Exam 1 Flashcards

(216 cards)

1
Q

What are the 6 different types of synovial joints?

A
  1. Pivot
  2. Ball and socket
  3. Saddle
  4. Ellipsoid
  5. Hinge
  6. Gliding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

S2 tubercle is found approximately at the level of what other anatomical structure?

A

PSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The apex of the heart is found approximately at what vertebral layer?

A

T10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Vertebral notches are found as part of which vertebral structure?

A

Pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Supination and pronation movements occur in which plane?

A

Transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List sympathetic responses

A

Pupils dilate, eyes widen
Mucous membranes of nose/mouth dry
Erector pili muscles contract, sweating
Blood supply to skin and GI tract constricted
Blood supply to heart, lungs, skel muscles dilated
Cardiac stroke volume increases, brachiodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List parasympathetic responses:

A

Pupils constrict
Mucous membranes secrete
Peristalsis of GI tract
Blood supply increased to GI tract and skin
Blood supply decreased to skel muscle, heart, lungs
Bronchoconstriction and decreased cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Medial and lateral movements occur in what plane?

A

Sagittal/Median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anterior and posterior movements occur in what plane?

A

Coronal/frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Movement along an axis is what?

A

Translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Movement around an axis is what?

A

Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Theta movement moves in what direction?

A

Counterclockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many fused vertebrae make up the coccyx?

A

3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which 2 segments contain no discs between vertebrae?

A

C0-C1 and C1-C2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The 7 processes from the posterior aspect are made of which processes?

A

1 SP, 2 TP, 4 APs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The median furrow surface connects from ____ to ____.

A
EOP 
Gluteal cleft (S3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inferior angle of scapula positioning while prone and while standing?

A

Prone- T6

Standing- T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T1 is the most prominent SP in what population percentage?

A

30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The mastoid process is felt by coming off the TP of which vertebra?

A

C1 (atlas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which cervical vertebra has the smallest SP?

A

C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The C3 SP is approximately the same level as what feature of the hyoid bone?

A

Greater cornua

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

C4 disc sits level with ____.

A

Thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lamina contact point or the articular pillars are approximately how far lateral from the cervical SPs?

A

1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Carotid tubercle (C6) is level with cricoid cartilage and which tracheal ring?

