Exam 1 Flashcards

(112 cards)

1
Q

Cellulitis

A

Bacteria (Streptococcus and staphylococcus most common)
Contact/Vector
Breaks in skin, eczema, Athlete’s foot, shingles, burns, insect bites, IV catheters
No vaccine; antibiotics to treat

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2
Q

Chickenpox (Varicella)

A

Herpes Virus Type 3; Varicella-Zoster Virus
Direct contact, Droplets in Air
Respiratory tract or eyes
Vaccine available

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3
Q

Clostridium Difficile

A

Bacteria
Contact or Vehicle (Fecal-Oral)
Oral
No vaccine; stop antibiotics and take oral flagyl

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4
Q

Chlamydia

A

Bacteria: Chlamydia trachomatis
Contact (sexual; mother-child), body fluids
Mucous membrane (vagina, anus) or oral
No vaccine

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5
Q

Cytomegalovirus

A

Virus (herpes virus Type 5)
Contact (blood/body fluids); transplanted organs
Oral and Genital cavity, eyes, organs transplant
No vaccine (in development)

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6
Q

Gas Gangrene

A

Anaerobic Bacteria (Clostridium perfringens)
Contact
Lesions/Open Wounds
No vaccine

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7
Q

Gonorrhea

A

Bacteria
Contact (Unprotected sex/mother-baby)
Mucous membrane
No vaccine, antibiotics cure

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8
Q

Hepatitis A

A

Virus
Food/Water
Ingestion, Inhalation
Vaccine available (children starting at age 1, travelers to certain countries)

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9
Q

Hepatitis B

A

Virus
Contact with body fluids
Sex, needles, mother-child, percutaneous injuries
Vaccine available

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10
Q

Hepatitis C

A

Virus
Contact (body fluids, injection, needle, mother-child)
Needle, open wounds, sexual contact
No Vaccine, treated with meds

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11
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus

A

Virus
Sexual contact, mother-child, hand contact
Broken/open mucous membranes (oral cavity, eyes, genitals), minor skin abrasions
No vaccine, can be treated with anti-viral drugs

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12
Q

HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Contact/Droplet
Percutaneously (needles), sex, child birth, blood transfusion, body fluids
No vaccine, antivirals used for treatment

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13
Q

Human Papillomavirus

A

Virus
Contact (sexually transmitted)
Cuts/Abrasions/Small tears in skin, mucous membranes (genitals and eyes)
Vaccine, recommended ages 11-12

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14
Q

Impetigo

A

Bacteria (90% Staph; also Strep)
Skin-to-skin/Droplet
Wound, surgical site, mucous entry point, impacts healthy skin
No vaccine, treated with oral antibiotics

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15
Q

Epstein Barr Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Herpes Virus 4
Direct contact with saliva or genital secretions, organ transplants
Oral, blood transfusion (possible), transplants, genital contact
No vaccine

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16
Q

Influenza

A

Virus
Droplet, contact
Mucosal tissues of respiratory tract, direct contact, inhalation
Vaccine, recommended annually (injection or nasal)

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17
Q

Lyme Disease

A

Bacteria; tick-borne
Vector (deer ticks)
Skin puncture into bloodstream
No vaccine, manufacturer discontinued in 2002 ( lack of demand), treated with antibiotics

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18
Q

Malaria

A

Micro-organisms from plasmodium; parasite
Vector, water, congenital, blood transfusion
Vector bite, transfusion, mother-child
No vaccines (clinical trials); protective measures

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19
Q

Meningitis

A

Viral, bacteria (also fungal or protozoa)
Airborne, droplet, contact (depends on organism)
Mucous membranes of upper respiratory tract
Vaccine, antibiotics for treatment

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20
Q

Otitis Media

A

Secondary to another bacterial/viral disease
Occasionally droplets and fomites
Oral, mucous membrane
Vaccine

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21
Q

Pneumonia

A

Bacteria, virus, or fungus
Direct contact, inhalation
Mucous membranes, respiratory tract (oral/nasal cavity)
Vaccine (adults 65+, immunocompromised children)

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22
Q

Pseudomonas

A

Bacteria (Pseudomonas aeruginosa)
Contact
Wounds, Urinary Tract, Blood
No Vaccine; antibiotic resistant for treatment

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23
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

A

Virus
Droplet/Direct Contact
Nose, mouth, eyes
No vaccine, in development; meds available for high-risk children

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24
Q

Rheumatic Fever

A

Inflammatory disease (inadequately treated bacterial infection [strep/scarlet fever])
Direct contact (mucous, skin lesions); occasionally droplets/fomites
Contact with mucous membrane
No vaccine; treated with antibiotics

