Exam 1 Pt 4: Joints Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

What is a form of crystal-induced arthritis sometimes known as pseudogout? What does it involve?

A

Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease (CPDD, CPPD, chondrocalicinosis, or pseudogout)

accumulation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in joints/soft tissues inducing inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F. Calcium Pyrophosphate deposition disease is more sever than gout.

A

False. it is less severe than gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is at risk for developing CPDD (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease)?

A
  • advanced age (over 50)
  • family history
  • previous joint injury
  • affects 1/2 inds living longer than 85 years old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What joints are characteristically involved in CPDD (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease)?

A
  • knee, shoulder, wrist, hip, elbow, ankle
  • most asympotmatic, some acute, subacute or chronic arthritis
  • monoarticular or polyarticular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is HADD?

A

Hydroxyapatite deposition disease (or calcific tendinitis)

  • idiopathic, involves deposition of calcium phosphate (calcium hydroxyapatite) crystals w/in joints and soft tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common joint affected by HADD (hydoxyapatite deposition disease)?

A

shoulder!!!

- others include: elbow, wrist, hip, ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Calcification of the supraspinatus tendon is characteristic of what idiopathic disease?

A

HADD (hydroxyapatite deposition disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are risk factors for developing HADD (hydroxyapatite deposition disease)?

A
  • advanced age (over 40)

- history of adhesive capsulitis (AKA frozed shoulder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What involves ossification of the spinal ligaments, specifically the ALL? What locations does the oss. of the ALL occur?

A

DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis)

- in C and lower T (T7-T11) are MC areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F. The zygopophyseal joints and SI joints are not involved in DISH, and ankylosis does NOT occur.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What condition appears on an x-ray as “flowing oss.” or “candle wax dripping”?

A

DISH

- produces a “tortuous paravertebral mass” on anterior aspect of spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does the motion of the spine change with DISH?

A
  • reduced spinal ROM, and creates spinal “rigidity”
  • movements between VBs still exists
  • Cervical DISH may cause difficulty swallowing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the risk factors for developing DISH?

A
  • male sex
  • over age 50
  • have hyperglycemia/diabetes
  • 1/3 positive for HLA-B27
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are three ways an infection may occur within a joint?

A
  1. hematogenous spread
  2. spread from surrounding soft tissue infs/ osteomyelitis
  3. traumatic introduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What condition is characterized by acute joint pain combined with abundant pus formation?

A

Suppurative arthritis

suppurative = causing production of pus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the most common cause of suppurative arthritis?

A

bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the manifestation of joints involved in suppurative arthritis. Any other signs and symptoms that one may have?

A

red, swollen, very tender to touch and vibration

systemic signs/symptoms of an inf.:

  • fever
  • malaise
  • leukocytosis
  • elevated ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the MC affected joint of suppurative arthritis? Is it usually mono or polyarticular?

A

(MC = knee
- usually monoarticular
also– hip, shoulder, elbow, wrist, sternoclavicular joints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most recognized bacterial pathogen to cause suppurative arthritis and in what population?

A

Staphylococcus aureus in children (above 2) and adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What bacterial pathogen MC causes forms suppurative arthritis in these populations:

  1. Children and adults
  2. Sexually active young adult females
  3. Sickle cell disease patiens
  4. Children younger than age 2
A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  3. Salmonella spp.
  4. Haemophilus influenzae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Gonococcal Arthritis? Who is MC to get it?

A

develops following untreated cases of gonnorhea; less severe joint pain, polyarticular pattern; “subacute” course

  • MC in females under age 40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What two conditions are our focuse when it comes to Infectious arthritis?

A
  1. Suppurative arthritis

2. Lyme Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the MC arthropod-borne disease in the US? What can it develop into?