A

1st tracheal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The root of the spine of the scapula is found off which SP?
T3 SP
26
The most convex point of thoracic kyphosis is which SP?
T4
27
T12 is a 1/2 measurement point between ____ and ____.
IAS | Superior iliac crest
28
T5-9 are how many spinous interspaces superior to their SP?
2
29
Rib angles are approximately how far lateral to the midline at the level of their TP?
4 cm
30
Which SP is the last palpably movable through flex/extend?
L4
31
80% of the time, L4 SP is at level of ____.
Iliac crests
32
What processes are found 2cm lateral on the superior articular processes?
Mammillary
33
Mammillary processes are level with which bony landmark?
PSIS
34
Which sacral tubercle is located at the upper end of the gluteal cleft?
S3
35
Tip of coccyx is approximately how far posterior of the anus?
1cm
36
Spinal nerves exit at the same level as their vertebral body down the foramen magnum at what month of development?
3rd month
37
At birth, conus medullaris (spinal cord) extends to ____.
L3
38
In adults, conus medullaris is located at which vertebral body?
L1 or L2
39
Cervical cord runs along foramen magnum
SP C6
40
Upper thoracic cord runs T1-T6 and approximates with ____.
SPs of C6-T4
41
Lower thoracic cord runs T7-T12 and approximates with ____.
SPs of T4-T9
42
Lumbosacral coccygeal cord approximates with ____.
SPs of T10-L1 conus medullaris
43
Cervical cord enlargement C4-T1 approximates with ____.
C4-C7 vertebral bodies
44
Lumbar cord enlargement L2-S3 approximates with ____.
T10-L1 vertebral bodies or T9-12 SPs
45
Aorta runs down which side of the vertebral bodies?
Left
46
Which portion of the aorta extends T12-L4?
Abdominal aorta
47
Abdominal aorta bifurcates as the ____ below L4.
Common iliac veins
48
Inferior vena cava forms at the joining of the common iliac veins at which level of the vertebral bodies?
L5
49
Inferior vena cava travels up which side of the vertebral bodies?
Right
50
3 functions of the spine:
Support body Protect spinal cord/nerve roots Movement of trunk
51
The neural groove is made of the combinations of ____ and ____.
Neural tube | Neural crest
52
Somites are derived from what?
Paraxial mesoderm
53
Somites develop into what? (3)
Dermatomes Myotomes Sclerotomes
54
Dermatomes make up ____.
Dermis and subcutaneous tissue
55
Myotomes make up ____.
Axial muscles
56
Sclerotomes migrate centrally forming ____.
Vertebral column and associated ligaments
57
What are the 3 layers that the inferior portion of neural tube differentiates into?
Ependymal Mantle Marginal
58
Ependymal layer is located ____.
Around central canal
59
Mantle layer makes up ____.
Neurons and glia
60
Marginal layer is associated with ____.
Axons of the tract cells (white matter)
61
Neural crest makes up sensory neurons of the ____ and postganglionic neurons of the ____.
PNS | ANS
62
Which type of cells form 3 pairs of chondrifaction centers forming a cartilage model?
Sclerotomal cells
63
Of the 3 primary centers of ossification, 1 forms the ____ of the vertebral body and 2 form the ____.
Future anterior portion | Future posterior portion
64
Fusion of either side of the vertebral body with the neural arch is called what?
Neurocentral synchdrosis
65
Secondary ossification centers develop between what ages?
10-13
66
Where are the 5 secondary ossification centers located?
Superior endplate-1 Inferior endplate aka annular or ring epiphyses- 1 TP- 1 each SP- 1
67
Growth ends between what age range?
14 and 25 years
68
Thoracic kyphosis apex is at what vertebra?
T4
69
In thoracic kyphosis, the vertebral bodies are ____ posteriorly than anteriorly.
Taller
70
In pelvic kyphosis, lumbosacral junction to coccyx faces ____ and ____.
Anterior | Inferior
71
Cervical lordosis occurs around what age?
3-4 months, reinforced around 9 months
72
At what age does lumbar lordosis occur?
10-18 months
73
In lumbar lordosis, disc and vertebral bodies are ____ anteriorly than posteriorly.
Taller
74
What are the cervical segments where compression fractures from superior force occur?
C4-C6
75
What are the cervical segments where compression fractures from inferior force occurs?
T9-L2
76
Hyperflexion of trunk injury most commonly affects which segments?
T5-T6
77
Trabeculae are orientated in which direction relative to lines of greatest stress (such as axial compression)?
Parallel
78
Smooth region around the edge of the superior and inferior surfaces of vertebral body is formed by what?
Annular apophysis
79
