Exam 1 Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

If a patient is experiencing chest pain (CP) that is relieved by nitroglycerin, what is that telling you?

A

That it’s not a total block because by dilating the vessels, the heart is now getting more flow.

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2
Q

What do we call a set of signs and symptoms due to decreased blood flow in the coronary arteries such that part of the heart muscle is unable to function properly or dies?

A

Acute Coronary Syndrome

Ischemia that is prolonged and not immediately reversed.

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3
Q

What % of stenosis is needed to create the sensation of chest pain?

A

75% block creates chest pain.

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4
Q

What are the 3 Dx under ACS?

A
  1. UA - unstable angina
  2. NSTEMI - non ST (segment) elevated MI
  3. STEMI - ST (segment) elevated MI
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5
Q

What is the normal conduction time for QRS complex is?

A

<0.12 seconds (less than 3 small squares)

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6
Q

What is the normal PR interval range?

What IS the PR interval?

A

0.12 - 0.20 seconds, 3 - 5 sm squares.

The PR interval is the time it takes the impulse to travel from the SA node to the ventricles.

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7
Q

Which wave represents the atrial depolarization?

A

P wave, this happens RIGHT B4 the atria contract.

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8
Q

What does the QRS complex represent?

A

Ventricular depolarization (and hidden atrial repolarization).

This depolarization is from the conduction of the electrical impulse from the bundle of His throughout the ventricles.

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9
Q

What does the T wave represent?

A

Ventricular REpolarization (the resting phase of the cardiac cycle).

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10
Q

What do we call the phase of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles are repolarizing and all valves (bicuspid, tricuspid, and semilunar) are closed?

A

The resting phase. Characterized by the T wave.

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11
Q

What type of therapies are emergent PCI, CABG, and Thrombolytics?

A

Reperfusion therapy.

These are used to Tx STEMI or NSTEMI with positive cardiac markers.

These markers indicate possible cardiac injury/ischemia.

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12
Q

What does Emergent PCI mean and what can the patient expect?

A

PCI: Per-cutaneous Coronary Intervention

Goes to cath lab within 90 minutes, and receives a PCI with drug eluding stent.

A drug eluding stent is a peripheral or coronary stent placed into narrowed, diseased peripheral or coronary arteries that slowly releases a drug to block cell proliferation.

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13
Q

cardiac: AV malformation
Hx of cerebral aneurism or hemorrhage
Suspected aortic aneurism…

These are all reasons to not treat a patient with what type of reperfusion therapy?

A

Thrombolytic Therapy.

More exclusions:

  • Active internal bleeding
  • Intracranial neoplasm
  • Ischemic stroke within the last 3 months
  • Significant closed head/facial trauma within the last 3 months.

Aortic dissection: a serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta, the large blood vessel branching off the heart, tears. Blood surges through the tear, causing the inner and middle layers of the aorta to separate (dissect). If the blood-filled channel ruptures through the outside aortic wall, aortic dissection is often fatal.

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14
Q

cardiac: How are thrombolytics given (route) for reperfusion therapy?

What time-frame is this therapy most effectively administered?

A

IV

Ideally within the hour but the risk of mortality decreases by 25% if re-perfusion is achieved within 6 hours.

After receiving this reperfusion therapy, the patient will also receive cardiac rehab, just like PCI’s and CABG’s.

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15
Q

Why would thrombolytic therapy be used for STEMI or NSTEMI-with positive cardiac markers?

A
  1. If a cath lab is unavailable
  2. Thrombolytics are easily available
  3. Easy and rapid administration

These are used to keep vessels open and break up clots (+ heparin is given) then they are shipped off to a better Tx facility.

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16
Q

cardiac: What circumstances (2) would require a patient to receive a CABG for reperfusion therapy?

A

1) 3 + arteries are blocked

2) OR if the emergent PCI fails.

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17
Q

Would you treat UA or NSTEMI (with + cardiac markers) with thrombolytics?

A

No.

Only Tx STEMI with thrombolytics.

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18
Q

A creatinine test reveals important information about your kidneys… Creatinine is a chemical waste product that’s produced by your muscle metabolism and to a smaller extent by eating meat. Healthy kidneys filter creatinine and other waste products from your blood. The filtered waste products leave your body in your urine.

A

If your kidneys aren’t functioning properly, an increased level of creatinine may accumulate in your blood. A serum creatinine test measures the level of creatinine in your blood and provides an estimate of how well your kidneys filter (glomerular filtration rate). A creatinine urine test can measure creatinine in your urine.

