Exam 1 Review Flashcards by Rob McKay

Which of the following is a gram negative bacteria?

E. Coli
Clostridium
Listeria
Bacillus

E. Coli

The BIG gram negative

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Which of the following is a gram positive anaerobe?

Staphylococcus
Clostridium
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas

Clostridium

Gram positive, anaerobe, spore-forming rod

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Which of the following works to inhibit protein synthesis?

Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones
Amino-Glycosides
Sulfonamides

Amino-Glycosides!

Cephalosporins are cell-wall inhibitors
Sulfonamides folate inhibitors
Fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA

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Which of the following inhibits cell wall synthesis, but is not a beta-lactam?

Ceftriaxone
PCN G
Vancomycin
Ertapenem

Vancomycin

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True of False?

Beta-lactams are bacteriocidal.

True

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Zosyn is a combination of:

Amoxicillin-clavulante
Ampicillin-sulbactam
Ticarcillin-clavulanate
Pipercillin-tazobactam

Pipercillin-tazobactam

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What generation cephalosporin is Cefazolin (ancef)?

1st
2nd
3rd
4th

Ancef is a first-generation cephalosporin

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What is the major 3rd generation Cephalosporin?

Rocephin (ceftriaxone)

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What is the Major 4th generation cephalosporin?

Cefepime

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Which cephalosporin has a good pseudomonas coverage?

Cefaclor
Cefepime
Cefazolin
Ceftriaxone

Cefepime

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Which of the following is the most broad-spectrum?

Imipenem
Cefazolin
Vancomycin
PCN G

Imipenem

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Vancomycin provides what kind of antibiotic coverage?

Gram positive aerobes

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Which antibiotic is best for a patient with a PCN allergy?

Monobactams
Carbapenems
Cephalosporins
Vancomycin

Monobactams

(Sensitivity crossover with cephalosporins is 10-15%)

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Vancomycin treats all of the following except/

MRSA
Staph Epidermis
Pseudomonas
Streptococcus

Pseudomonas

(MRSA is the reason vancomycin exists! 1st-line treatment)

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Tetracycline works by which mechanism?

Inhibits protein synthesis
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
Folate Inhibitor
Inhibits DNA Synthesis

Inhibits Protein Synthesis

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True of False?

Gentamicin is bacteriostatic.

True

(Gentamicin is part for the Macrolide group)

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True or False?

Amino-Glycosides have no activity against anaerobes.

True.

Amino-Glycosides have no activity against anaerobes.

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Which antibiotic is used to treat VRE?

Vancomycin
Teteracycline
Ceftriaxone
Ertapenem

Tetracyclines

(Ceftriaxone and Ertapenem are cell-wall inhibitors; won’t have a strong effect against VRE.)

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Which class of antibiotic is Eryhtromycin?

Tetracycline
Macrolide
Amino-Glycoside
Carbapenem

Macrolide

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All of the following about quinolones is true EXCEPT:

Good gram + coverage
Good pseudomonas coverage
Preferred for complicated UTI
Poor MRSA coverage

Good gram + coverage

(Can’t be good + and good MRSA)

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Which antibiotic is first-line treatment for C. Diff?

Metronidazole
Tetracycline
PCN G
Ceftriaxone

Metronidazole (Flagyll)

(Combined therapy with Vancomycin PO)

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Papilledema is seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Increased ICP
Meningitis
Acute Glaucoma

Acute Glaucoma

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Egophony is heard in a patient with what?

Pneumonia
Tension Pneumothorax
Cardiac Tamponade
Open Pneumothorax

Pneumonia.

Consolidations in the lung, conducting tracheal vibrations to chest wall.

(Cardiac tamponade and pneumothorax will not transmit sound.)