Most vertebral bodies concave posteriorly towards the ____.
Vertebral foramen
80
Pedicles attach to the posterior ____ aspect of vertebral body.
Lateral
81
Pedicles are ____ to the midpoint of the vertebral body.
Superior
82
Laminae are continuous with what structures?
Pedicles
83
Laminae thickness ____.
Varies regionally
84
Spinous processes may normally deviate in which directions?
Left and right
85
Borders of vertebral foramen are composed of what structures?
Vertebral body, R/L pedicles, R/L lamina, spinous process
86
Which ligaments are found within the the vertebral canal?
PLL, ligamentum flava
87
Transverse processes project laterally from the junction of which structures?
Lamina and pedicle
88
Cervical transverse processes project ____.
Obliquely anterior between sagittal and coronal plane | Located anterior to articular process and lateral to pedicles
89
Thoracic transverse processes project ____.
Obliquely posterior | Located posterior to articular processes, pedicles
90
Lumbar transverse processes project ____.
Anterior to articular processes, posterior to pedicles
91
Cervical costal element:
Anterior tubercle of transverse foramen
92
Thoracic costal element:
Ribs
93
Lumbar costal element:
Anterior aspect of TP
94
Sacral costal element:
Sacral ala
95
Superior articular process projects ____.
Superiorly from lamina pedicle junction
96
Superior articular process forms ____.
Zygapophyseal joints (facets)
97
Cervical and lumbar articular surfaces face ____.
Posteromedial
98
Thoracic articular surfaces face ____.
Posterolateral
99
Inferior articular processes articular surface faces ____.
Anterior
100
Which functional components of a typical vertebra determine spinal movement?
Superior/inferior articular processes
101
Which functional component of a typical vertebra acts to transfer weight?
Posterior arches
102
What are the 3 AKAs for zygapophyseal joints?
Z joint, facet joint, interlaminar joint
103
Z joints are what kind of synovial joint?
Planar
104
What is the function of the z joint?
Determine direction/limitation of movement between vertebrae, help carry load during extension/rotation
105
Anterior and medial portions of z joint are covered by the ____.
Ligamentum flavum
106
Which layer of z joint has sensory and autonomic innervation?
Synovial
107
Ligamentum flavum and z joint capsule have ____ receptors.
Nociceptive
108
Z joints are innervated by the medial branch of the ____ primary rami.
Dorsal
109
Broad pain referral pattern within z joints comes from innervation of what nerve?
Medial branch of dorsal primary rami
110
What are the 3 types of sensory receptors which innervate the z joints?
Nociceptors, free nerve endings Complex unencapsulated nerve endings Proprioceptors, encapsulated nerve endings
111
Z joint pathology for back pain?
Facet syndrome
112
What are the facet angles in the cervical spine?
45 degrees, loose joint capsule
113
What are the facet angles in the thoracic spine?
60 degrees | Allows rotation, limits flex/extend and lateral flex
114
What are the facet angles in the lumbar spine?
90 degrees | Allows flex/extend, limits rotation and lateral flexion
115
Movement is limited/determined by what 4 main structures?
IVD shape/orientation of articular facets ligaments muscles
116
Spinal ligaments are most effective when carrying loads when ____.
The stress parallels the direction that ligament fibers run
117
Ligamentum nuchae runs what length of the spinal column?
C7 SP to EOP | Lamellar and funicular portions
118
Supraspinous ligament and ligamentum nuchae limit which range of motion?
Flexion
119
Interspinous ligaments run what length of spinal column?
Inferior aspect of 1 SP to the superior aspect of 1 SP below Limits flexion
120
Intertransverse ligaments run what length of the spinal column?
Connect inferior aspect of 1 TP to superior aspect of 1 TP below Limits contralateral lateral flexion
121
Ligamentum flava connects ____ to ____.
Lamina to lamina
122
Ligamentum flava lies directly ____ to the spinal cord.
Posterior
123
PLL runs down which aspect of the vertebral canal?
Anterior | Posterior to vertebral bodies
124
PLL begins at which vertebral body?
C2
125
PLL functions to limit which movements?
Flexion | Posterior disc protrusion
126
Tectorial membrane runs what length of the vertebral column?
Posterior body of C2 up to anterior rim of foramen magnum
127
Tectorial membrane functions to limit what movement?
Flexion and extension of atlas and occiput
128
What are the 4 specialized upper cervical ligaments?