“Normal” GFR is usually >90 ml/min/1.73m2

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19
Q

What concerns and teaching should we consider when about to give PCI in cath lab?

A
  • Ask about iodine ALLERGY since the contrast is iodine-based.
  • Get creatinine labs (GFR-glomerular filtration rate) to make sure their kidneys are healthy enough to handle the contrast that is filtered through the kidneys otherwise may incur an acute kidney injury.
  • Teach: may experience a warm or large “hot flash” during the procedure, will be receiving ongoing medications and IV fluids as well as monitoring their vital signs during the procedure.
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20
Q

PCI aka “coronary angioplasty” (formerly called balloon angioplasty), is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD).

A

PCI involves non-surgical widening of the coronary artery, using a balloon catheter to dilate the artery from within. A metallic stent is usually placed in the artery after dilatation. Antiplatelet agents are also used. Stents may be either bare metal or drug-eluting.

Afterward, they will be receiving cardiac rehab.

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21
Q

When the ST segment returns to baseline, what does that indicate?

A

That reperfusion has occured. Once this has happened, sometimes they may experience arrhythmias due to the reperfusion.

Heparin is also given to prevent re-occlusion of the artery.

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22
Q

What do we need to be looking out for when using thrombolytics?

A

Bleeding.

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23
Q

For a CABG, we need to teach about them losing a day of memory, that they’ll be intubated and in the ICU for a little while and to be prepared for what? What things do we need to consider for post op care?

A

Lots of swelling. Bandages on their chest and legs with possible chest tubes (or their sites) to care for.

They will also have sternal precautions due to their chest being cracked open and wired back together.

They will also be receiving cardiac rehab.

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24
Q

What is cardiogenic shock and what treatment options are there (this is a complication of MI)?

A

Severe LV failure (like ventricle tachycardia).

Tx: usu will get an intra-aortic balloon pump and vaso-active drugs…

High mortality rate.

intra-aortic balloon pump is when a balloon is inserted into the aorta and a machine on the outside of the body helps it pump blood.

