Exam 1 Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

‘/What is the CPOT?

A

Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the scoring indicate on the CPOT

A

0=no pain————4=some pain———-8=extreme pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four categories on the CPOT?

A
  • Facial Expression 0=relaxed 1=tense 2=grimacing
  • Body movements 0=no mvmt 1=protection 2-restless/agitated
  • Compliance w ventilator or vocalization 10=tolerating/easy or talking normally 1= tolerating/coughing or sighing/moaning 2=fighting or sobbing
  • Muscle Tension 0=Relaxed 1= Tense/rigid 2= very tense/rigid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rules for CPOT

A
  • pt must be observed at rest for one minute to obtain a baseline value
  • Then, pt should be obs during nociceptive procedures (e.g. turning, wound care) to detect any changes in in response to pain.
  • pt should be eval’d before and at peak effect of an analgesic agent to assess med effectiveness
  • attribute the highest score obs during the obs period.
  • muscle tension should be eval’d last, especially when the patient is at rest bc touch may lead to behavioral reactions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risk Factors of Delirium

A
  • age
  • post-op
  • pain meds
  • h/o dimentia
  • male
  • vent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is CAM-ICU tool?

A

an acute confusion assessment method tool used in ICU to identify and recognize delirium quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the RASS tool?

A

Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale

used to measure level of sedation in ICU pt’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is the Richmond measured?

A
  • (-3 to -5) Need to decrease sedation
    • Unarousable -5, Deep Sedation-4, mod sed -3
  • (-2 to 0) Good! No intervention needed at this time!
    • Light sed -2, drowsy -1, restless +1, alert & calm 0
  • (+2 to +4) Not enough sedation! Assess for pain, anxiety and delirium!
    • Agitated +2, very agitated, +3 combative +4

pos 4, sedate the whore

neg 5, sedations high

Rich is hero, we want him at 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why would you give a paralytic to a pt on a ventilator?

A

Pt is very agitated and can’t be controlled with benzo’s or analgesics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Paralytics used for pt’s on ventilators

A

Succinylcholine or vecoronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Additional interventions when giving a pt a paralytic to pt’s on ventilators

A

pain management and sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Train of Four tool?

A

device that gives an electrical impulse to the ulnar or facial nerve to detect level of paralytic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Train of Four (TOF) scale

A

Measuring paralytic effectiveness:

  • attach electrodes to facial or ulnar nerve
  • count muscle twitches
    • 0 twitches = over paralyzed
    • 2 twitches = Goal
    • 4 twitches = not enough paralytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do you say to visitors of ICU patients?

A

Explain the situation

Paint a picture of what they will see

Universal visiting hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is terminal weaning?

A

Weaning off mechanical ventiliation in terminal pt’s

Extubation of the patient to allow them to die

use only pain management and sedation

Pt is going to die, no chance of recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first thing you do when educating a patient/family on discharge info

A

assess prior knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pt changes that would require Rapid Response?

A
  • Can’t keep sats above 90
  • can’t keep systolic BP >90
  • RR >30
  • ALOC
  • HR >130 (except w pain or fever)
  • Can’t get blood sugar >40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the ABCDEF bundle?

A

a = assess pain

b= both completed spont awakenng and spont breathing

c= choice of analgesia

d= delirium assessment performed

e= early mobility (even intubated)

f= family involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What to look for in an ABG when determining which pt to see first?

A
  • #1 PaO2 (who has the lowest needs seen first)
  • the patient who is the most acidotic (resp. acidosis, low pH and Pa02)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ways of calculating the rate on a 6 sec ECG strip, when it is regular

A
  • count R waves and multiply X 10
  • count large boxes between R waves and ÷ 300
    • 2= 150 HR
    • 3= 100 HR
    • 4= 75 HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

P-wave represents

A

atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

QRS complex represents

Normal measurements?

A

Ventrical depolarization

0.08-0.12 (2-3 sm boxes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T wave represents

A

ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PR interval represents

normal measurements?

A

mvmnt from SA node to AV node to bundle of his to perkinje fibers (before ventricals contract)