Accessory atlanto-axial Cruciate ligament of atlas Alar ligaments Apical
129
Cruciate ligament of atlas functions to ____.
Keep the transverse ligament of C1 centered on the dens with superior/inferior bands
130
Alar ligaments function to limit what movement?
Contralateral axial rotation
131
Alar ligaments run what length of the vertebral column?
Posterior lateral dens to occipital condyle
132
Apical ligament runs what length of the spinal column?
Posterior superior dens to anterior rim of foramen magnum
133
ALL runs what length of the spinal column?
Runs occiput and anterior tubercle of atlas to each vertebral body limiting extension
134
Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane runs what length of the spinal column?
Anterior margin of foramen magnum to superior aspect of anterior arch of atlas Limits extension of occiput on C1
135
Anterior atlanto-occipital membrane is located ____ to ALL.
Posterior
136
Spinal flexion is limited by which ligaments?
``` Posterior IVD PLL Ligamentum flava Interspinous ligaments Supraspinous ligaments Ligamentum nuchae Articular capsules Articular facets Muscles (extensors) ```
137
Spinal extension is limited by which structures?
``` Anterior IVD ALL Approximation of SPs Articular processes Laminae ```
138
Spinal lateral flexion is limited by which structures?
Lateral IVD Intertransverse ligaments Approximation of articular processes Muscles (antagonists)
139
Spinal rotation is limited by which structures?
Annulus fibrosus of IVD | Orientation of articular processes/facets
140
Coupled motion is a combined movement of ____.
Rotation with lateral flexion
141
Which regions of the spine have slight vertebral body rotation due to orientation of superior and inferior articular facets when laterally flexed?
Cervical and lumbar
142
Nucleus pulposus comes from the ____ and annulus fibrosus comes from the ____.
Notochord | Mesechyme/sclerotome
143
A 12-20 layered annulus fibrosus is found in which region of the spine?
Lumbar
144
A crescent shaped annulus fibrosus is found in which region of the spine?
Cervical
145
The IVD is connected to the vertebral body by ____ cartilaginous endplates.
Superior and inferior
146
Joint formed by IVD connecting 2 vertebral bodies is called the ____ or ____.
Anterior interbody joint | Intervertebral symphysis
147
The anterior interbody joint or intervertebral symphysis is classified as what kind of joint?
Cartilaginous, symphysis joint
148
At what age has the IVD started to become nearly avascular?
20
149
Sacral IVD remnants ossify into what structures?
Transverse lines
150
IVD are thickest in which region of the spine?
Lumbar
151
IVD are thinnest in what region of the spine?
Upper thoracic
152
Cervical and lumbar IVDs are thicker ____ than ____ contributing to regional lordosis.
Anteriorly | Posteriorly
153
Cervical IVDs are approximately ____ height of the vertebral bodies.
2/5
154
Thoracic IVDs are approximately ____ the height of the vertebral bodies.
1/5
155
Lumbar IVDs are approximately ____ the height of the vertebral bodies.
1/3
156
IVDs are connected firmly to the ____ and loosely to the ____.
PLL | ALL
157
IVD composition includes:
Water, chondrocytes, fibroblasts, proteoglycans aggregates, type I and II collagen fibers
158
The process by which IVD uptakes fluid is called ____.
Imbibition
159
What are the 3 regions of the IVD?
Annulus fibrosus Nucleus pulposus Vertebral (cartilaginous) endplates
160
Annulus fibrosus is composed of what kind of tissue?
Type I collagen
161
Nucleus pulposus is composed of what type of tissue?
Type II collagen
162
Lumbar and thoracic annulus fibrosus are convex ____.
Anteriorly
163
Collagen fibers of annulus fibrosus run parallel at ____ degrees from vertical.
65
164
Most superficial lamella attach to the IVD of the ring apophysis via ____.
Sharpey fibers
165
Cervical annulus fibrosus are composed of how many rings of crescent shaped fibrocartilage?
1
166
What part of of the annulus fibrosis limits flexion?
Posterior annulus
167
What part of the annulus fibrosus limits extension?
Anterior annulus
168
What part of the annulus fibrosus limits lateral flexion?
Contralateral side of annulus
169
What part of the annulus fibrosus limits axial rotation?
45 degrees off the plane of the disc, tensile force
170
During lateral flexion, what direction does the IVD bulge towards?
Side of the concavity
171
Which region of the IVD is the weakest?
Postero-lateral
172
Which fibers innervate the annulus fibrosus?
GSA and GVA Posterior aspect, recurrent meningeal nerve Anterior/lateral aspect, branches of ventral rami and sympathetic chain
