Exam 1 (Lectures 1-6) Flashcards

(223 cards)

1
Q

average formation of 3rd molar formation is ____

A

20-24 years

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2
Q

pathognomic indicating md fracture

A

sublingual hematoma

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3
Q

cleft lip with or without cleft palate is the failure of fusion between the

A

median nasal process and the maxillary process

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4
Q

osteomyelitis results in

A

ischemia and bone necrosis

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5
Q

skeletal defiency secondary to oligodontia

A

ectodermal dysplasia

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6
Q

option for intrusion

A

allow passive eruption (deciduous teeth) orthodontic traction stabilize 2-3 months

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7
Q

Name six indications for orthognathic surgery

A

skeletal discrepancy with masticatory difficulty impingement on palatal tissue speech difficulty OSA psychosocial problems esthetics

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8
Q

what procedure has low morbidity

A

Lefort 1

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9
Q

limited correction is possible for this type of movement

A

growth redirection

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10
Q

open apex of avulsed teeth (<2 hours) (7) steps KNOW FOR CLINIC

A
  1. reimplant immediately 2. transport in Hanks soln or milk 3. Doxycycline 4. LA, socket irrigation, Tetanus 5. Replant 6. Splint for 7-10 days 7. Apexification (Ca(OH)
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11
Q

why do we close in layers

A

to eliminate dead space

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12
Q

position of 3rd molars does not change substantially after _____

A

25 years

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13
Q

non-surgical treatment of fractures is indicated in which situations

A

fractures without malocclusion and a compliant patient

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14
Q

are vertical impacted md 3rds easy or hard according to winter’s classification?

