Q
What are the three questions asked when determining if an animal is a reservoir?
A
- Is it naturally infected with the pathogen?
- Can that species of animal maintain the pathogen over time?
- Can this source transit the disease to a new, susceptible host?
5
Q
True/False: Clinically ill animals that are reservoir competent are probably infectious.
A
True
6
Q
Are all sick animals reservoirs?
A
NO
7
Q
____ transmission is from a reservoir host to its offspring.
A
Vertical
8
Q
What are two examples of vertical transmission?
A
Congenital
Perinatal
9
Q
What is horizontal transmission?
A
From the reservoir to a new host
10
Q
True/ False: Skin- skin contact, Droplet spread, and Airborne transmission are all examples of indirect.
A
False. Direct
11
Q
A ___ has to do with an inanimate object and ___ has to do with a living organisms that serve to communicate disease.
A
Vehicle
Vector
12
Q
What are types of vehicles?
A
Common Vehicle: Food, water, IV drug contamination
Fomites: objects that can be contaminated and transmit disease on a limited scale
13
Q
True/Fase: Most vectors are arthropods.
A
True
14
Q
Which type of vector does not multiply or undergo part of its life cycle while in/on the arthropod?
A
Mechanical
15
Q
What is a biological vector?
A
Agent that undergoes changes or multiplies while in the vector
16
Q
A microbe tha tis replicating but not enough for the host to become infectious is known as ___ period.
A
Latent
17
Q
What is the definition of incubation period?
A
Microbe that is infectious but not symptomatic yet.
18
Q
All of the following relate to endemic stability except:
a. All factors influencing the disease are relatively stable
b. Result in large fluctuation in disease incidence over time
c. New cases occur at regular and low levels
d. Young can enter the population and old die/ are removed
A
b. Result in large fluctuation in disease incidence over time
**Little fluctuation*
19
Q
What is a determinant?
A
Factors that help determine the probability, distribution, or severity of a disease in an animal or populations of animals.
20
Q
The idea that infectious diseases can be contained if the population’s resistance to infection is high enough but does not protect individuals is the definition of?
A
Herd immunity
21
Q
What can an epidemic curve tell you?
A
Most probable source of the outbreak if the pathogen is contagious If the outbreak is ending/ continue Incubation period of the pathogen (sometimes) About outliers
22
Q
What are the waves separated by when we see several consecutive waves of infection?
A
Separated by an incubation period
23
Q
In an epidemic curve of contagious diseases we have exposure filled by waves of ___ and ____ cases?
A
secondary and tertiary
24
Q
What can you determine in a common source single point exposure epidemic curve?
A
The minimum, average and maximum incubation time
25
True/False: Common source single point exposure epidemic curve shows contagious animals exposed at the same time by the same source of infection.
False. They're not contagious
26
The shape of epidemiological curve depend on what three things?
Host: immunity/ resistance and direct transmission
Agent: infectiousness, duration of infection, latent and incubation periods
Environment
27
Which of the following does not relate to the common source with intermittent exposure epidemic curve:
a. Animals are exposed at different times
b. Animals are exposed to the same source
c. Animals are exposed to different sources
d. Incubation period is not clearly shown
c. Animals are exposed to different sources
28
True/False: Host susceptibility is the only kind of determinant that is important.
False. Its one kind but not the only one
29
What are examples of Determinants?
Social
Economic
Physical environment
Person/ animal individual characteristics, behaviors, and genetics
30
Which of the following is not true about primary determinants?
a. It is the major contributing factor and most necessary
b. It must always be present in order for a disease to occur
c. It satisfies the "gotta have it" test
d. All the above are true
d. All the above are true
31
___ determinants are internal to the animal (age, breed, sex) and ___ determinants are external (housing, medical treatment).
Intrinsic
| Extrinsic
32
Which determinant makes the disease more or less likely and is a predisposing or enabling factor?
Secondary
33
Genotype will entirely determine ____ and partially determine ___.
Genetic diseases and genetic susceptibilities
34
True/False. The body condition score of an animal, nutritional status, and diet are all intrinsic factors.
False. Diet is extrinsic
35
Is giving a vaccine an extrinsic or intrinsic factor?