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25
What are the 3 most dangerous complications of MI's?
1. Dysrhythmias: tachy/ brady/ irregular/ complete heart block/ V-fib/ PVC's /V-tachy. These are from ischemia, electrolyte imbalance, and/or SNS stimulation. Dysrhythmias create more complications due to the decreased perfusion of O2 resulting from the dysrhythmias. 2. HF. May be able to hear S3/S4, crackles, and / or jugular distention. 3. Cardiogenic shock. Tx'd with intra-aortic balloon pump and vaso-active medications.
26
What are the 4 other complications of an MI?
1. Papillary muscle dysfunction. This may lead to a life-threatening mitral valve regurgitation! 2. Ventricular aneurysm. This leads to HF, dysrhythmias, and angina. 3. Acute pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub. 4. Dressler syndrome. This isn't as common with the advancements of cardiac treatment... but it is pericarditis with effusion and occurs 4-6 weeks after MI.
27
How long after an MI is the injury considered "healed"?
6 weeks. The scar tissue has replaced the necrotic tissue... but the ventricle is considered to be "non-compliant" because of the remodeling. This can lead to the surrounding healthy tissue to hypertrophy and dilate, leading to late heart failure.
28
What is the name of the syndrome that is a possible MI complication?
Dressler syndrome. Pericarditis with effusion, 4-6 weeks after. Effusion is excess fluid between the heart and the pericardium (sac).
29
How long after the MI does the patient begin to increase their activity level?
10-14 days. This is a vulnerable time because the new scar tissue is still weak. This is why they have to go to cardiac rehab, because they are able to monitor their heart while performing tasks/activities to see how they're doing.
30
This syndrome is characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on electrocardiograms (ECGs) and a propensity to ventricular tachyarrhythmias, which may lead to syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death.
Prolonged QT syndrome.
31
This syndrome is characterized by an extra electrical pathway between the heart's upper and lower chambers which causes a rapid heartbeat.
Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome. This may lead to sudden cardiac death. The extra pathway is present at birth and fairly rare
32
10-12% of all sudden cardiac deaths that occur to those 45 and under are from what?
Conduction system defects. Ex: Prolonged QT syndrome, Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
33
What is the MOST common cause of SCD?
Ventricular arrhythmia's such as: Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular fibrillation.
34
Patients with the following may be treated with what after receiving an EP study? ``` Had a ventricular arrhythmia Had a heart attack Survived a sudden cardiac arrest Long QT syndrome A congenital heart disease or other underlying conditions for sudden cardiac arrest ```
Implantable cardioverter-defribrillator The American Heart Association recommends that before a patient is considered to be a candidate for an ICD, the arrhythmia in question must be life threatening and doctors have ruled out correctable causes of the arrhythmia, such as: Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) Myocardial ischemia (inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle) Electrolyte imbalance and drug toxicity
35
What is an EP study?
Electrophysiologic study. This is done in the cath lab under fluroscopy (x-ray "movie") This can be used as an assessment tool to try to find out when and if they're going to have another recurrence of SCD... and which drug(s) is the most effective for them.
36
24-hour Holter monitoring Exercise stress testing Signal-averaged ECG EPS (EP study) What are these for?
These are all assessment tools to further study the patient's heart and to figure out when they will have another recurrence of episode as well as which drug(s) are working for them.
37
In order to receive an ICD (implantable cardioverter-defibrillator) what study do they need to participate in first?
Electrophysiologic study (EP study). [x-ray movie]
38
What are CK-MB, BNP, and troponin?
Cardiac markers. CK-MB: Creatine Kinase - MB. Indicates heart damage. BNP: Brain Natriuretic Peptide, simple and objective measures of cardiac function (HF). Troponin: Noticeable in the blood 6-8 hours after cardiac injury. (and remains in blood 7-10 days after)
39
Which Sudden Cardiac Death related to CAD show signs and symptoms before the SCD?
Those who DID have an acute MI. Prodromal symptoms such as: Chest pain Heart palpitations Dyspnea * Death usu occurs within 1 hour of onset of acute symptoms.
40
Which antidysrhythmic drug is used to treat patients with ventricular arrhythmias after an SCD?
amiodarone. Treats life-threatening heart rhythm problems.
41
On EKG paper, one small square = ? seconds:
0.04 seconds. So one large square (5 small) = 0.20 seconds. 5 large squares = 1 second.
42
Which node has a rate of 60-100? 40-60? What is the rate of the pirkinje fibers?
SA node, the pacemaker of the heart AV node has a rate of 40-60 PF have a rate of 20-40
43
What is the 5 step approach to interpreting an EKG strip?
1. HR 60-100 bpm? 2. Heart rhythm: regular or irregular? 3. P wave: present? regular? one for every QRS? 4. PR interval: 0.12 - 0.20 seconds? 5. QRS complex: 0.08 - 0.12 seconds?
44
``` What heart rhythm is characterized by: Rate of 60-100 Regular rhythm P wave for every QRS PR interval is 0.12 - 0.20 sec QRS is 0.08 - 0.12 sec ```
Regular sinus rhythm.
45
``` What heart condition is characterized by: Rate below 60 Regular rhythm P wave for every QRS PR interval is normal QRS in normal ```
Sinus Bradycardia
46
``` What heart condition is characterized by: HR 101-160 Regular P wave present PR interval normal QRS normal ```
Sinus Tachycardia
47
What heart condition is characterized by: - HR is dependent on underlying rhythm - Regular except for premature beat - P wave present, premature beat P wave may look different - PR interval normal - QRS is normal
Premature Atrial Contraction slide 30... the P wave jumped onto the end of the T wave, not much rest.