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25
Roseola
Herpes Virus Type 6 and 7 Droplet (respiratory secretions) or contact (saliva) Respiratory tract No vaccine
26
Shingles
Varicella Zoster Virus Type 3 Contact (fluid from blisters/rash) Chapped lips, dry skin, open wounds, respiratory tract/eye Vaccine; recommended adults over 60
27
Staphylococcus Aureus
Bacteria Direct Contact (nose, skin, axilla, perineum); possibly airborne Broken skin/mucous membranes, recent surgical sites, burns needles, catheters, prosthetics No vaccine, antibiotics used depending on strain's resistance Abscess, osteomyelitis, wound infection, endocarditis, toxic shock, MRSA
28
Strep Throat
Bacteria (Group A Streptococcal infections) Droplets or food Travels from one respiratory system to another (mouth, nose) No vaccine, treated with antibiotics
29
Tuberculosis
Bacteria Airborne Droplet (Respiratory tract) Vaccine, BCG (rarely used in US)
30
Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci (VRE)
Bacteria (Enterococci) Fomite Broken skin or mucous membranes No vaccine; antibiotics other than Vancomycin may be effective
31
This test provides a prognosis for critically ill patients
APACHE
32
What does a Basic Metabolic Panel measure?
Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, Calcium, BUN, Creatinine, Glucose, Carbon Dioxide
33
____ levels reflect _______ status
Bicarbonate; Acid-Base
34
What 2 tests test Renal Function?
Creatinine | Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
35
What aspects are tested with electrolytes?
Sodium, Calcium, Potassium, Chloride, and Bicarbonate
36
What is a Comprehensive Metabolic Panel composed of?
``` Basic Metabolic Panel Bilirubin Total Protein Albumin Serum Enzymes ```
37
What are the Liver Enzymes?
Transaminases Bilirubin Ammonia
38
What are the Hematological Tests?
``` Complete Blood Count RBC Function WBC Function WBC Differential Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate Coagulation Studies Bone Marrow Aspiration ```
39
What does a CBC test?
Infection Anemia Arthritides Cancer
40
What does an RBC Production and Function?
Hematocrit (percentage of whole blood occupied by RBCs) Hemoglobin (oxygen-carrying capacity) Reticulocyte (bone marrow production)
41
What do the Serum Chemistries test?
Iron and Iron Binding Ferritin Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid
42
What does a Bone Marrow Aspiration test?
Infectious Diseases Leukemia Lymphoma Multiple Myeloma
43
What does an ERS test?
Rate RBCs settle out of unclotted blood in 1 hour | Polymyalgia rheumatica, Giant cell arteriris, RA, SLE, Hodgkin's disease, TB
44
What are the 5 types of Leukocytes?
``` Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils ```
45
What are the 3 types of Lymphocytes?
Helper T Cells (middle man) Suppressor T Cells B-Lymphocytes
46
What does a WBC Function test indicate?
Susceptible to infection
47
What does a WBC Differential test indicate?
Maturity (left shift of neutrophils during infection/necrosis) Morphology Qualitative abnormalities
48
What tests are used to evaluate hemostasis?
Bleeding Time Prothrombin Time International Normalized Ratio Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time
49
What are the 2 Regulation of Coagulation tests?
D-Dimer: Neg (low chance of thrombus) Elevated (unfavorable coagulation) Warfarin Sensitivity: Genotypes associated with abnormal sensitivity to warfarin (coumadin)
50
What are the Immunologic Tests?
Tumor-Associated Antigens Rheumatoid Factor Human Leukocyte Antigen Antinuclear Antibodies
51
What all is analyzed in a Urinalysis test?
Color and Appearance (Pale yellow to amber; turbidity: clear to slightly hazy) Specific Gravity (high if concentrated urine) and Occult Blood (no RBCs seen) Glucose (spills into urine when renal tubule reabsorption capacity is exceeded) Ketones (excess when carb metabolism is altered in Type 1 diabetes, fat used as energy) Electrolytes (sodium, chloride, potassium) Drug Screening
52
What are the Microbiologic Study Tests?
``` Gram Stain (gram-positive [blue] vs gram-negative [pink]) Cultures: detect bacteria in blood, sputum, pleural fluid, throat, urine ```
53
What is a Peritoneal Fluid Analysis?
Paracentesis: insertion of a trocar through small surgical incision into abdominal cavity to remove fluid Diagnoses peritoneal effusion