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Capital Medusae is seen in patients with:

Cirrhosis
Portal Hypertension
Pancreatitis
Bowel Obstruction

Portal Hypertension (Direct Cause)

(Usually 2/2 cirrhosis, or some other type of liver failure)

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Which of the following is not a sign of appendicitis? Psoas Soas Kehr’s Sign Obturator Sign Rovsing’s Sign

Kehr’s Sign - Diaphragmatic injury -Refers pain to tip of left shoulder (Splenic laceration is one of the most common causes)

Grey-Turner’s sign indicates: Acute Pancreatitis Appendicitis Acute Colitis Hepatomegaly

Acute Pancreatitis -Flank Contusions Look for accompanying Cullen’s sign -Umbilical contusions

What percentage of Oxygen exists at 100,000 feet above sea level? 21% 10% 5% 0%

21% Atmosphere extends to 400,000-450,000’

How much will GI gas expand at 25k feet? None 2x 3x 4x

3x (Hydrous and Anhydrous gas expand at different rates)

Charle’s Law is the relationship between: Volume and Temperature Pressure and Temperature Volume and Pressure Sum of Partial Pressure

Volume and temperature (Two temperature laws: Charle’s and Guy-Lussac’s)

Which gas law explains the sum of partial pressures? Guy-Lussac’s Dalton’s Boyle’s Henry’s

Dalton’s Law (Dalton’s gang)

Describe Henry’s Law

Pressure of a gas above a liquid is equal to the pressure of a gas dissolved in a liquid

What are the two temperature laws?

Guy-Lussac’s and Charle’s laws

Fick’s Law is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: Pressure gradient of gas Surface of membrane Volume of the gas Thickness of membrane

Volume of the gas (Fick’s Law describes factors that affect the rate of diffusion)

What drives oxygen into Plasma?

Partial Pressure

What effects thickness of alveolar membranes?

Pneumonia, COPD, Asthma

What effects the surface area of alveolar membranes?

Atelectasis, pneumonia, pulmonary edema

Which gas law states: the pressure of a gas dissolved in a liquid equals the pressure of the gas above the liquid? Dalton’s Law Henry’s Law Fick’s Law Graham’s Law

Henry’s Law

Describe Graham’s Law

The smaller the molecule, the faster it will diffuse

What type of hypoxia results from cyanide poisoning? Hypemic Hypoxic Histotoxic Stagnant

Histotoxic (Cyanide blocks Complex 4 of the electron transport chain)

True of False? The vibration of the aircraft can increase metabolism?

True

Which of the following occurs during descent of the aircraft? Barotitis Media Barobariatrauma Barosinusitis Barosinutrauma Media

Barotitis Media

What type of cells make up the human body? Eukaryotes Prokaryotes Chitin Mycocells

Eukaryotes

What type of bacteria stains purple?

Gram +

Haemophilus Influenzae is a common cause of: Hepatitis Meningitis Viral Pneumonia Flu

Meningitis

Which of the following is the most broad-spectrum? Vancomycin PCN Tetracyclines Isoniazid

Tetracyclines

What is the normal range for potassium? 3-5 3.5-5 4-5.5 3-5.5

3.5-5

What does metabolic acidosis do to the serum potassium? Increases Decreases Remains the same Varies with patient

Increases (Fix the acidosis and the K+ should go back to normal)

Which EKG changes are not seen in Hypokalemia? Spike T-Wave U wave ST Depression Wide QRS

Spike T wave (T waves flatten)

What is the most common cause of Hypokalemia? K+ shift due to insulin NG suctioning Renal loss of K+ Hyperaldosernoism

Renal Loss of K+

Which Hyperkalemia treatment stabilizes the cell membrane? Insulin Glucose Calcium Bicarbonate

Calcium (Insulin and Bicarbonate cause a fluid shift back into cell) (Only giving glucose because we’re giving insulin)

What is the most common cause of Hypercalcemia? Hyperparathyroidism Hyperkalemia Hypernatremia Hyperthyroidism

Hyperparathyroidisim (Top 3 most common causes of Hypercalcemia: hyperparathyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hyperparathyroidism)

What condition presents with Chvostek’s sign? Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia Hypermagnesmia Hypocalcemia

Hypocalcemia (Chvostek’s sign and Trusseau’s signs in Hypocalcemia) (Hypermagnesia: Reduced DTR’s and respiratory depression)

What is the normal range of Na+? 130-140 135-145 140-150 145-155

135-145

True or False? A common cause of hypernatremia is by giving too much sodium?