Extrinsic
36
The status of the body being immune is intrinsic or extrinsic?
Intrinsic
37
___ is a previously unknown or known disease that suddenly appears in a population vs. ____ which is a known disease that was previously declining but is now booming more common and will continue to do so.
Emerging, Re-Emerging
38
What are the five stages of cross-species disease emergence?
1. Agent only in animals: no transmission
2. Primary infection only from animals to humans
3. Limited outbreak: From animals or (few cycles) humans
4. Long outbreak: From animals or (many cycles) humans
5. Exclusive human agent: Only from humans
39
What are examples of stage 4 diseases?
SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
Schmallenberg Virus
2009 Influenza H1N1 "Swine Influenza"
40
What are drivers of emerging diseases?
Land use changes
Food and agricultural systems
Environmental systems
Human Behavior
41
True/False: Antibiotic resistance, evasion of host immunity, and mutations all enhance transmissibility of a disease.
True
42
What is the role of a veterinarian in the study and control of emerging diseases?
Antimicrobial use, food inspection, improve biosecurity, surveillance, identification, prediction, control, and communication
43
What are the reservoirs and dead end hosts for Influenza H5N1?
Reservoir: waterfowl and poultry
| Humans are the dead end hosts
44
What is the reservoir and dead end host for WNV, EEEV, and WEEV?
Reservoir: Birds
| Humans, horses, and dogs are dead end hosts
45
What are examples of animal reservoir transmits to humans/ other animals with a few cycles of transmission among them?
Mycobacterium bovis
| Nipah Virus
46
What are the reservoirs and dead end hosts for Influenza H5N1 "Avian Influenza"?
Reservoir: waterfowl and poultry
| Humans are the dead end hosts
47
Which of the following is true about Nipah Virus?
a. Fruit bats are the reservoir
b. Consists of pig to pig transmission
c. There is human to human transmission
d. All the above are true
d. All the above are true
48
Which of the following disease has swine as the main reservoir, which are efficient in transmitting disease to humans?
a. Schellenberg virus
b. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
c. Swine Influenza
d. Nipah Virus
c. Swine Influenza
49
Which of the following is false about Schmallenberg virus?
a. Fruit bats are the main reservoirs
b. Efficient transmission in sheep, goats, and cattle
c. None of the above are false
d. All the above are false
a. Fruit bats are the main reservoirs
** They don't have a known reservoir species
50
Which of the following disease has swine as the main reservoir, which are efficient in transmitting disease to humans?
a. Schellenberg virus
b. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
c. Influenza H1N1
d. Influenza H5N1
c. Influenza H1N1
** Remember H1N1 refers to swine influenza and H5N1 is Avian Influenza
51
Which of the following has efficient transmission in humans and has fruit bats as the main reservoir?
a. Schellenberg virus
b. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
c. Swine Influenza
d. Nipah Virus
b. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
52
What are human examples of pathogens exclusive to new reservoir species?
```
HIV/ AIDS: from non-human primates
Measles: from cattle
Smallpox: from camels (camel pox)
Dengue fever: from old world primates
Yellow fever from African primates
```
53
True/False. Urbanization increases density of susceptible human populations and changing land use and climate influence waterborne and vector-borne disease transmission.
True
54
What are the four determinants of emergence?
Pathogen: Type of agent, mutation/change
Host: Susceptibility
Reservoir: Phylogenetic distance
Transmission: Reservoir size, pathogen prevalence, contact frequency
55
True/False. Pathogens are more likely to cross between distant related species than closely related ones.
False. **Other way around
56
What are the three factors where the probability of transmission from a reservoir to a new host increases?
- Increasing abundance of the reservoir
- Increasing pathogen prevalence in the reservoir
- Increasing contact between the reservoir and the new host
57
A danger or risk of a known/ unknown event occurring that can morph into disasters and can categorize as disasters is known as?
Hazard
58
A serious disruption of functioning of community or society involving widespread losses and impacts, exceeds ability of affected to cope using its own resources is known as what?
A disaster
59
What is the name of the man-made disaster that deliberately releases a virus, bacteria, toxin, or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants?
