Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PsychoPharm > Exam 1 Review > Flashcards

Exam 1 Review Flashcards

(61 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the core concept of the Dopamine Hypothesis of psychosis?

A

Hyperactivity of dopaminergic transmission in mesolimbic pathway

This hypothesis suggests that excessive dopamine activity leads to positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What neurotransmitter is primarily involved in the Dopamine Hypothesis?

A

Dopamine (DA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of the Dopamine Hypothesis?

A

Excessive dopamine activity leads to positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the core concept of the Glutamate Hypothesis?

A

Hypofunction of NMDA glutamate receptors

This hypothesis posits that reduced glutamate activity contributes to both positive and negative symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the Glutamate Hypothesis?

A

Glutamate (NMDA receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mechanism of the Glutamate Hypothesis?

A

Reduced glutamate activity leads to both positive and negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the core concept of the Serotonin Hypothesis?

A

Dysregulation of the serotonin system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which neurotransmitter is particularly involved in the Serotonin Hypothesis?

A

Serotonin (5-HT), particularly 5-HT2A receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What mechanism contributes to positive symptoms in the Serotonin Hypothesis?

A

Excessive 5-HT2A activity contributes to positive symptoms and perceptual disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the location of the Mesolimbic Pathway?

A

Ventral tegmental area (VTA) → nucleus accumbens, limbic structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the Mesolimbic Pathway?

A

Reward, motivation, emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What clinical significance is associated with hyperactivity in the Mesolimbic Pathway?

A

Causes positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) and is a target for antipsychotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the location of the Mesocortical Pathway?

A

VTA → prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of the Mesocortical Pathway?

A

Executive function, working memory, attention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What clinical significance is associated with hypoactivity in the Mesocortical Pathway?

A

Causes negative symptoms and cognitive dysfunction; blocking this pathway worsens negative symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the location of the Nigrostriatal Pathway?

A

Substantia nigra → striatum (caudate nucleus, putamen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of the Nigrostriatal Pathway?

A

Motor control, movement coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What clinical significance is associated with blocking the Nigrostriatal Pathway?

A

Causes extrapyramidal side effects (EPS), including Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the location of the Tuberoinfundibular Pathway?

A

Hypothalamus → pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of the Tuberoinfundibular Pathway?

A

Prolactin regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What clinical significance is associated with blocking the Tuberoinfundibular Pathway?

A

Causes hyperprolactinemia, leading to gynecomastia, galactorrhea, sexual dysfunction, amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A
  • Hyperthermia (>38°C/100.4°F)
  • Muscle rigidity
  • Altered mental status
  • Autonomic instability (tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis)
  • Elevated creatine kinase (CK)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the first step in managing Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?

A

Immediate discontinuation of antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are common side effects of Aripiprazole (Abilify)?