A

Lyme Disease; can develop into Lyme Arthritis when it is untreated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What bacterial spirochete causes lyme disease and how is it transmitted to humans?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi; transmitted via lxodes deer tick

spirochetal infs– spread throughout body and involve mult. organ systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Lyme arthritis develpos in about _____ patients with untreated Lyme Disease within ____ of initial infection.
75%; within months
26
What are the three distinct phases of lyme diseae?
1. Early Localized Phase 2. Early Disseminated Phase 3. Late Disseminated Phase (chronic phase) (disseminated = to spread throughout organ or body)
27
What is characteristic on the skin in the Early localized phase of lyme disease?
"bullseye rash"; aka erythema chronicum migrans
28
What is stage 2, early disseminated phase of lyme disease dominated by?
secondary skin lesions that cover larger areas of the body, like thorax May have: - CN dysfxn - meningitis - migratory joint pain of large extremity joints - migratory muscle pain - carditis
29
What does the chronic phase of lyme disease manifest like?
- constant polyarthritis and permanent joint distruction - knees, shoulders, elbows, ankles - also have meningities, CN dysfxn, myalgia, carditis - life threatening CNS inflam.
30
What is the Tx for lyme disease and how effective is it? What if it doesn't work, then what do we call the disease?
antibiotics--cure rates ~90% Posttreatment Lyme Disease syndrome
31
T/F. Primary joint tumors are common and MC malignant. What do they originate from?
False--they are RARE and MC benign!! Originate from tissues constituting a joint: - synovial tissue - fat - cartilage - fibrous tissue - vascular tissue
32
What are usually more common than primary joint tumors?
tumor-like lesions - lesions w/in or near joint that resemble tumors, but ARE NOT true neoplasms - most commonly develop from trauma of degeneration
33
What is a collection of degenerative CT that is MC near joint capsule or sheath of wrist or hand?
ganglion cyst (not true cyst b/c no epithelial lining)
34
Where are ganglion cysts MC? Do they communicate with the joint? What are they filled with?
dorsal or ventral surface of wrist; do not communicate w/ joint; filled with myxoid cartilage
35
What develops following herniation of synovial fluid w/in synovial joint into periarticular soft tissues?
synovial cysts
36
Where are the two characteristic locations of synovial cysts?
- popliteal fossa | - near lumbar zygapophyseal joints
37
What is a synovial cyst formed in the popliteal space called? What are known risk factors for this condition?
Baker cyst RA and OA
38
What synovial cysts that form w/in spinal canal called? What does it commonly cause?
Spinal synovial cyst; commonly causes spinal stenosis (narrowing of spinal canal)
39
What age of individuals MC develop spinal synovial cysts and why? Where is the MC location?
older adults; due to degeneration of zygapophysis joints MC is posterior to L4 and L5 vert.
40
Are soft tissue tumors more likely to be benign or malignant?
benign
41
What percentage of soft tissue sarcomas affect pediatrics?
15%
42
Malignant soft tissue tumors represent a ____ percentage of all cancer diagsoses, but constitute about ___ percent of all cancer-related deaths.
small (<1%); 2% all cancer-related deaths, telling use they are aggressive
43
Where are the MC locations of soft tissue tumors?
thigh or retroperitoneal area (abdomen)
44
Are soft tissue tumors MC sporadic or hereditary?
sporadic
45
What is the MC soft tissue tumor in adults?
lipoma
46
What are lipomas? Risk for malignancy? Encapsulated or not?
- benign adipocyte tumor composed of mature adipocytes and are NOT a risk for malignancy - soft to touch and painless - encapsulated --therefore more mobile
47
Where to lipomas characteristically develop?
proximal extremities or torso (trunk)
48
What is the most common sarcoma of mid-to-later adulthood (age 50-70)?
liposarcoma
49
What are liposarcomas? Where do they MC develop?
malignant tumor of adipocytes, MC develop in retroperitoneum (therefore not easily detected = poor prognosis)
50
What is a benign tumor of fibroblasts located w/in superfical fascia?
Nodular fasciitis
51
Where do most cases of nodular fasciitis develop? How do they manifest? MC in what age?
volar (palm-side) of arm, foot, chest, or back rapidly-enlarging mass that is FIRM adults
52
What involves dystrophic calcification of injured soft tissues following trauma? What age group is MC affected?
Myositis ossificans adolescent or young adult athletes
53
What are other ways to describe myositis ossificans?
traumatically-induced metaplasia or heterotopic ossification
54
What does myositis ossificans cause and where is it most likely to occur?
hard and painless mass; most likely proximal extremities about 4-7 wks after initial injury
55
What represents a group of benign tumors of fibroblasts are invasive and cause painful destruction of tissues?
Fibromatoses
56
What kind of Fibromatoses are there?
Superficial | Deep (desmoid tumors)
57
What benign proliferations are common among males and cause firm nodule surrounded by dense collagen?
Superficial fibromatoses
58
What are two examples of Superficial Fibromatoses?
Pyronine disease | Dupuytren contracture
59
What is Pyronine disease?
formation of a superficial fibromatosis on dorsolateral penis
60
What is Dupuytren contracture?
formation of a superficial fibromatosis on the palmar fascia (hand) and typically develops on ulnar side of hand
61
What are Deep fibromatoses? Who are they more likely to occur in?
develop w/in anterior abdominal wall or limb girdles - invasive, aggressive, and freq. RECUR after excision MC in adult females
62
What is a malignant soft tissue tumor of fibroblasts? Where is it most likely to develop?
Fibrosarcoma thigh or retroperitoneal space
63
How does a Fibrosarcoma manifest?
invasive, but slow-growing mass (thigh of retroperitoneal space)
64
What age group is most likely affected by Fibrosarcomas?
adults (age 35-55)
65
What characteristcally has a herringbone histological appearance?
fibrosarcoma | - herringbone arrangement of neoplastic fibroblasts
66
What is the recurrence rate of fibrosarcomas after excision?
about 1/2 come back
67
By the time Fibrosarcomas re Dx, where have they mets to?
about 25% have already mets to lungs
68
T/F. Virtually all tumors of skeletal muscle tissues are benign.
False--virtually all are malignant (like Rhabdomyosarcoma)
69
What is Rhabdomyosarcoma?
a malignant tumor of rhabdomyoblasts--which are precursor cells to skeletal muscle tissue
70
Where do Rhabdomyosarcomas MC develop?
areas on MINIMAL skeletal muscle tissue - head or neck - genitourinary region - extremities - trunk
71
What is the MC soft tissue sarcoma among pediatrics?
Rhabdomyosarcoma
72
What is the rate or cure of children Dx with Rhabdomyosarcoma?
about 2/3 are cured | adults poorer prognosis
73
What is leiomyoma? Where does it characteristically develop?
a benign tumor of smooth muscle cells; MC develop in uterus | - also in esophagus, or SI
74
Leiomyoma found in the uterus are referred to as what? MC among who?
"fibroids"; firm to touch, about 1-2 cm MC among reproductive age females
75
What characteristically manifests with "cigar-shaped" nuclei?
Leiomyosarcoma
76
What are Leiomyosarcomas?
a malignant tumor of smooth muscle cells - "cigar-shaped" nuclei - common
77
How common are leiomyosarcomas?
represent 20% of all soft tissue sarcomas
78
Where are leiomyosarcomas most likely to be found?
thigh or abdomen (retroperitoneum); firm masses - uterus--> common form of uterine CA
79
Leiomyosarcomas found in the uterus are most likely to affect what women?
older (menopausal) females
80
T/F. Synovial Sarcomas develop from tissues of the joint.
False (they used to believe that)
81
What soft tissue malignant tumor of "uncertain origin" develop as a PAINLESS mass in young adults 920-40) and are very aggressive?
Synovial sarcoma
82
What is the MC location for synovial sarcomas?
soft tissues surrounding the knee - usually surround large joints (only 10% found w/in joint)
83
What is the prognosis for synovial sarcomas?
very poor prognosis | - less than 30% achieve long-term survival (10 years after Dx)