Bioterrorism
60
What is Agroterrorism?
A man made disaster with malicious attempt to disrupt or destroy the agricultural industry and/ or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural sectors.
61
What are the four phases of disaster management?
Mitigation
Preparedness
Response
Recovery
62
Which of the following attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters or reduce the effects of disasters when they occur?
a. Mitigation
b. Preparedness
c. Response
d. Recovery
a. Mitigation
63
Static and mobile vet clinics, search and rescue operations, provision of emergency food/ water, and temporary shelters are all examples of:
a. Mitigation
b. Preparedness
c. Response
d. Recovery
c. Response
64
Reconstructing physical structures that may include continued veterinary care is an example of:
a. Mitigation
b. Preparedness
c. Response
d. Recovery
d. Recovery
65
Which of the following focuses on long- term measures, can be part of recovery, can be structural, and can also be non-structural (procedural changes)?
a. Mitigation
b. Preparedness
c. Response
d. Recovery
a. Mitigation
66
The ____ are intended for use by local government and agencies to take immediate action in providing a means of care to minimize animal suffering in the event of a large scale disaster.
County Animal Response Team (CART)
67
Which of the following is false regarding the State Animal Response Team (SART)?
a. Interagency organizations dedicated to preparing, planning, responding, and recovering during animal emergencies
b. Public private partnership joining governmental agencies with private goals
c. Train to facilitate a safe and efficient response to disasters on local, county, state, and federal levels
d. Rapid response that utilizes local resources
d. Rapid response that utilizes local resources
68
The CART establish relationships with ___ and have familiarity with _____.
Local Agencies and familiarity with territory and special considerations
69
What is the federal level of veterinary involvement that is contacted in an animal disaster when the local veterinary community is overwhelmed?
Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
US Public Health Service
70
Which of the following operate under the American Veterinary Medical Association and provide operational assistance to state animal health authorities?
a. Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
b. National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
c. National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
d. US Public Health Service
a. Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
71
The Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT) are funded through ____ foundation.
American Veterinary Medical Foundation
72
True/False: The Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT) must be requested by a state.
True
73
What are Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT) three primary functions?
1. Early Assessment Volunteer Teams
2. Basic Treatment Volunteer Teams
3. Training
74
Which of the following is USDA's Animal and Plant Inspection Service that responds to exotic disease outbreaks?
a. Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
b. National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
c. National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
d. US Public Health Service
c. National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
75
Which of the following is fully supported by the federal program and consists of private citizens who have been approved as intermittent federal employees and activated in the event of a disaster?
a. Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
b. National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
c. National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
d. US Public Health Service
b. National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
76
All of the following are true about the National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT) EXCEPT:
a. Part of the Dept. of Health and Human Service's National Disaster Medical System
b. Have professional expertise in veterinary medicine, public health, and research
c. They are temporary USDA APHIS employees
d. Assigned to designated regional teams and train in preparation for what might be experienced during a response
c. They are temporary USDA APHIS employees
** This refers to NAHERC
77
Which of the following are commissioned corps dedicated to PH promotion, response, and disease prevention?
a. Veterinary Medical Assistance Team (VMAT)
b. National Veterinary Response Team (NVRT)
c. National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp (NAHERC)
d. US Public Health Service
d. US Public Health Service
78
What establishes a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response?
National Response Framework (NRF)
79
What are key features of the National Response Plan?
- All hazards approach
- Builds on the NIMS (National Incident Management System)
- Aligns key roles and responsibilities across jurisdictions
- Always in effect: partially or fully implemented
- Best practices and procedures
80
Which of the following is false about NIMS (National Incident Management System?
a. Homeland Security Presidential Directive - 5
b. Mandates the use of the Incident Command System
c. Multi- agency coordination system
d. Public Information System
e. None of the above are false
e. None of the above are false
81
What is the standardized, on- scene, all- hazard, incident management that can collapse or expand to adjust to incident size/complexity?
Incident Command System (ICS)
82
What is the top- down structure for the Incident Command System (ICS)?
- only positions that are necessary will be filled
| - each element will have a person in charge
83
What are the five management functions of the ICS Structure?
```
Incident command
Logistics
Operations- veterinarians mainly
Planning- veterinarians
Finance and administration
```
84
What is risk?
Probability or threat of damage, injury, liability, loss, or any other negative occurrence that is caused by external or internal vulnerabilities and can be avoided through preemptive action
85
What are the two risk equations?
```
Risk = Probability x Severity
Risk = Hazard + Outrage
```
86
The combination of thought and emotion, where the thinking focuses on the hazard and probability it will occur and can involve feelings is known as?
Risk Perception
87
What is most often used to describe an organization facing a crises and the need to communicate about that crisis to stakeholders and the public?
Risk Communication
88
The precaution advocacy is associated with which risk communication task interpretation?
When the hazard is high and the outrage is low
89
What are the steps of the risk communication life cycle?
```
Pre- crisis
Initial
Maintenance
Resolution
Evaluation
```
90
What is the most important fact about risk communication?
The low correlation between a risk's hazard and its outrage
91
The human reaction to risk that is frequent is ___ and the one that is rare is ____.
Acceptance
| Panic
92
The systematic continuous observation of populations, and collection and analysis of data from many varied sources is known as:
Surveillance
93
What is the purpose of surveillance?
1. Rapid detection of disease outbreaks
2. Support disease control/eradication
3. Assess population health and safety of food
4. Produce information about disease
5. Evaluate disease control/biosecurity programs
94
Which of the following are goals of animal health surveillance?
a. Animal health
b. Animal welfare
c. Economic viability of animal based food production systems
d. All the above
d. All the above
95
True/False: Control of zoonotic and food borne diseases to protect the public health is another goal of animal health surveillance.
True
96
What are OIE member nations required to do when assessing population health and safety of food products?
- Estimate the disease risk associated with their animal and animal product
- Report the occurrence of listed and emerging diseases
97
Surveillance detects failure of ____ and ____ programs.
Biosecurity and border security
98
What are the components of surveillance?
Detection
Response
Communication
99
What are the three reasons why you want to produce and communicate timely accurate information?
1. For disease control and management
2. For authorities
3. For actors of the surveillance
100
What are the four different types of surveillance?
1. Passive surveillance
2. Active surveillance
3. Sentinel surveillance
4. Targeted surveillance
101
What is the most common type of surveillance?
Passive surveillance
102
Which of the following is false about passive surveillance?
a. Committed effort of the veterinary/ health authority to obtain sample/ data
b. Submission is initiated by and at the discretion of the sample/ data provider
c. Little or no control over who provides samples/ data
d. All the above area true
a. Committed effort of the veterinary/ health authority to obtain sample/ data
** Veterinary/ health authority does not actively look for disease
103
Which of the following actively seek out cases of disease or data of surveyed animals?
a. Passive surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance
d. Targeted surveillance
b. Active Surveillance
104
Which of the following is less expensive, monitors a small group as an indicator of the greater population health or disease risk and is often the only available method?
a. Passive surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance
d. Targeted surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance
105
Which of the following targets a specific segment of the population to enhance detection of disease?
a. Passive surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Sentinel surveillance
d. Targeted surveillance
d. Targeted surveillance
106
What is the name of the system that provides a list of diseases of humans that are "reportable" online?
National Notifiable Disease Surveillance System (NNDSS)
107
Which is going to report international data sent in by state health departments?
Morbidity Mortality Weekly Report
108
What program provides the real- time web-based data collection, analysis, outbreak detection and information reporting?
National Syndromic Surveillance Program
109
What provides passive and active sources to APHIS and to livestock industries, veterinarians and other stakeholders across the US?
National Animal Health Monitoring System
110
What is the active surveillance network for foodborne disease and related epidemiological studies in the United States?
Foodnet
111
What are the goals of health?
To promote health
To preserve health
To restore health when its impaired
to minimize suffering and distress
112
Actions aimed at eradicating, eliminating or minimizing the impact of disease and disability, or if none of these are feasible, retarding the progress of the disease and disability is known as:
Prevention
113
Which of the following aim to inhibit the emergence of risk factors through individual and mass education?
a. Primordial
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Primordial
a. Primordial
114
Which of the following applies mostly to individuals and softens the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects by reducing complications, slowing down the progression, and reducing the severity of the symptoms?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Primordial
c. Tertiary
115
Physical examinations with annual vaccination of pets and annual blood work in geriatric pets is an example of what kind of prevention?
