Exam 1 - Lab Values, ABG's Flashcards

(113 cards)

1
Q

male hematocrit range

A

42-52%

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2
Q

female hematocrit range

A

37-47%

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3
Q

male hemoglobin range

A

14-18

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4
Q

female hemoglobin range

A

12-16

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5
Q

male RBC range

A

4.7-6.1

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6
Q

female RBC range

A

4.2-5.4

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7
Q

white blood cell count range

A

5,000 - 10,000

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8
Q

normal neutrophil segmented percentage of WBC

A

55-75%

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9
Q

normal neutrophil bands percentage of WBC

A

0-5%

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10
Q

normal percentage of lymphocytes of WBC

A

20-40%

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11
Q

what is a critical absolute neutrophil count

A

anything below 1,000

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12
Q

what is normal absolute neutrophil count

A

more than 2,000

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13
Q

what is normal platelet count

A

150,000 - 400,000

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14
Q

what are the critical values of platelets

A
  • less than 50,000

- more than 1,000,000

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15
Q

what is thrombocytopenia

A

decrease in platelets

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16
Q

what is thombrocytosis

A

increase in platelets

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17
Q

what is normal BUN range

A

10 - 20

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18
Q

what is normal female creatinine range

A

0.5 - 1.1

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19
Q

what is normal male creatinine levels

A

0.5 - 1.2

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20
Q

what is normal sodium levels

A

136 - 145

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21
Q

what is normal potassium levels

A

3.5 - 5.0

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22
Q

what is normal chloride levels

A

98 - 106

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23
Q

what is normal Co2/HCO3 range

A

35-45

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24
Q

what is normal magnesium levels

A

1.3 - 2.

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25
what is normal calcium levels
9.0 - 10.5
26
dehydration can show falsely _____ levels of Hgb and Hct
high
27
over hydration can show falsely _____ levels of Hgb and Hct
low
28
decreased Hct could indicate
anemia or active bleeding
29
increase Hct could indicate
chronic hypoxia or polycythemia
30
what is a reticulocyte
an immature RBC
31
what could a low reticulocyte indicate
low levels of erythropoietin, so inadequate RBC function
32
are there different kinds of anemias
yes
33
high WBC count would indicate what
infection or cancer
34
reason for high SEG neutrophils
bacterial infection
35
what are band neutrophils
immature neutrophils
36
_____ neutrophils causes _____ neutrophils to increase
SEG......BAND
37
increased lymphocytes is an indication of
viral infection
38
which two WBC cells would increase if there were an allergic reaction
eosinophils and basophils
39
what WBC do not increase with viral and bacterial infections
eosinophils and basophils
40
what neutrophils are mature
SEGs
41
what neutrophils are immature
BANDS
42
what is a left shift
when an infection triggers the number of BAND neutrophils to increase
43
at what point will a person be placed on neutropenic precautions
when ANC drops below 1000
44
what are neutropenic precautions
no fresh fruit, cut flowers, plants, and use of meticulous hand hygiene, only healthy people can care for pt
45
what is polycythemia vera
platelets pulling off, common among Mediterranean populations
46
would a low platelet count indicate a need for a transfusion
yes
47
what lab values do you pay attention to with cardiac patients
potassium and magnesium
48
what two lab values have a reciprocal relationship, meaning when one gets high the other gets low
phosphorus and calcium
49
what is more accurate in indicating the glomerular filtration rate creatinine or BUN
creatinine
50
decreased calcium or increase phosphorus would require what two assessments
chvosteks sign and trousseau's sign
51
what is chvosteks sign
tap the face below and in front of ear (trigeminal nerve
52
what is trousseaus sign
use BP cuff to cut off vessels and if hand and fingers spasm then positive sign
53
increase or decrease in potassium would trigger what symptoms
cardiac symptoms
54
decreased Na would result in what symptoms
change in LOC and muscle weakness
55
what is hemoglobin A1C
only done for diabetics and it related to glucose
56
normal values of hemoglobin A1C for non-diabetics
3.9- 5.2%
57
what is a good value of hemoglobin A1C for diabetic
less that 8%
58
what is a fair value of hemoglobin A1C for diabetics
8-9%
59
what is an uncontrolled value of hemoglobin A1C for diabetics
greater than 9%
60
what is the purpose of testing hemoglobin A1C for diabetics
to test the effectiveness of medications treating Type 1 and Type II diabetes, or whether the patient is adhering to treatment regimen
61
why would you test the Hgb A1C as opposed to fasting glucose
HgbA1C is a better indication of glucose metabolism over the long term, whereas fasting glucose is a one time spot check
62
increased TSH is an indication of _____thyroidism
hypo
63
decreased TSH is an indication of _____thyroidism
hyper
64
T3, T4, and Free T4 increased levels all indicatation of _____ thyroidism
hyper
65
T3, T4, and Free T4 decreased levels all indication of ______thyroidism
hypo
66
what is normal TSH range
2 - 10
67
where is TSH secreted from
the pituitary gland
68
fatigue, delayed reflexes, irregular menstrual cycle, cold intolerance, hair loss, CHF, and hypothermia are all signs and symptoms of
hypothyroidism
69
hyperthermia, heat intolerance, acute, involuntary weight loss, exopthalmus, and CHF are all signs and symptoms of
hyperthyroidism
70
the addition of what two proteins equals the total protein
albumin and gamma globulin
71
albumin + gamma globulin =
total protein
72
normal total protein value range is
6.4 - 8.3
73
what is the major function of albumin
to maintain osmotic pressure, and as a transporter of meds, hormones, and enzymes
74
normal albumin range
3.5 - 5
75
a decrease in albumin would indicate
acute/chronic infection, tissue necrosis, surgery, stress response, liver cirrhosis
76
where is albumin produced
the liver
77
what is normal range for gamma globulin
2.3 - 3.4
78
a decrease is gamma globulin would indicate
multiple myeloma, an inherited disorder
79
another term for gamma globulins
immunoglobulins or antibodies
80
why is prealbumin measured
to monitor patients nutritional status and liver function
81
an increase in direct bilirubin may be a result of
gallstones, biliary obstruction, trauma
82
what lab value would be high with a high carb diet
triglycerides
83
an increase in indirect bilirubin may be a result of
hepatoma, newborn jaundice, hepatitis, cirrhosis
84
cholesterol greater than 240 HDL less than 35 LDL greater than 160 this person is at ____risk for CAD
high risk
85
what is PTT
partial thromboplastin time
86
what does partial thrombroplastin time evaluate
evaluates intrinsic clotting system
87
what is normal PTT
60 - 70 seconds
88
what is APTT
activated partial thromboplastin time
89
what is normal APTT
30 - 40 sec
90
what therapy is APTT used to monitor
IV Heparin
91
what is the antidote for Heparin
protamine sulfate
92
what is PT
prothrombin
93
APTT/PTT are prolonged for people with what
clotting deficiencies such as hemophilia and von Willebrand disease
94
what does PT and INR evaluate
extrinsic clotting system
95
what is normal PT
11 - 12.5 seconds
96
what is PT used in combination with
INR
97
PT and INR are used to regulate what therapy
coumadin
98
what is antidote for coumadin
vit K
99
normal range of INR is
0.8 - 1.1
100
what does INR stand for
international normalized ratio
101
what is normal INR
1
102
what is normal urine pH
4.6 to 8
103
what does ABG reflective function of
lung and kidney function
104
sample of ABG must always be sent on
ice
105
HCO3 (bicarb) is an acid or base
base
106
CO2 (carbon dioxide) is an acid or base
acid
107
respiratory distress/failure, COPD, emphysema, and pulmonary edema would be a result of
respiratory acidosis
108
decrease in respiratory rate would result in CO2 retention causing
respiratory acidosis
109
hyperventilation, fever, high altitude, anxiety, shortness of breath would result in and why
respiratory alkalosis because CO2 is being expelled quickly
110
symptoms of respiratory alkalosis
tachypnea, diaphoresis, seizures, syncope
111
uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, shock, aspirin overdose, diarrhea, chronic renal failure would result in
metabolic acidosis
112
tachypnea, abdominal cramping are symptoms of metabolic
acidosis
113
nausea, vomiting, bradypnea, seizures are symptoms of metabolic
alkalosis