173
What are the 2 different types of IVD tears?
Circumferential and radial tears
174
Nucleus pulposus notochordal cells are completely replaced by what type of tissue around 11 years of age?
Fibrocartilage
175
Nucleus pulposus is made up ____ percent of water?
70-90
176
At what age does water begin to degenerate from within the nucleus pulposus?
30
177
How does the nucleus pulposus receive nutrients?
Imbibition, sodium and potassium remain inside IVD as compressive forces force out water
178
Vertebral (cartilaginous) end plate lines everywhere but where?
The most peripheral rim, superiorly and inferiorly
179
The vertebral (cartilaginous) end plate attaches disc to ____ vertebral body.
Adjacent
180
During compressive loading of the vertebral column, when does the vertebral (cartilaginous) end plate fail?
First
181
Cervical (C1-C7) spinal nerves exit through ____ above their respective vertebra.
IVFs
182
Which spinal nerve would a C4 disc protrusion affect?
C5 nerve
183
C8 spinal nerves and below enter through IVFs ____ their respective vertebra.
Below
184
Lumbar spinal nerves exit below its respective vertebra but the nerve ____ preventing a disc protrusion below.
Hugs the pedicle
185
Narrowing of he vertebral canal is called what?
Spinal canal stenosis
186
Epidural space is how deep?
4-6 mm deep
187
Internal vertebral venous plexus is also known as?
Batson’s plexus of veins
188
What divides the spinal cord into spinal segments?
Rootlets
189
Medial branches of the dorsal ramus supply what structures?
Z joints and transversospinalis muscles
190
Lateral branches of the dorsal ramus supply what?
Erector spinae muscles
191
IVF anterior border is located along what structures?
Vertebral bodies and IVDs
192
IVF superior border is located along what structure?
Inferior vertebral notch of pedicle above
193
IVF inferior border is located along what structure?
Superior pedicle notch of pedicle below
194
IVF posterior border is located along what structure?
Z joints
195
Function of spinal muscles:
Move spine, maintain posture, absorb shock, protect spine/viscera
196
Which part of the nervous system controls muscle coordination?
CNS
197
The 1st of the 6 layers of back muscles connects what portions of the body?
Upper limb to vertebral column
198
Which muscles make up the 1st layer of the back muscles?
Trapezius and latissimus dorsi
199
Trapezius is innervated by what structure?
Spinal accessory N (CN XI) and proprioceptive from C3 and C4 ventral rami
200
Latissimus dorsi is innervated by what structure?
Thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8 ventral rami off of posterior cord of brachial plexus)
201
Thoracolumbar (thoracodorsal) fascia is made up of how many layers?
3
202
2nd layer of the 6 layers of back muscles all attach on what structure?
Medial border of scapula
203
Muscles of the 2nd layer of 6 layers of the back include:
Rhomboid major and minor | Levator scapular
204
Rhomboid major and minor muscles are innervated by what structure?
Dorsal scapular nerve (C5 from ventral rami of brachial plexus)
205
Levator scapula muscle is innervated by what structure?
Dorsal scapular nerve (C5) and ventral rami of C3 and C4 spinal nerves
206
3rd layer of the 6 layers of back muscles contains the following muscles:
Serratus posterior superior and inferior
207
Serratus posterior superior is innervated by what structure?
Ventral rami of T2-T5 (via intercostal nerves)
208
Serratus posterior inferior is innervated by what structure?
Ventral rami of T9-T11 via intercostal nerves and subcostal nerve (ventral rami of T12)
209
4th layer of 6 layers of back muscles has the following muscles:
Splenius capitis | Splenius cervicis
210
All deep back muscles (4th-6th layers) are all innervated by what structure?
Dorsal (posterior) rami
211
5th layer of the 6 layers of back muscles contain the following muscles:
Iliocostalis group Longissimus group Spinalis group
212
5th layer of the 6 layers of the back are innervated by what portion of the dorsal primary rami?
Lateral portions
213
6th layer of the 6 layers of back muscles contains the following muscles:
Semispinalis group Multifidus group Rotatores group
214
6th group of 6 layers of back muscles are innervated by what portion of the dorsal rami?
Medial branches
215
Suboccipital muscles are innervated by what structure?
Dorsal rami of C1 (suboccipital nerve)
216
Diaphragm is innervated by what structure?
Phrenic nerve (ventral rami C3-C5 off cervical plexus)