Secondary prevention
116
Meat inspection, HACCP programs fro food safety, quarantine as border security and individual and heard immunity vaccines are examples of?
Primary prevention
117
Which of the following is detected and treated as soon as possible trying to reduce the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Primordial
b. Secondary
118
Management of a diabetic cat and a mastitis control program in a population are both examples of ____ prevention.
Tertiary
119
Steps taken to reduce a disease problem to a tolerable level and maintain it at that level is known as:
Control
120
What refers to the reduction to zero/ very low defined target rate of new cases in a defined geographical area?
Elimination
121
What is eradication?
Complete and permanent worldwide reduction to zero new cases of the disease through deliberate efforts
122
What are the three principles of disease control?
1. Reservoir Neutralization
2. Reducing contact potential
3. Increasing host resistance
123
Isolation or treatment of cases, quarantine of possible infected, and population control are all components of which of the following?
a. Reservoir Neutralization
b. Reducing contact potential
c. Increasing host resistance
b. Reducing contact potential
124
Genetic selection, Good Welfare, Chmoprophylaxis, and Vaccines are all components of:
a. Reservoir Neutralization
b. Reducing contact potential
c. Increasing host resistance
c. Increasing host resistance
125
Treating without first testing to slaughter after, rendering infected individuals non shedders, and manipulating environment is all part of:
a. Reservoir Neutralization
b. Reducing contact potential
c. Increasing host resistance
a. Reservoir Neutralization
126
True/False Isolation or treatment of cases is not ideal when non symptomatic are shedding.
True
127
Which breeds are trypanotolerant?
N'dama and West African short horn
128
What are the five national disease control components?
1. Animal health law and regulations
2. Disease control management agency
3. Veterinary/ Inspection services
4. Laboratory services
5. Surveillance, information, education, communication and training
129
What two organizations are part of the international regulations of animal health law?
WTO and OIE
130
What are the two national regulations of animal health law?
Animal health act
| Animal quarantine laws, Border regulations
131
Which agency develops science based standards to protects the health and value of American agriculture and natural resources?
USDA-APHIS
132
What are the state animal health authorities responsible for?
- Animal disease issue at the State level
- Delivery of the Federal programs
- Administration of interstate certificates of veterinary inspection
- Overseeing State- specific disease control activities and regulations
133
Which of the following is true about the Ames national veterinary laboratory service?
a. Foreign Animal Disease Diagnostic Laboratory
b. Located in New York
c. Located in Iowa
c. Network of State and Federal Laboratories
c. Located in Iowa
134
What does the Ames diagnostic laboratory test for?
Bacteriology, virology, and pathobiology
135
What is the name of the foreign animal disease diagnostic laboratory located in New York?
Plum Island
136
What is the name for the Network of State and Federal Laboratories?
National Animal Health Laboratory Network (NAHLN)
137
What are diseases that people get from other people and have a human reservoir?
Anthroponoses
138
True/False: Humans are the ultimate reservoir for zoonotic disease.
False. Animals are
139
True/False: Bites, kicks and scratches from animals, poisoning/ envenomation by animals are all examples of zoonoses.
False
140
____ = Foreign Animal Disease (FDA) list
USDA
141
Which of the following is not a way people acquire zoonotic diseases?
a. Wooded and brushy areas
b. Child- care facilities
c. Talking on the phone
d. Nature parks
e. Country/State fairs
c. Talking on the phone
142
What percentage of US households have at least one pet?
62%
143
Japanese encephalitis, Colorado tick fever, and Hendra are all examples of what kind of zoonoses?
Viral
144
Which of the following is not an example of a parasitic zoonoses?
a. Baylisascariasis
b. Schistosome dermatitis
c. Trichinosis
d. Psittacosis
d. Psittacosis
** this is a bacterial example
145
True/False: Lyme disease and Batonellosis are all bacterial examples of zoonoses.