A

generally easy

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15
Q

which type of healing has a little bit of movmenets

A

secondary healing

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16
Q

closed reduction requirements

A

good teeth

favorable fracture

min-mod displacement

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17
Q

palatal repair of cleft palate patients should be done when

A

12 months

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18
Q

velopharyngeal flap helps eliminate _____

A

nasal speech

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19
Q

the role of age in third molar surgery

A

  Surgery less complicated §  Healing process quicker

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20
Q

if pt has a fractured mandible they will have

A

malocclusion

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21
Q

attaches part of soft palate to posterior wall of pharynx

A

velopharyngeal flap

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22
Q

periodontal compromise

A

orthodontic camouflage

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23
Q

in orthognathic surgery what does the stent determine

A

AP and transverse

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24
Q

how long can an avulsed tooth last in milk

A

six hours

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25
incidence of cleft lip with or without palate in african-american
1:2000
26
full bony impaction of 3rd molar
D7240
27
area between the mental foramina
symphysis
28
what winter's classification is this
mesioangular
29
vertical maxillary deficiency
class 3
30
posterior to canine and anterior to mental foramen
parasymphysis
31
\<2 hours closed apex tx of avulsed teeth
1. Store in hank's solution 2. Replant 3. Splint for 7-10 days 4. Perform endodontic cleansing and shaping of canal 5. fill canal with Ca(OH)2 (6-12 months) 6. perform gutta percha obturation (6-12 months)
32
fusion of facial structures occur at what week
week 7
33
how often do vertical impacted md 3rds occur (winter's classification)
38%
34
disadvantages of extraoral approach for surgical
external scar potential for facial n. damage
35
surgical procedures for mx
maxilla anterior segment, posterior segment, Lefort 1, high lefort 2 and 3
36
Principles of Management for Fractures
1. Reduction 2. Stabilization 3. Immobilization 4. Prevent Infection
37
why does osteomyelitis occur
Smokers End-stage process of long wound healing Immunocompromised
38
dentition used as the handle to reduce the fracture
closed reduction
39
orthognathic movements on cleft palate patients have to use what
distraction
40
big advantage of a BSSO (Saggital Split Ramus Osteotomy)
can advance the jaw without doing a bone graft
41
pt's occlusion and teeth then wired together
maxillo-mandibular fixation in closed reduction
42
fracture of the cheekbone
zygomaticomaxillary complex ZMC
43
most commonly selected time for alveolar bone graft for cleft lip/palate
mixed dentition grafting
44
what winter's classification is this easy or difficult?
horizontal difficult
45
TMJ considerations for this type of movement
growth redirection
46
Class 2 bites have what percent occurrence
10%
47
what winter's classification is this
vertical
48
which type of healing has no movements
primary healing
49
lacerations tx
return tissue to proper orientation
50
Class 2 bites need surgery what % of times
2%
51
Subperiosteal Abscess occurs when
2 – 3 weeks post op
52
metallic sound upon percussion
intrusion
53
AAOMS / OMSF •  7 year study •  Advised that even most 3rds that are asymptomatic and free of disease are at
Advised that even most 3rds that are asymptomatic and free of disease are at **risk for _chronic oral infections_** **_tooth decay_ and should be considered for removal in young adulthood**
54
impacted/unerupted. FIll in blank Not all __________ teeth are \_\_\_\_\_\_
unerupted/impacted
55
high mortality rate and brain trauma resulting from this fracture
LeFort 3
56
extraction technique for mx third molars
Flap design •  Approach
57
Name four advantages of orthognathic surgery
decreased treatment time improved esthetics improved occlusion increased esthetics
58
Based on inclination of impacted tooth to long axis of 2nd molar
Winter’s Classification
59
what is the easiest winter's classification
mesioangular
60
Bleeding: Intraopeatively from 3rd molar extractions
give local, bone wax, Gelfoam, Surgicel, pressure pack if needed
61
velopharyngeal flap complications
mouth breathing, OSA, complicates intubation for surgery
62
incidence of isolated cleft palate
1:2000
63
reimplanted tooth (mature) stabilization periods
7-10 days
64
tx of abrasions
DEBRIDEMENT 1) scrub with mild soapy water/irrigate with saline 2) cover with thin antibiotic ointment
65
advancement of set back of mandible
BSSO bilateral saggital split osteotomy
66
in orthognathic surgery the vertical position is determined by what
k-wire placed in the nasion
67
fratures involving upper, middle, and lower face
panfacial trauma
68
Treatment options for facial fractures
No treatment Closed Reduction Open Reduction with rigid internal fixation Combination
69
what % of time does distoangular classifications occur for md molars
6%
70
general facial form is defined by what
Na-A-pg form
71
convex profile is usually what
skeletal and dental class 2
72
complex, full bony impaction of 3rd molar
D7241
73
fractures of medial orbital walls
ethmoid fractures
74
class 3 bites have what percent occurrence
2.5%
75
crown formation of thirds
14 years
76
frontal sinus fractures can lead to
brain abscess
77
continuous bleeding may lead to
hematoma
78
in cleft lip with or w/out cleft palate the lip/alveolous is contiguous without any
vestible
79
theories behind impacted thirds
Differential root growth between mesial & distal •  Inadequate arch space •  Dental development lags skeletal development •  Obstruction secondary to cyst, tumor, supernumerary teeth
80
