Exam#1 Flashcards

1
Q

Flight Information Service includes the provision of information concerning collision
hazards to aircraft in airspace classes C, D E, F and G.

A

True

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2
Q

When aircraft use air traffic advisory service, the unit will deliver :

A

Advisory information

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3
Q

Which unit is responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue
services and for coordinating the conduct of search and rescue operations?

A

The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC)

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4
Q

When you received information indicating that the operating efficiency of the aircraft
has been impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely, what is the state of
emergency?

A

Distress phase

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5
Q

A surveillance radar system which uses reflected radio signal is a

A

Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR)

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6
Q

What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency

A

A7700

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7
Q

Is 7528 a SSR code (mode A)?

A

false

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8
Q

There are two types of radar used in ATC. What are they?

A

PSR and SSR

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9
Q

What is the tolerance factor of Mode C derived Height information within RVSM
airspace

A

+/- 200 f

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10
Q

What is the name of the procedure by which an aircraft is given headings to fly by a
radar controller to achieve positioning of an aircraft to start an instrument approach or
avoid other contacts etc …?

A

Radar vectoring

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11
Q

What is the common radar separation minima used by an area control unit?

A

5 Nm (9.3 Km)

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12
Q

Observation of compliance with an instruction to squawk IDENT is a PSR
identification procedure.

A

False

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13
Q

You are IFR and you are flying in VMC. You suffer a communication failure. What
are you required to do?

A

Continue to fly VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

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14
Q

What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

A

That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions

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15
Q

Without special permission, what is the highest flight level that VFR flight can fly?

A

FL195

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16
Q

In controlled airspace where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) is applied,
what is the highest FL that VFR flight is permitted at?

A

Even with special permission, not above FL290

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17
Q

Except for take off and landing, what is the lowest that an aeroplane flying VFR may
fly over a town or city?

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m radius of the aeroplane

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18
Q
You are flying in class G airspace, what is the lowest you are permitted to fly in VFR
when well away from towns etc…
A

500ft above ground level

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19
Q

What is the VMC criteria in class C airspace above FL100

A

Flight visibility 8Km or more, 1000ft (300m) vertically and 1500m
horizontally clear of the cloud

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20
Q

You are flying IFR outside of controlled airspace. Are you required to maintain a radio
watch?

A

Yes

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21
Q

An IFR flight operating in level cruising flight outside of controlled airspace shall be
flown at:

A

A cruising level appropriate to its track

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22
Q

When separation minima bases on ATS surveillance system are being applied at the
time of transfer of control, the transfer of air-ground communications of an aircraft
from the transferring to the accepting ATC unit shall be made immediately after the
accepting ATC unit has agreed to assume control.

A

True

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23
Q

Is the interception of civilian aircraft permitted?

A

Yes, each state has the sovereign right to intercept and identify aircraft flying
over its territory

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24
Q

When is a controlled flight required to make position reports

A

When not advised by ATC to cease position reports

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25
Q

You are about to take off from an aerodrome within a control zone. What cloud ceiling
and flight visibility limitations apply to VFR flights in this situation?

A

Ceiling at least 1500ft and visibility not less than 5Km

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26
Q

What defined a controlled aerodrome

A

An aerodrome where Air Traffic Control is provided for aerodrome traffic

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27
Q

. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress and Calling frequency?

A

121.500MHz

28
Q

An IFR approach procedure is composed of these segments:

A

Arrival segment, initial segment, intermediate segment, final segment, missed
approach segment

29
Q

Where timing is specified, the outbound leg length for holding procedure below
14000ft is:

A

1 minute

30
Q

For Category I precision approach, the Decision Height (DH) is:

A

DH ≥ 200ft

31
Q

How does ATC provide separation between controlled flights under IFR

A

By issuing clearances

32
Q

Vertical or horizontal separation between 2 IFR flights shall be provided in:

A

A, B, C, D, and E airspace classes

33
Q

What does the abbreviation ATIS stand for?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

34
Q

What is a “STAR”?

A

A pre-determined arrival route flown by IFR flights to the point at which an
instrument approach can begin

35
Q

. In a flight plan, if the flight rules field is filed with Y, it means:

A

The flight is IFR first then VFR

36
Q

The submission of a flight plan is compulsory when aircraft cross international
borders

A

True

37
Q

An flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be
submitted at least:

A

60 minutes before departure

38
Q

The airborne warning system to avoid collision between aircraft is:

A

TCAS

39
Q

Find the right answer:

A

ATM = ATS + ATFCM + ASM

40
Q

FUA is linked to:

A

ASM

41
Q

Which document contains the ICAO Rules of the Air?

A

ICAO Annex 2

42
Q

To which aircraft do the ICAO rules of the air apply?

A

Aircraft bearing an ICAO contracting state registration mark

43
Q

When an aircraft is flying, under what flight rules must the flight be conducted?

A

Either IFR or VFR

44
Q

An area Control Centre ACC provides

A

Air traffic control service, flight information service and alerting service

45
Q

UTA is a controlled airspace managed by

A

An area control center

46
Q

In class G airspace, a VFR flight flies heading 060. What could be the flight level?

A

095

47
Q

Is it possible to have a vertical distance of 500ft between two aircraft?

A

Yes, if there is no separation to be provided by an air traffic control unit

48
Q

QFE is

A

The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

49
Q

. Altimetry: QNH = 1020 hPa, QFE = 1010 hPa, 28ft/hPa. What is the altitude of the aerodrome

A

280 ft

50
Q

What is a standard

A

Any specifications, the uniform application of which is recognized as necessary in the
interests of safety, regularity or efficiency of international navigation and to which
contracting states will conform in accordance with the convention; in the event of
impossibility of compliance, notification to the council is compulsory

51
Q

Aerodrome control service prevents collision on the movement area?

A

False

52
Q

When two aircraft are approaching head on, what are they expected to do?

A

Each shall alter its heading to the right

53
Q

Which of the following are the three basic Air Traffic Services?

A

Air Traffic Control, Flight information Service, Alerting Service

54
Q

What is the basic Air traffic service provided in a FIR?

A

Flight Information Service

55
Q

What does define a controlled aerodrome?

A

An aerodrome where air traffic control is provided for aerodrome traffic

56
Q

What are Air Traffic Control Units required to provide?

A

Air traffic services within CTAs, CTRs and at controlled aerodrome

57
Q

By what/whom is area control provided?

A

An ACC or by Approach control unit

58
Q

How does ATC provide separation between controlled flights under IFR?

A

By issuing clearances

59
Q

What is the name of the CTA located over FL195

A

UTA

60
Q

The aerodrome controller is responsible for preventing collision on the apron?

A

False

61
Q

The vertical separation in a RVSM airspace between two approved RVSM aircraft is

A

1000 ft

62
Q

What is the vertical distance between these two aircraft if the first flight is at 2280ft/QNH
and the second flight at 1000ft / QFE? QFE = 1010 hPa, QNH = 1020 hPa, 28ft/hPa

A

1000 ft

63
Q

What are the two different kinds of air traffic?

A

GAT-OAT

64
Q

When the meteorological conditions are VMC:

A

The pilot can fly in VFR or IFR

65
Q

What SSR squawk should be set in a radio failure?

A

A7600

66
Q

What is the common radar separation minima used by an area control unit?

A

5Nm