True
146
Dermatophytoses, Coccidiomycosis, Blastomycosis, Histoplasmosis and Cryptococcosis are all examples of what kind of zoonoses?
Mycotic
147
Which of the following is not an example of a direct transmission route?
a. Food
b. Droplet or aerosol
c. Oral
d. Contact
a. Food
148
What are examples of indirect transmission routes?
Foodborne
Water-borne
Fomite
Vector-borne
149
What are the layers of regulatory animal diseases?
International: OIE
Federal: USDA
State governments
150
What two systems are part of the surveillance and eradication for USA diseases?
National Animal Health Reporting System
| National Animal Health Monitoring System
151
Who maintains a list of International notifiable animal diseases and is the veterinary equivalence of WHO?
Wold Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
152
Within how many hours must members report an outbreak of any OIE-notifiable disease so that the WAHID database is kept up to date?
24 hours
153
Who designates the list of OIE-reporatble diseases that are not found in the USA as notifiable?
USDA and Foreign Diseases
154
The investigation of animal cruelty cases and possible cases of foreign/reportable diseases is the role of ___:
State/USDA Veterinarians
155
Vaccinations and testing services for regulatory diseases as well as exams and complete health certificates for animal movement is the role of:
Clinical Veterinarians
156
True/False: Clinical veterinarians don't have to notify regulatory veterinarians if they suspect a FAD (foreign animal disease)
False! Immediately notify
157
If clinical sings are compatible with a FAD the vet will notify other agencies, initiate containment, and send samples to ____.
USDA's central laboratory (NVSL)
158
Which is the only lab in the USA that can officially diagnose a FAD?
USDA laboratory
159
What are control measures of FAD's that involve DVM's?
- Biosecurity for farms in the region
- Mass culling of all susceptible animals within a given distance of the outbreak
- Ring vaccination or treatment of animals
160
Which accreditation category is based on all animals and requires 6 units of supplemented training every three years?
Category II
161
What is false about Category I accreditation?
a. Excludes "food and fiber" species, horses, all birds, and farm-raised aquatic species that could transmit disease to livestock
b. Zoo animals are the only ones not considered to transmit disease to livestock
c. Requires 3 units of supplemented training every three years
d. All the above area true
b. Zoo animals are the only ones not considered to transmit disease to livestock
162
What are the 6 steps to become accredited?
1. Initial accreditation training
2. Core orientation seminar by USDA
3. Graduate with the DVM
4. Complete USDA state- specific orientation
5. Get licensed fro the state you will work in
6. Send in form to apply for USDA accreditation
163
True/False: Over 800 different pathogens are zoonotic of all taxonomic groups.
True
164
What are globally important zoonotic diseases?
```
Rabies
Leishmaniasis
Cysticercosis
Brucellosis
Leptospirosis
Echinococcosis
```
165
Roles of practicing vets in animal disease control requires vets to know:
- Signs of FAD
- Signs of other reportable diseases
- Proper procedures for vaccinating, testing animals for regulated diseases
- Fill out legal forms for these activities
- Who to report disease to, when, and how
166
True/False: There is human to human transmission with Tularemia.
False.
167
What is epizootiology?
The study of the distribution and determinants of disease and other health outcomes in animal populations
168
What is the branch of medicine, policy and administration that protects populations of people from disease?
Public health
169
Veterinary public health is the intersection of ____ and ____.
Veterinary medicine and public health
170
Collecting nasopharyngeal swabs from influenza patients at selected sites to identify the type of influenza virus is an example of what type of surveillance?
Sentinel
171
Keeping close track of the number of cases after an outbreak of poxvirus in Florida has emerged is an example of what type of surveillance?
Active
172
Which risk communication task is associated when the hazard is low and the outrage is high?
Outrage management
173
The task crisis communication is associated with which risk communication task interpretation?
When the hazard is high and outrage is also high
174
When the harked and outrage are both intermediate this is considered the ____.
Sweet spot
175
Which epidemic curve shows contagious diseases?
Propagated
176
Would the spores in the soil and susceptibility of cattle be a primary or secondary determinant of anthrax?
Primary