mesioangular impacted md 3rds occur what % of time
43%
81
how to manage thirds in pt \>40 yrs
Monitor with panoramic x-ray every 1-2 years •  Surgical intervention for clinical symptoms or radiographic signs
82
secondary to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, _______ remains open during speech and \_\_\_\_\_\_
velopharyngeal incompetence, nasal airway remains open during speech and air escpaes
83
treatment for extrusion and lateral displacement
reposition tooth fully at socket splint tooth for 1-3 weeks
84
move maxilla in all planes
Lefort 1
85
classify this
distoangular impaction of mx third molar
86
INTRAOPERATIVE COMPLICATIONS •  Sinus Perforation what to do?
*   Sinus Perforation *   Antibiotic *   Decongestants *   Afrin nasal spray *   Written & verbal instructions •  Suture tight •  Follow-up (ADAWSF)
87
tooth not having perforated the oral muocsa
unerupted tooth
88
what has shown to remove 100% of the cpap in patients
maxillo mandibular advancements
89
recovery period of 3rd molar extractions
3-4 days
90
how long can an avulsed tooth last in Hanks solution
24 hours
91
chief complaint of pts who have md fracture
malocclusion
92
may not be stable when used for anterior open bite
BSSO (bilateral saggital split osteotomy) BSSO
93
fracture common in fights
ZMC complex
94
what makes the cleft palate patient different?
large maxillary AP defiencies scar tissue VP incompetence vascular compromise palatal and nasolabial fistulas
95
stable treatment of anterior open bite
Lefort 1
96
incidence of cleft lip with or without palate in whites
1:1000
97
Alveolar fractures treatment
stabilization, reduction, RCT
98
residual _______ at _______ and in _______ is common in palate repair
residual fistula at anterior of palate and in vestible is common
99
what bacteria are we considered about in animal bites
pasteurella multocida (gram-negative rod)
100
root fracture stabilization periods
2-4 months
101
compression fracture of alveolus to accomodate new position
intrusion
102
opposite movement of pre-surgical orthodontics
orthodontic camouflage
103
what symptoms are associated with osteomyelitis
imflammation and edema
104
pt has grossly displaced md fracture what tx to use?
open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)
105
lacerations management
cleaning/debridement/hemostasis/closure
106
what winter's classification is this
distoangular
107
failure to fully erupt within the expected developmental time period
impacted tooth
108
painful, owing to exposed nerve endings
abrasions
109
classify this
mesioangular impaction of maxillary third molar
110
Ideal Patient Selection for 3rd molar removal (5) \_\_\_\_\_ root formation \_\_\_\_\_\_age + 3 others
2/3RD root formation *   18-25 year old *   Healthy *   No psychological contraindications *   No job restrictions to “numb lip”
111
dentition is used as a handle to reduce the fracture
closed reduction
112
between sigmoid notch and the top of the condylar head
condyle
113
what type of movement has a possible periodontal compromise
orthodontic camouflage
114
T or F Most healthy 3rd molar patients benefit IVSA / GA
true
115
for minimal discrepancy
orthodontic camouflage
116
Nerve Injury
*   Nerve Injury *   Follow *   Document, document, document *   Steroid dose pack *   Neurosensory testing *   When to refer? *   Malpractice
117
results in multiple fractured segments
comminuted fracture
118
extraoral approach for surgical approach
excellent access for reduction/fixation
119
pt has facial fracture and has lung disease
open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)
120
Midface Fractures
LeFort 1,2,3 ZMC, ZOE
121
partial bony 3rd molar impaction
D7320
122
intraoral surgical approach disadvantages
oral contamination fracture reduction can be difficult to reduce
123
what is noticed with chronic osteomyelitis
\> 1 month Dull discomfort Paresthesia Moth eaten appearance of bone on film
124
how common are mesioangular mx 3rd winter's classifications
12%
125
how common are horizontal mx 3rd winter's classifications
1% -rarely seen
126
most frequently used md procedure
BSSO (bilateral saggital split osteotomy)
127
removes papillary dermis and epithelial layer
abrasions
128
how common are distoangular mx 3rd winter's classifications
25%
129
when should lip repair be done in cleft palate/lip patients
Rule of ten pt is 10lbs WBC\<10 HG\>10 10 weeks
130
what percentage of BSSO patients have IAN nerve damage
50%
131
classification of soft tissue 3rd molar impaction
D7220
132
between sigmoid notch and angle
ramus
133
how often does horziontal md molar 3rd impactions occur
3%
134
possible esthetic compromises
orthodontic camouflage
135
allows segmentalization of maxilla
Lefort 1
136
whole part of midface is fractured, most severe
LeFort 3
137
what to do for bleeding vessels
clamp/tie/cauterize
138
how long does post-surgical orthodontics take
6 months
139
in mixed dentition graft in cleft lip/palate patients and lateral incisor is absent or pt is small or cleft is large, \_\_\_
delay until later
140
what tooth is functionally missing in cleft lip/palate patients and what %
80% lateral incisor
141
expose fractures and use direct visualization and dentition to manipulate segments into place then fixate with plates and screws
open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)
142
POSTOPERATIVE COMPLICATIONS •  Secondary bleeding
Suction oral cavity •  Examine site *   Apply pressure for 5 minutes *   Local *   Curettage *   Identify and control source of bleeding *   Monitor for 15 minutes before discharge
143
bone healing in the wrong position
malunion
144
stabilization periods for displaced tooth
3-4 weeks
145
Contraindications to removal of 3rd molars
Extremes of age: Yo u n g a g e : mandible may grow to accommodate 3rd molars Old age: most common contraindications for removal
146
tx for pasteruella multocida
augmentin po for 7 days
147
what is problem in speech evaluation of cleft lip/palate patients
nasal speech
148
rarely need for intermaxillary fixation (wiring of the teeth together)
orthognathic surgery
149
class 3 bites need surgery what percentage of time
40%
150
pt has facial fracture and has seizures what treatment to use
open reduction with internal fixation
151
direction of the fracture line is different then the muscle line
favorable
152
classify this
vertical impaction of maxillary third molar
153
how long is maxillo-mandibular fixation needed for in closed reduction
4-8 weeks
154
layers of the lip
1) muocsa 2)orbicularis oris-muscle 3) skin
155
incidence of cleft lip with or without cleft palate with male and females
male: female 2:1
156
regions involved in panfacial trauma
frontal bone ZMC NOE region maxilla and mandible
157
how long does pre-surgical orthodontics take
12-18 months
158
mandibular intraoperative complications of 3rd molar removal
*   Root tip out lingual plate *   Submandibular, lingual *   Nerve injury *   Fracture
159
indications for 3rd molar removal
Indications for 3rd molar removal Therapeutic To treat a currently active process/disease Prophylactic To prevent future disease or other problems
160
what type of movement has a possible esthetic compromise
orthodontic camouflage
161
incomplete fracture
greenstick
162
how common are vertical mx 3rd winter's classifications
63%
163
possibly less stable
orthodontic camouflage
164
name the maxilary winter's classification
vertical distoangular mesioangular horizontal
165
must have remaining growth to work
growth redirection
166
what may improve speech evaluation/therapy in cleft palate/lip patients
velopharyngeal flap
167
stable rigid fixation possible
BSSO (bilateral saggital split osteotomy) BSSO Lefort 1
168
a callous/cartilage involves which phase of healing
secondary phase
169
which trauma to tooth has the worst prognosis
intrusions
170
maxilary intraoperative complications of oral surgery
Infratemporal fossa •  Tuberosity “tuberectomy” •  Oroantral communication
171
what is used for large AP discrepancies
distraction
172
fracture line is allowing the bones to be displaced
unfavorable
173
where are incisions made for orthognathic surgery
intraoral
174
what to expect after 3rd molar surgery as far as pain/swelling
Expected mild-moderate pain •  Expected mild-moderate swelling to peak at day 3 and decrease after •  Expected to feel lousy – dental surgery – makes talking, eating, and social situations hard for a few days
175
tx of subperiosteal abscess
Flap and irrigate • Antibiotics
176
has potential for iAN nerve damage
bilateral saggital split osteotomy (BSSO)
177
reimplanted tooth (immature)
3-4 weeks
178
combined orthodontics and surgery are used to manage a skeletal malocclusion
orthognathic surgery
179
incidence of isolated cleft palate in females: males
2:1
180
single fracture line
simple fracture
181
vertical maxillary hyperplasia
class 2
182
stabilization periods for mobile tooth
3-4 weeks
183
accentuate dental compensations
orthodontic camouflage
184
bleeding under the skin
contusion
185
what is the critical driving force in cleft palate repair
speech
186
odontogenic bacteria invade bone marrow describes what process
osteomyelitis
187
communication with the external environment
compound fracture (open)
188
what percentage of patients are happy with BSSO even with IAN numbness
90%
189
concave profile is usually what
skeletal and dental class 3
190
advances the anterior pharyngeal palate and enlarges the mandible
maxillo-mandibular advancement
191
◦ \_\_\_\_moved the envelope of discrepancy further out for the dental movements
TAD
192
pyramidal fracture bc of shape involving orbit
LeFort 2
193
how long can an avulsed tooth last in ViaSPan
a week
194
abrasions leaves what exposed
raw bleeding reticular dermis
195
lacerations are a tear in what
epithelial and subcutaneous tissue
196
just the fracture of the maxilla
LeFort 1 fracture
197
patients occlusion established and teeth are then wired together
maxillo-mandibular fixation
198
Three ways to treat skeletal malocclusion
1. Growth Redirection 2. Orthodontic Camouflage 3. Orthognathic Surgery
199
first treatment of avulsed tooth
put it back
200
straight profile is usually what
skeletal and dental class 1
201
indicating of a fractured mandible
floor of mouth hematoma
202
what systemic problems are seen in cleft lip/palate patients
middle ear disease cardiac disease
203
Collection of purulence between periosteum of flap and bone
Subperiosteal Abscess
204
intraoral surgical approaches benefits
no external scar no f. nerve damage
205
what three signs are noticed with acute OM
Duration \< 1 month Pain Minimal to no radiographic changes
206
root formation is approximately ____ by _____ years
Root Formation approximately 50% by 16 years
207
compliance and burnout are possible for this type of movement
growth redirection
208
pt has a condylar fracture
open reduction with internal fixation (ORIF)
209
not healing, bone segments are still moving
nonunion
210
in mixed dentition grafting if lateral incisor is present, consider grafting \_\_\_\_
early
211
name the 4 winter's classification
•  1. Mesioangular •  2. Distoangular •  3. Horizontal •  4. Vertical
212
purpose of stannous fluoride in a RCT
prevents root resorption
213
purpose of citric acid in a root canal
disinfects dentinal tubules
214
stabilization period for mobile tooth
3-4 weeks
215
stabilization periods for displaced tooth
3-4 weeks
216
stabilization periods for roor fracture
2-4 months
217
stabilization periods for reimplanted tooth (mature)
7-10 days
218
stabilization periods for reimplanted tooth immature
3-4 weeks
219
blunt trauma can cause this type of injury
contusion
220
subcutaneous or submucosal hemorrhage wihtout breakage of the soft tissue
contusions
221
treatment of contusions
surgical exploration if arterial involvement is involved antiobiotic if contaminated
222
removes epithelial layer and papillary dermis
abrasions
223
soaps which enter a wound can cause
cellular damage and necrosis