False (Most common cause is water loss/deficit)

Hyponatremia is seen in ____, while Hypernatremia is seen in _____. Vomiting, Diarrhea Diarrhea, Vomiting Diarrhea, NG Suctioning NG Suctioning, Vomiting

Vomiting, Diarrhea

What do you expect the sodium to be in a patient that is hypochloremic? Hyponatremic Hypernatremic Normal Depends on K+

Hyponatremic (Chloride follows the Sodium)

Which of the following would not cause an increase in the anion gap? DKA Lactic Acidosis Renal Failure Excessive emesis

Excessive emesis (MUDPILES)

Which of the following will decrease the BUN? Burns SIADH Shock Sepsis

SIADH (All of the others will increase BUN)

What effect do cephalosporins have on creatinine? Decrease Increase Depends on the BUN No Change

Increase

Which of the following decreases the serum osmolarity? Hyponatremia Azotemia EtOH Hyperglycemia

Hyponatremia (Alcohol and Hyperglycemia will increase serum osmolarity) (Azotemia is a high BUN)

Which band elevates primarily in bacterial infections? Lymphocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Monocytes

Neutrophils (Viral infection- Lymphocytes) (Eosinophils- Allergies and Parasites)

Which band primarily elevates with viral infections? Lymphocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Monocytes

Lymphocytes

A patient has a hemoglobin of 9, what is the hematocrit? 3 9 18 27

27 (Hematocrit is approximately 3x the hemoglobin)

“The rate of metabolism of the a drug is directly proportional to the concentration of the drug” is a property of: First-order kinetics Zero-order kinetics Second-order kinetics Derek Sucks

First-order kinetics (No such thing as Second-order kinetics)

Which of the following is a Sympathetic response? Decreased HR Bronchoconstriction Increased Peristalsis Pupil Dilation

Pupil Dilation

All of these are natural catecholamines EXCEPT: Dopamine Epinephrine Dobutamine Norepinephrine

Dobutamine (Synthetic) Also an “inodilator” (positive inotrope and vasodilator) -Milranone is also an inodilator (but is a phospodiesterase inhibitor)

Which of the following is true in regards to epinephrine? Causes hypoglycemia Increases insulin release Increased glycogenolysis Negative inotrope

Increased Glycogenolysis

What beta adrenergic agonist is used as a tocolytic and bronchodilator? Dobutamine Terbutaline Cozaar Isoproterenol

Terbutaline

Which of the following is an Alpha-2 Agonist used in sedation? Methyldopa Precedex Proventil Brethine

Precedex (Alpha-2 inhibits the release of norepinephrine, preventing vasoconstriction)

Which agent shortens Phase 3 replarization? Procainamide Lidocaine Cardizem Amiodarone

Lidocaine (Class Ib antiarrhythmic, Na+ channel blocker)

Which agent prolongs Phase 3 repolarization? Lidocaine Procainamide Amiodarone Diltiazem

Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic

Which beta-blocker is best at reducing heart rate? Esmolol Metoprolol Lebetalol Trandate

Metoprolol (Lopressor) (Esmolol lowers SV w/o affecting rate, Metoprolol lowers HR w/o affecting SV)

What is the equation for Cardiac Output?

CO= SV x HR

A patient is receiving 10.5ml/hr nitroglycerin. How many mcg/min is given? 25 35 20 30

35 (10mcg/min = 3ml/hr)

Succinylcholine will increase the serum K+ about: 0.5 1 0.25 1.5

0.5

What is the proper dose of Succinylcholine in an 80kg patient? 80mg 120mg 8 mg 100mg

120 mg (1-1.5 mg/kg) (80 is technically right, but underdosing leads to adverse reactions! Stick to the higher doses, especially with estimated weights)

Which of the following is a treatment for malignant hyperthermia? Increase FiO2 Increase rate Increase Vt Increase minute ventilation

Increase minute ventilation (Goal: 3x higher minute ventilation) Technically, increasing Vt AND rate (Absolute treatment for malignant hyperthermia is Dantrolene)

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

(77 cards)