0.12-0.21 (3-5 small boxes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
QT interval represents
depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles the time between the beginning of Q and the end of S
26
Prolonged QT can lead to what?
dysrhythmias
27
What does a widened QRS represent?
pt is havingk PVC's, if ignored can lead to v-tach then v-fib then asystole
28
What is a PVC? What causes PVC's
​A ventricular contraction that happens at the wrong time * Drugs * caffeine * post-op * recent MI
29
Treatment for PVC's, V-tach, and asystole
Antidysrhythmic Amiodorone or Lidocaine
30
4 PVC's in a row
V-tach
31
R on T phenomenon
When a PVC happens at the moment of ventricular refractory phase on the downslope of the preceding T wave, it can trigger V-tach or V-fib.
32
cardiovert vs. defib
* cardiovert- awake pt's with consent, using less electricity, and sedated * defib- pt's who are pulseless, v-tach, and v-fib
33
Interventions for pt's in v-tach with a pulse (stable)
* amiodorone 150
34
what is synchronized cardioversion Why is it used?
The cardiovert machine synchronizes (press synchronize button) so that it delivers the shock at the highest point of the R wave. To prevent the R on T phenomenon
35
interventions for v-fib
amiodorone pulseless = cpr, amiodorone
36
interventions for V-tach with a pulse
Least invasive -\> invasive * **Assess:** BP, RR, chest pain?, pale? diaphoretic?, * **Amiodorone** 150 over 10 minutes * Still has a **pulse** and symptomatic =**Cardiovert w sedation (diprovan)**
37
Interventions for v-tach without a pulse
* Call for help * CPR * Epi q 3-5 mins * shock * CPR * Amiodorone/lidocain/proconamide (enterchangeable) (1X)
38
what allergy is not compatable with diprovan (propofol)?
Eggs
39
interventions for Torsades
Mg+ push
40
Can you defib a pt in asystole/cardiac arrest
NO! * CPR * Epi * Amiodorone
41
causes for cardiac arrest or PEA
H's and T's * hydrogen prob. (acidotic) * hypo-hyperthermia * hypo/hyperkalemia * hypoxia * tension pneumo * tamponade * thrombus (PE or MI)
42
Rapid sequence intubation
When intubation is needed immediately due to ARDS, burns, etc * sedate with versed or fentanyl * paralyze
43
How to confirm ET tube placement
* bilateral chest expansion * ascultate lungs * C02 detector strip (gold) * CXR
44
What causes the high pressure alarm to go off on a ventilator?
* check the tube for kinks etc * pt is coughing * pt bites the tube * mucus plug
45
What causes the low pressure alarm to go off on a ventilator?
* the tubing is disconnected * the patient pulled the tube out (extubation)
46
What do you do if you can't find the cause of ventilator alarms going off?
Manually ventilate
47
Pneumonia symptoms
fever increased HR Increased WBC's crackles sputum
48
PNU Patho
Bacterial, viral, or fungal infection of one or both lungs that cause the alveoli to fill with fluid or pus, causing them to stick together and not fill with air.
49
PE symptoms
Increased HR Decreased BP dyspnea hemoptysis fever chest pain Decreased 02 wheezing crackles blood in sputum
50
PE Patho
When a deep venous thrombi (DVT) detach and embolize to the pulmonary circulation, occluding the pulmonary arteries.
51
PE treatment
heparin or lovenox (sub-q) DC'd on warfarin or apiciban
52
Labs for PE
D-dimer ABG's (hypoxia) CT scan (dye --\> shellfish allergy
53
VAP interventions
​Bundle care: * hand hygeine * elevate HOB 30-45 (to prevent aspiration) * reposition at least q 2hrs * DVT prophylaxis - heparin and SCD's * Peptic ulcer prophylaxis - PPI's and H2 blockers * oral care with chlorahexadine * sedation holiday
54
Causes of VAP
* hand hygeine * cross contamination * vent tubing ( drain away from pt) * oral care
55
Signs of acute respiratory distress (ARDS)
Early: * tachypnea --\> resp alkalosis * restlessness --\> resp acidosis * **severe SOB** * labored breathing * low BP * confusion and extreme tiredness Late: * cyanosis
56
causes of ARDS
Sepsis inhalants severe pneumonia head, chest, or other major injurt Pancreatitis, massive blood transfusions, burns
57
Patho of ARDS
Inflammatory process destroys the alveoli epithelial lining making them more permeable. Fluid builds up in the alveoli, keeping lungs from filling with enough air, and less 02 reaches the bloodstream and to tissues and organs.
58
ARDS
* decreased compliance in alveoli - fibrotic and can't stretch * inadequate gas exchange * chest white out (fluid build up that hardens) * decreasing Pa02 despite increasing fiO2 * keep giving 02 and Pa02 still decreases * refractory hypoxemia
59
ARDS treatment/interventions
* antibiotics * increase peep * prone position * echmo * fluid and electrolytes * nutrition (TPN) (bc they are prone)
60
What is PEEP
**Positive end-expiratory pressure** The pressure applied by the vent at the end of each breath that keep alveoli from collapsing
61
What happens when there is too much PEEP
* it puts too much positive pressure into the lungs, increasing thoracic pressure, which can cause hypotension * Can overinflate and explode alveoli
62
What position do you put a patient with ARDS with PEEP ventilation
Prone \* \*\*when moving patient, always have one nurse watch the ET tube to prevent extubation
63
Haldol
med for dimentia
64
Haldol side effects
dysrhythmias dry mouth constipaiton sedating causes EPS
65
Medication for symptomatic bradycardia
Atropine
66
Atropine side efffects
**anticholinergic** drys you out increased HR dilates pupils
67