48
How much fluid is in the pericardial cavity?
About 10-15 mL
49
Layers of the myocardium starting from the inner layer:
1. Endocardium 2. Myocardium 3. Epicardium
50
What does SVR stand for? How do you determine the BP (regarding SVR)? It's a math formula...
Systemic Vascular Resistance: the force opposing the movement of blood coming out of the ventricle. BP = CO x SVR
51
How do you figure out someones MAP (math formula)? What does MAP stand for?
MAP = (SBP + 2 DBP) divided by 3 SBP is systolic BP (top #) + 2( diastolic BP) then divided by 3. Mean Arterial Pressure... you need a MAP of at least 60 in order to successfully perfuse your internal organs. Ex: BP of 120/70 has a MAP of: [120 + 2(70)]/3 = (120 + 140)/3 = 260/3 = 86.7
52
What is "End Diastolic Volume (EDV)"?
The fullest the heart chamber can get before it contracts.
53
What is "End Systolic Volume (ESV)"?
The little bit of the blood that is left over in the ventricle after contraction.
54
What is the formula to determine one's stroke volume?
EDV - ESV = SV This is measured in mL/beat... and is the amount that is actually ejected from the ventricle with one heart beat.
55
What is the difference between CO and SV?
CO = Cardiac Output is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart per minute. (4-8 L/min) SV = Stroke Volume is the amount of blood pumped out with each heart beat. (75 mL's/beat is avg # for healthy person at rest).
56
What is the "normal" range for cardiac output? What is the formula for determining CO?
Normal range is 4-8 L/ minute Formula: CO = SV x HR CO (L/min) = SV (mL/beat) x HR (beat/min)
57
What allows you to take the size of the person's body into account when determining their cardiac output?
Cardiac index. CO/ BSA (body surface area) * Normal is 2.8 - 4.2 L/min/m2
58
Beta blockers and CCB's are positive or negative chronotropic agents?
Negative chronotropic agents. They REDUCE the HR. Beta Blockers: like propanolol reduces the HR by blocking the SNS activation which leads to the reduction of automaticity, slowing conduction, and reducing contractility. CCBs: Calcium Channel Blockers like verapamil and dilitazem reduce HR by reducing the automaticity of the SA node and slows the conduction of the AV node.
59
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, atropine are positive inotropic agents. What does that mean and what affect do they have on the stroke volume?
Positive ionotropic agents are agents that increase the contractility of the heart. An increase in contractility will also increase SV.
60
This is a "volume" and it is the most the heart can hold before a contraction:
Preload, or End Diastolic Volume.
61
What is another name for SVR (system vascular resistance)?
Afterload. The stress on the heart wall... the RESISTANCE the ventricle must overcome to eject the blood.
62
If afterload is increased, what does that do to the stroke volume (SV)? hint: it increases or decreases
Decreased. If there is increased resistance then the heart is going to have a harder time ejecting the blood and therefore the SV will decrease.
63
If there is an increase in preload, what does that do to the stroke volume (SV)? hint: it increases or decreases What are some factors that would cause an increase in preload???
Increases. If there is more in the ventricle then there will be more ejected (up to a certain point I would imagine). Factors to increase preload: - MI (damage to the muscle) - Aortic stenosis (bc the valve cannot close properly, some flows back in: mitral regurgitation) - Hypervolemia (fluid overload) - An increase in venous return/increased filling time.
64
What are some factors that my increase the heart's afterload?
- Vassopressors (vasoconstriction-like your are pressing or squeezing them) - Volume expanders (increase aortic pressure which in turn increases the afterload) - HTN (increased vascular resistance) - Aortic stenosis (the calcified and stenotic aortic valve interfers with normal flow)
65
How would diuretics affect afterload? How would vasodilators? Decreased sympathetic stimulation? Decreased vascular resistance?
All of these would decrease afterload.
66
What affect on contractility would the parasympathetic nervous system being activated have?
Decreases contractility.
67
What affect on contractility would CCBs have? Hypocalcemia?
These would decrease contractility.
68
What affect on contractility would caffeine have? Hypercalcemia?
All increase the contractility. The activation of the SNS would also have an increased affect.
69
What affect would myocardial hypoxia have on contractility?
Decrease it due to the lack of O2 available.
70
What part of the heart are you listening to at the RT 2nd intercostal space?
Aortic base. Next to sternum.
71
What part of the heart are listening to at the 2nd intercostal space on the LT?
Pulmonic area. Next to sternum.
72
What part of the heart are listening to at the 3rd intercostal space on the LT?
Erb's point. At Erb's point, S1 and S2 are typically equal in sound volume... just another point to listen to sounds and/or murmurs.
73
Where would you listen to the tricuspid valve (bicuspid)?
At the 5th intercostal space (next to sternum) on the LT.
74
Where would you listen to the mitral valve on the chest?
At the apex of the heart, located at the 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line.
75
Explain APE To Man:
``` A: aortic P: pulmonary E: erb's T: tricuspid M: mitral ```
76
What does an elevated ST segment indicate?
Ischemia.
77
Which cardiac marker rises within 4-6 hours with a peak of 10-24 hours?
Troponin. Starts at a tiny number and happens faster than CK-MB (peak?). Detected for up to 10-14 days.
78
Which cardiac marker rises 3-6 hours and peaks 12-24 hours?
CK-MB Returns to baseline within 12-48 hours.
79
As far as a lipid panel goes, what are the common risk factors?
Increased triglycerides Increased LDL HDL's decrease the risk (removes cholesterol from the blood)
80
What is the Cholesterol : HDL ratio?
Optimal is 3.5 to 1 This is figured by taking the total cholesterol lab # and dividing it by the HDL # A higher # = higher risk for heart disease