54
What happens to your immune system as you age?
Decreased Cell Immunity Chronic Disease Increased Likelihood of Exposure to Nosocomial Infections Subtle Response to Infection
55
What are the 3 lines of defense?
1st: Normal Flora 2nd: Inflammatory Process 3rd: Immune Response
56
What are the characteristics of Group B Streptococcal Infections?
Streptococcus Pneumoniae Leading cause: Neonatal pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis Direct Contact or Inhalation Vaccine for children and older adults
57
What are the blood-borne Viral Diseases?
Hepatitis B Hepatitis C HIV
58
What are the Herpesviruses?
``` Herpes Simplex (Type 1 and 2) Varicella/Herpes Zoster (Type 3) EBV (Type 4) CMV (Type 5) Roseola (Type 6 and 7) Kaposi's Sarcoma (Type 8) ```
59
What are the Viral Respiratory Infections?
Influenza | Respiratory Syncytial Virus
60
What are the Epithelial Neoplasms?
Benign: Papilloma and Adenoma Malignant: Carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma
61
What are the CT/Muscle Neoplasms?
Benign: Fibroma and Osteoma Malignant: Fibrosarcoma and Osteosarcoma
62
What are the Nerve Neoplasms?
Benign: Neuroma Malignant: Glioma and Retinoblastoma
63
What are the Lymphoid Neoplasms?
Lymphoma
64
What are the Hematopoietic Neoplasms?
Leukemia and Multiple Myeloma
65
What are the characteristics of Actinic Keratosis?
Precancerous (10% advance to carcinoma) Small, dry, crusty Face, lips, back of hands, arms, shoulders
66
What is the TNM Staging System?
T: Primary Tumor (Tx, T0, TIS, T1-4 N: Regional Lymph Nodes (Nx, N0, N1-3 M: Distant Metastasis (Mx, M0, M1
67
What is the tumor angiogenesis?
How cancerous cells invade the body | Cells break away, travel through blood/lymphatic system, trapped in capillaries
68
What tumors are most likely to metastasize to the brain?
Lungs
69
Clinical manifestations of Liver metastasis?
Abdominal pain, general malaise, fatigue, anorexia, early satiety, weight loss
70
What are the clinical manifestations of bone metastasis?
Metastasize to the lung Osteolytic: lung, kidney, thyroid, breast Osteoblastic: breast and prostate
71
What are the clinical manifestations of CNS metastasis?
Brain: life-threatening and debilitating; rarely metastasize | Spinal Cord: compression with osteolytic changes; loss of neuro function
72
What are the systemic clinical manifestations of tumors?
Nausea, vomiting, retching, cancer-related anorexia/cachexia, pain, fever
73
What are the different types of childhood cancer?
``` Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia Lymphomas Primary CNS Tumors Neuroblastoma Wilm's (Kidney) Tumor Rhabdomyosarcoma ```
74
What is Dysplasia?
General disorganization of cells
75
What is Metaplasia?
Reversible and benign change from one cell type to another
76
What is Hyperplasia?
Increase in the number of cells in the tissue; benign or malignant
77
What is Anaplasia?
Loss of cellular differentiation; malignant only | Most advanced form of Metaplasia
78
Innate vs. Acquired Immunity
Innate: natural or native (skin and mucosal barriers; nonspecific inflammatory response) Acquired: adaptive: either active (body does something) or passive (body doesn't do anything)
79
Humoral vs Cell-Mediated Adaptive Immunity
Humoral: relies on antibodies | Cell-Mediated: relies on phagocytes and T lymphocytes
80
What are the phases of immune response?
``` Recognition Amplification Effector Termination Memory ```
81
What happens to immunity as you age?
Decreased resistance to pathogens Increased tumor incidence Increased autoimmune diseases
82
What are the Diseases of Secondary Immunodeficiency?
``` Leukemia Hodgkin's Malnutrition Alcoholism Autoimmune Diseases Diabetes Mellitus Cancer Iatrogenic (Immunosuppressive Drugs, Radiation, Splenectomy) ```
83
What are the common immunodeficiency disorders you will run into?
HIV/AIDS CFS and IDS Hypersensitivity Disorders
84
What are some of the clinical manifestations of CFS?
Sore throat, fever, muscle pain/weakness
85
What are the stages of Hypersensitivity Disorders?
Type I: Immediate, allergic, anaphylaxis Type II: Cytotoxic reactions to self-antigens Type III: Immune Complex Disease Type IV: Cell-Mediated Immunity
86
What is SLE?