A
  • Restlessness
  • Insomnia
  • Nausea
  • Akathisia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What serious adverse events are associated with Aripiprazole (Abilify)?
* Seizures * NMS * Tardive dyskinesia
26
What are the FDA indications for Brexpiprazole (Rexulti)?
* Schizophrenia * Major depression (adjunct)
27
What are common side effects of Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)?
* Sedation * Orthostatic hypotension * Anticholinergic effects
28
What serious adverse events are associated with Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)?
* NMS * Tardive dyskinesia * Cardiac arrhythmias * Seizures
29
What is the mechanism of Clozapine (Clozaril)?
D2/5-HT2A antagonist with complex receptor profile
30
What serious adverse events are associated with Clozapine (Clozaril)?
* Agranulocytosis (1-2%) * Seizures (dose-dependent) * Myocarditis/cardiomyopathy * Paralytic ileus
31
What is the FDA indication for Deutetrabenazine (Austedo)?
Huntington's disease chorea, tardive dyskinesia
32
What are common side effects of Haloperidol (Haldol)?
* EPS * Sedation * Restlessness
33
What serious adverse events are associated with Haloperidol (Haldol)?
* NMS * Tardive dyskinesia * QTc prolongation * Torsades de pointes
34
What is the mechanism of Lurasidone (Latuda)?
D2/5-HT2A antagonist
35
What are common side effects of Olanzapine (Zyprexa)?
* Weight gain * Sedation * Metabolic changes
36
What serious adverse events are associated with Olanzapine (Zyprexa)?
* NMS * Tardive dyskinesia * Diabetic ketoacidosis * Metabolic syndrome
37
What is the monitoring requirement for Clozapine (Clozaril) regarding agranulocytosis?
ANC weekly × 6 months, then biweekly × 6 months, then monthly
38
What clinical manifestations of prolactin elevation occur in women?
* Amenorrhea * Galactorrhea * Infertility * Decreased libido
39
What is the mechanism of prolactin elevation with antipsychotics?
Dopamine normally inhibits prolactin release via D2 receptors in tuberoinfundibular pathway; D2 antagonists block this inhibition → hyperprolactinemia
40
What symptoms characterize Acute Dystonia?
* Muscle spasms * Torticollis * Oculogyric crisis * Laryngospasm
41
What is the timeline for Drug-Induced Parkinsonism symptoms to develop?
Days to weeks
42
What treatment options are available for Akathisia?
* Beta-blockers (propranolol) * Anticholinergics * Mirtazapine
43
What is the timeline for Tardive Dyskinesia symptoms to develop?
Months to years
44
What is the mechanism of dopamine receptor upregulation?
Chronic D2 blockade → compensatory upregulation of D2 receptors
45
What are the blockade effects of D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway?
Therapeutic (reduces positive symptoms)
46
What are the blockade effects of D2 receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway?
EPS, tardive dyskinesia
47
What are the advantages of D2/5-HT2A antagonists (atypical antipsychotics)?
* Lower EPS risk * Improved negative symptoms * Better tolerability
48
What is the disadvantage of traditional D2 antagonists (typical antipsychotics)?
High EPS risk and minimal effect on negative symptoms
49
What are the characteristics of high-potency D2 antagonists?
* Lower doses required * Selective D2 blockade * Higher risk of EPS, tardive dyskinesia
50
What are the advantages of 2 and 5-HT2A blockade?
* Lower EPS risk * Improved negative symptoms * Better tolerability ## Footnote EPS refers to extrapyramidal symptoms, which are drug-induced movement disorders.
51
What are the disadvantages of 2 and 5-HT2A blockade?
* Metabolic side effects * Weight gain * Still risk of tardive dyskinesia ## Footnote Tardive dyskinesia is a serious movement disorder that can occur after long-term use of antipsychotic medications.
52
What are examples of high-potency D2 antagonists?
* Haloperidol * Fluphenazine * Perphenazine ## Footnote High-potency D2 antagonists typically require lower doses.
53
What are the characteristics of high-potency D2 antagonists?
* Lower doses required * Selective D2 blockade * Higher risk: EPS, tardive dyskinesia, prolactin elevation * Lower risk: Sedation, hypotension, anticholinergic effects ## Footnote Prolactin elevation can lead to reproductive and metabolic issues.
54
What are examples of low-potency D2 antagonists?
* Chlorpromazine * Thioridazine ## Footnote Low-potency D2 antagonists typically require higher doses.
55
What are the characteristics of low-potency D2 antagonists?
* Higher doses required * Less selective receptor binding * Lower risk: EPS, tardive dyskinesia * Higher risk: Sedation, hypotension, anticholinergic effects, cardiac arrhythmias ## Footnote Cardiac arrhythmias can be serious and require monitoring.
56
What is included in the baseline assessment for clinical monitoring?
* Complete blood count * Comprehensive metabolic panel * Lipid panel, HbA1c * Liver function tests * ECG (QTc interval) * Prolactin level * Weight, BMI, waist circumference * Blood pressure * Movement disorder assessment (AIMS) ## Footnote AIMS stands for Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale, used to assess movement disorders.
57
What is the ongoing monitoring schedule for weight?
Monthly × 3 months, then quarterly ## Footnote Regular weight monitoring helps manage potential weight gain from medication.
58
What metabolic parameters are monitored during ongoing assessments?
Glucose/HbA1c, lipids at 3 months, then annually ## Footnote Monitoring metabolic parameters is crucial due to the risk of metabolic side effects.
59
When should an ECG be performed during ongoing monitoring?
If indicated by symptoms or drug choice ## Footnote ECG monitoring helps to identify potential cardiac issues related to antipsychotic medications.
60
When should movement disorders be assessed using AIMS?
Annually or if symptoms develop ## Footnote Early identification of movement disorders can lead to better management.
61
What are the red flag symptoms requiring immediate attention?
* Fever with rigidity (NMS) * Sore throat, fever, malaise (agranulocytosis) * Chest pain, dyspnea (cardiac issues) * Severe constipation (paralytic ileus) * Abnormal movements (dystonia, tardive dyskinesia) * Suicidal ideation ## Footnote NMS stands for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition.

PsychoPharm (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions