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Integumentary > Exam 1 Drugs > Flashcards

Exam 1 Drugs Flashcards

1
Q
  • For the treatment of alopecia

- Originally developed as an antihypertensive agent

A

Minoxidil (Rogaine)

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2
Q
  • For the treatment of alopecia

- Approved for men only

A

Finasteride (Propecia)

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3
Q
  • Topical antimicrobial agent
  • Broad spectrum G+ and G- activity
  • Number 1 choice
  • Used for treating burns
  • Must be used withing first few hours that wound occurs
A

Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

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4
Q
  • Topical antimicrobial agent

- Best for contaminated burn wounds or treatment has been delayed

A

Mafenide Acetate (Sulfamylon)

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5
Q
  • Wet dressing
  • Germicidal and astringent activity
  • Should be applied immediately after injury
A

Silver Nitrate

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6
Q
  • Wet dressing

- Mild germicidal and astringent

A

Aluminum Acetate (Burow’s Solution)

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7
Q
  • Wet dressing
  • Moderate germicidal activity
  • Not an astringent
A

Potassium Permanganate

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8
Q
  • Wet dressing

- Good germicidal and astringent activity

A

Acetic Acid

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9
Q
  • Antihistamine
  • First generation H1 antagonists
  • Pass the BBB
A
  • Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Cyproheptadine (Periactin)
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10
Q
  • Antihistamines
  • Seconds generation H1 antagonists
  • Avoid use with imidazole antifungals and macrolide antibiotics (p450)
  • Do not pass BBB
A
  • Loratadine (Claritin)

- Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

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11
Q
  • Antihistamines
  • H2 antagonists
  • May have immunomodulating properties
A
  • Cimetidine (Tagamet) (caution)
  • Ranitidine (Zantac)
  • Famotidine (Pepcid)
  • Nizatadine (Axid)
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12
Q
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonists
  • Block LT1 receptor
  • Reduces inflammation, itching, and asthma
A
  • Zafirlukast (Accolate)

- Montelukast (Singulair)

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13
Q
  • Antidepressants
  • Antihistaminic and anticholinerigc sedating properties
  • H1 blockade, maybe H2
A
  • Doxepin (Adapin, Sinequan)

- Zonalon (topical)

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14
Q
  • Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis
A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Monobactams
  • Carbapenems
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15
Q
  • Protein synthesis inhibitors

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Tetracyclins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Glycyolcyclines
  • Erythromycin
  • Clindamycin
  • Chloramphenicol
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16
Q
  • Inhibitors of nucleic acid function or synthesis

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Rifampin
  • Quinolones
  • Antimetabolite* sulfonamides
  • Trimethoprim
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17
Q
  • Inhibitors of cell membrane permeability/function

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Daptomycin

- Polymixins

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18
Q
  • 30S inhibitors

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Tetracylcine
  • Minocycline
  • Doxycycline
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19
Q
  • 50S inhibitors

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Macrolides
  • Erythromycin
  • Clarithromycin
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20
Q
  • 50S inhibitors
  • More active than tetracylines
  • Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice
A
  • Cindamycin

- Lincosamide

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21
Q
  • Cell wall inhibitors

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Ampicillin

- Amoxacillin

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22
Q
  • Inhibit topoisomerases to interrupt DNA functions

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Quinolones

- Ciproflxacin

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23
Q
  • Cell wall inhibitors

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Cephaolsporins

- Cephalexin

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24
Q
  • Antifolate

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

- Bactrim

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25
Q
  • Reactive intermediate that damages DNA/enzymes

- Antibiotics commonly used PO for bacterial infections in dermatological practice

A
  • Metronidazole
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26
Q
  • Oral/parenteral steroids

- Used for anaphylaxis or serious disease conditions

A
  • Hydrocortisone (IV)
27
Q
  • Oral/parenteral steroids

- Used for serious eruptions and drug reactions

A
  • Methylprednisolone (IV)
28
Q
  • Oral steroid
  • Used for milder conditions
  • Avoid use in severe liver failure
A
  • Prednisone (oral)
29
Q
  • For anaphylaxis
A
  • Epinephrine
30
Q
  • Antimetabolites
  • Must avoid drug interactions with trimethoprim/sulfas
  • Avoid administration with aspirin or NSAIDS
A
  • Methotrexate
31
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • 10-25mg BID to QID
  • Max dose 50mg QID
A
  • Hydroxyzine
32
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • 25-50mg BID
  • Max dose 50mg QID
A
  • Diphenhydramine
33
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • 4mg TID-QID
  • Max dose 8mg QID
A
  • Cyproheptadine
34
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • < 6 YO 10mg BID-QID/max 50mg
  • 6-12 YO 10-25mg BID-QID/max 100mg
A
  • Hydroxyzine
35
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • 2-6 YO 6.25mg BID-QID/max 37.5mg
  • 6-12 YO 12.5-25mg BID-QID/max 150mg
A
  • Diphenhydramine
36
Q
  • Antihistamine 1st gen
  • 2-6 YO 2mg Q 8-12 hours/max 12mg
  • 7-14 YO 4mg Q 8-12 hours/max 16mg
A
  • Cyproheptadine
37
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 180mg QD
  • Max 180mg BID
A
  • Fexofenadine (Allegra)
38
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 5mg QD
  • Max 10mg QD
A
  • Desloratadine (Clarinex)
39
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 10mg QD
  • Max 20mg BID
A

Loratadine (Claritin)

40
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 10mg QD
  • Max 10mg BID
A
  • Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
41
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen

- 2-11 YO 15mg BID

A

Fexofenadine (Allegra)

42
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 1-5 YO 1.25 mg QD
  • 6-11 YO 2.5mg QD
A

Desloratadine (Clarinex)

43
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 2-5 YO 5mg QD
  • > 6 10mg QD
A
  • Loratadine (Claritin)
44
Q
  • Antihistamine 2nd gen
  • 6-12 months 2.5mg QD
  • 1-5 YO 2.5mg QD-BID
    > 6 YO 5-10mg QD
A

Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

45
Q
  • Used in difficult or extensive cases of urticaria
  • Used in angioedema that requires ER visit
  • IM or UV route
A
  • Medrol
46
Q
  • Used in anaphylactic reactions or severe cases of angioedema that requires an ER visit
  • Used in patients with sever facial swelling, respiratory distress, or difficulty swallowing
  • 125mg IV or IM
A
  • Solu-Mederol (Methylprednisolone)
47
Q
  • Used in angioedema with signs of facial or respiratory involvement
  • 0.2ml to 1ml SC or IM
  • General dose is 0.3mg
A
  • Epinephrine
48
Q
  • Topical antibiotic

- Binds & inhibits tRNA-sythetase for leucine

A
  • Mupirocin
49
Q
  • Topical antibiotic

- Aminoglycoside; 30S inhibitors

A
  • Neomycin
50
Q
  • Topical antibiotic

- Cationic detergent; interacts as surfactant with negatively charged membrane phospholipids

A
  • Polymixin B
51
Q
  • Topical antibiotic

- Iodine (betadyne ointment) - topical antisptic/antibacterial

A

Povidone-iodine

52
Q
  • Topical Antibiotic

- alpha-amino-p-toluene-sulfonamide; acts on large variety of G- and G+ bacteria - Commonly used in therapy of burns

A

Mafenide

53
Q
  • Topical Antibiotic
  • Silver and sulfa component active against bacteria and fungi
  • Often used in therapy of burns
A
  • Silver Sulfadiazine (Silvadene)
54
Q
  • Disrupts mitosis in fungal cells

- Adverse effects and drug-drug interactions

A
  • Griseofulvin
55
Q
  • Usually PO
  • Allylamine
  • Inhibits squalene to lanosterol by squalene epxidase causing cell membrane damage
  • DI: Rifampin, cimetidine
  • ADR: antidepressants and cyclosporine
  • Avoid use in hepatic or renal failure
A
  • Terbinafine
56
Q
  • Imidazoles

- Has 2 nitrogens in 5 membered azole ring

A
  • Ketoconazole
  • Miconazole
  • Clotrimazole
57
Q
  • Triazoles

- Has 3 nitrogens in a 5 membered azole ring

A
  • Fluconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Voriconazole
  • Posaconazole
  • Efinaconazole (Jublia)
58
Q
  • Azole topical antifungal
  • 55% Mycological cure rate
  • Most promising topical to date
  • Better penetration
A
  • Efinaconazole (Jublia)
59
Q
  • High rate of resistance
  • Low cure rate
  • Long duration of therapy
  • Monitor AST and ALT for treatment > 6 weeks
  • ADR: skin rashes or urticarial
  • GI discomfort
  • Photosensitivity
  • Avoid use with oral contraceptives, warfarin, and cyclosporin
A
  • Griseofulvin
60
Q
  • Not effective

- Risk of drug interactions and hepatotoxicity

A
  • Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
61
Q
  • Inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol
  • Good penetration
  • Lacks indication
  • Monitor AST, ALT, and CBC
  • Drug interactions: Category X: Citalopram
    Category D: Warfarin, phenytoin, colchicine, eplerenone, sulfonylureas, clopidogrel, methadone
    Category B: Oral contraceptives
  • Hepatic impairment
A
  • Fluconazole (Diflucan)
62
Q
  • Fungistatic
  • Good concentration
  • Toenails: 200mg QD for 12 weeks
  • Fingernails: 200mg BID for 7 days per month for 2 monthly cycles
  • Monitor AST, ALT, and CBC
  • Multiple DI
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • CHF or ventricular disfunction
  • Expensive
A
  • Itraconazole (Sporanox)
63
Q
  • First line therapy
  • Most effective agent
  • Not effective against candida
  • Fingernail: 250mg QD for 6 weeks
  • Toenail: 250mg QD x 12 weeks
  • Rare hepatotoxicity
  • Monitor AST, ALT, and CBC
  • DI Category X: Thioridazine
  • DI Category D: TCA (Tricyclic antidepressants)
  • Pregnancy category B
A
  • Terbinafine (Lamisil)

Integumentary (1 decks)

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