Lupus 4 of 11 ARA must be present (butterfly rash, photosensitivity)) Genetics, stress, strep/viral infection, UV light, EBV, drugs
87
What are the disorders of the Pituitary Gland?
Anterior Lobe: Hyperpituitarism: Gigantism and Acromegaly (GH) Hypopituitarism: Panhypopituitarism and Dwarfism Posterior Lobe: Diabetes Insipidus and SIADH
88
What are the results of Hypopituitarism of GH?
Short stature, delayed growth, delayed puberty
89
What are the results of Hypopituitarism of ACTH?
Hypoglycemia, anorexia, nausea, orthostatic HTN
90
What are the results of Hypopituitarism of TSH?
Tiredness, lethargy, sensitivity to cold
91
What are the results of Hypopituitarism of LH and FSH?
Secondary amenorrhea, impotence, infertility, decreased libido, absent secondary sex characterstics
92
What are the neuro signs of secondary tumor?
Headache, bilateral temporal hemianopsia, loss of visual acuity, blindness
93
What are the results of Hypopituitarism of ADH?
``` Diabetes Insipidus (Posterior lobe) Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, nocturia, fatigue ```
94
What are the results of Hyperpituitarism of ADH?
SIADH | Headache, confusion, lethargy, decreased urine, weight gain, seizures, muscle cramps
95
What are the functional and anatomic abnormalities of the Thyroid Gland?
Functional: Hyperthyroidism (Grave's Disease) Hypothyroidism (most common) Anatomic: Thyroiditis Goiter Tumor
96
What are the signs and symptoms of Grave's Disease?
Goiter, nervousness, heat intolerance, weight loss, sweating, diarrhea, tremor, palpitations, exophthalmos Reduced capacity
97
What are the signs and symptoms of Hypothyroidism?
Bradycardia, Decreased GI motility, slowed neuro function, decreased body heat production, altered lipid metabolism, myxedema, exercise intolerance, edematous skin, chest pain, HTN, CHF
98
What is Goiter?
Enlargement of thyroid, lack of iodine, inflammation or tumors
99
What is Thyroiditis?
Inflammation of thyroid, bacterial/viral, autoimmune (Hashimoto's)
100
What is Hyperparathyroidism?
Release of bone calcium into blood Hypercalcemia -> hypergastrinemia -> abdominal pain, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis Kidney damage
101
What is Hypoparathyroidism?
Decreased bone resorption Iatrogenic and idiopathic Acute tetany (tingling, spasms, trousseau's sign, chvostek's sign, laryngospasm)
102
What are the hormones of the Adrenal Glands?
Outer Cortex: Mineralocorticoids (fluid balance), Glucocorticoids (metabolism), and Sex hormones Inner Medulla: Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
103
What are the Adrenal Conditions?
Insufficiency: Addison's (Primary) and Secondary Hyperfunction: Cushing's Syndrome, Conn's Syndrome, and Adrenal Hyperplasia
104
What is Addison's Disease?
Decreased cortisol and aldosterone Dark pigmentation, hypotension, progressive fatigue hyperkalemia, GI disturbances, Hypoglycemia
105
What is Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency?
Hypothalamic/pituitary tumors, rapid withdrawal of corticosteroid drugs ACTH and MSH levels too low
106
What is Acute Adrenal Insufficiency?
Life-Threatening, abrupt withdrawal | Watch medication adherence
107
What is Cushing's Syndrome?
``` Excess glucocorticoid Moon face, buffalo hump, protruding abdomen, weakness/atrophy, decreased density, DM Other form (oversecretion of ACTH by pituitary tumor, results from oversecretion of adrenocortical hormones) ```
108
What is Conn's Syndrome?
Hyperaldosteronism Hypervolemia: HTN results in cerebral infarcts/renal damage Hypokalemia: polyuria, polydipsia, DM Metabolic alkalosis Primary: adrenal lesion (benign) Secondary: renal artery stenosis, renal HTN, cirrhosis with ascites
109
What is Adipose Tissue Disorder?
Neurotransmitters + glucose -> adipocytes -> adipokines | Systemic low-grade inflammation
110
What is Phenylketonuria?
Genetic defect in metabolism of phenylalanine Mental retardation, tremors, poor coordination, perspiration, seizures (untreated) Screened in newborns, dietary restrictions
111
What is Wilson's Disease?
Hepatolenticular Degeneration Copper metabolism defecit Kayser-Fleischer rings around iris, cirrhosis of liver, degenerative brain changes
112
What is Porphyrias?
Hereditary, but sometimes acquired | Enzymatic abnormalities in biosynthesis of heme molecules