Exam Flashcards
(225 cards)
1
Q
Gross anatomy, or macroscopic anatomy, considers:
A
features visible with the naked, or unaided, eye.
2
Q
The human form shown upright, hands at the sides, palms forward, and feet together is in the _______ position.
A
anatomical
3
Q
A person lying face down is in the _______ position.
A
prone
4
Q
A person lying face up is in the ________ position.
A
supine
5
Q
The frontal plane divides the body into the _______ and _______ portions.
A
anterior, posterior
6
Q
The diaphragm separates the abdominopelvic and _______ cavities.
A
thoracic
7
Q
The layer of the pericardium covering the heart is the _______ pericardium.
A
visceral
8
Q
The pericardium lies within the:
A
mediastinum
9
Q
________ is an anatomical term meaning “toward an attached base.”
A
Proximal
10
Q
_______ is an anatomical term meaning “above or at a higher level.”
A
Superior
11
Q
The term _______ means “the study of internal and external structures and the physical relationships between body parts.”
A
Anatomy
12
Q
_______ is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions.
A
Physiology
13
Q
The _______level is comprised of the smallest stable units of matter.
A
Molecular
14
Q
_______ are the smallest living units in the body.
A
Cells
15
Q
The pleural cavity surrounds what organ?
A
Lung
16
Q
The abdominopelvic cavity can be divided into either four or nine regions. (True or False)
A
True
17
Q
The axial skeleton includes all limbs and supporting bones and ligaments. (True or False)
A
False
18
Q
Bone marrow acts as the primary site of red and white blood cell production. (True or False)
A
True
19
Q
The pituitary gland controls other endocrine glands and regulates growth and fluid balance. (True or False)
A
True
20
Q
The sagittal plane runs along the long axis of the body, extending anteriorly and posteriorly and dividing the body into left and right portions. (True or False)
A
True
21
Q
________ processes require the cell to expend energy to move ions or molecules across the cell membrane, usually in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
A
Active
22
Q
A(n) ________ is a subatomic particle with a negative charge.
A
Electron
23
Q
________ are atoms or molecules with an electric charge.
A
Anions, Cations, Ions
24
Q
________ are chemical bonds created by the electrical attraction between anions and cations.
A
Ionic Bonds
25
________ is stored energy.
Potential Energy
26
________ are the essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet.
Nutrients
27
________ are compounds that stabilize pH by either removing or replacing hydrogen ions.
Buffers
28
Sodium, potassium, calcium, and magnesium are examples of:
Cations
29
What reaction breaks molecules into smaller fragments (for example, AB -------> A + B)?
Decomposition Reaction
30
Inorganic compounds do not contain hydrogen and ________ atoms.
Carbon
31
________ is a form of decomposition reaction.
Catabolism, Digestion, Hydrolysis
32
________ is the net movement of molecules from an area of relatively high concentration to an area of relatively low concentration.
DIffusion
33
What is the diffusion of water across a cell membrane called?
Osmosis
34
Which solution does not cause the net movement of water into or out of a red blood cell?
Isotonic
35
Which solution causes the movement of water into a red blood cell, causing it to swell and possibly lyse, or burst?
Hypotonic
36
Which solution causes a red blood cell to lose water, causing the cell to shrink and dehydrate?
Hypertonic
37
Glucose is passively transported across the cell membrane by binding to a receptor site on a carrier protein in a process called:
Facilitated Diffusion
38
Lactated Ringers and normal saline are examples of what type of IV fluid?
Crystalloid
39
The organelles that manufacture proteins, using information provided by the DNA of the nucleus, are called what?
Ribosomes
40
What is an essential function of epithelial cells?
Control permeability, produce specialized secretions, Provide physical protection
41
________ is an example of a connective tissue.
Blood, bone, fat
42
________ are responsible for engulfing damaged cells or pathogens that enter the tissue.
Macrophages
43
________ are proteins that destroy invading microorganisms.
Antibodies
44
The watery matrix in blood is called:
Plasma
45
What type of muscle is also known as striated voluntary muscle because it is controlled by the nervous system and has a striated appearance?
Skeletal
46
________ is a brown, yellow-brown, or black pigment that accumulates in the epidermal cells.
Melanin
47
Reddish-purple blotches due to leakage of blood from an artery or vein are called:
Ecchymosis
48
________ is the medical condition characterized by the eruption of groups of vesicles along the dermatome of a sensory nerve.
Herpes Zoster
49
The integument contains two types of exocrine glands, sweat and:
Sebaceous
50
The primary function of merocrine sweat glands is what?
To cool the surface of the skin
51
A blood clot consists mainly of an insoluble network of:
Fibrin
52
An ________ is an injury where a flap of skin and tissues are torn loose or torn off.
Avulsion
53
Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
The production of red blood cells within the red marrow
54
What is the expanded portion at each end of a long bone called?
Epiphyses
55
The outer surface of a bone is covered by a(n):
Periosteum
56
Which of the following plays an important part in normal calcium metabolism?
Vitamin D3
57
Which of the following works with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to elevate calcium levels in the body?
Calcitriol
58
A partial displacement of a bone end from its position within a joint capsule is a what?
Subluxation
59
A ________ fracture has multiple bone fragments at the fracture site.
Comminuted
60
The pelvic girdle is included in what division of the skeleton?
Appendicular
61
The ________ connects the cranial cavity with the spinal cavity and has the spinal cord passing through it.
Foramen Magnum
62
Which of the following is suspended below the skull and serves as a base for muscles associated with the larynx, tongue, and pharynx?
Hyoid
63
What is the fibrous connective tissue connecting the bones of the skull at birth called?
Fontanels
64
The ________ is the projection on the axis (C2) that forms a pivot joint with the atlas (C1) to allow a person to rotate their head side to side.
Dens and Odontoid process
65
The superior portion of the sternum is called the what?
Manubrium
66
The arm, or brachium, contains what single bone?
Humerus
67
The head of the femur connects with what curved surface of the pelvis?
Acetabelum
68
Which of the following is a function of skeletal muscle?
To produce movement of the skeleton, to maintain body temperature
69
________ is the "key" that "unlocks" the active site of an actin molecule.
Calcium
70
________ is the neurotransmitter or chemical released by a motor neuron to communicate with other cells.
Acetylcholine
71
Arm muscles, after being in a cast, can develop smaller and weaker muscle fibers in a condition called:
Atrophy
72
The breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid in the cytoplasm of the cell is called:
Glycolysis
73
The specialized sites that are contacts between cardiac muscle cells are called what?
Intercalated discs
74
The specialized cells that determine the timing of cardiac muscle contractions are called what?
Pacemaker Cells
75
Which muscle separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
Diaphragm
76
All neural tissue outside of the brain and spinal cord makes up which nervous system?
Peripheral
77
Information is carried to the CNS by the ________ division, and motor commands are carried to muscles and glands via the ________ division.
Afferent, Efferent
78
_______ increase(s) the speed at which the action potential travels along the axon of an oligodendrocyte.
Myelin
79
Which of the following is an example of a demyelination disorder?
Multiple Sclerosis
80
What is a shift of membrane potential toward 0 mV called?
Depolarization
81
__________ is when a cell membrane cannot respond normally to further stimulation.
Refractory Period
82
Synapses that release norepinephrine are called:
Adrenergic
83
The three layers of specialized membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord are the:
Meninges
84
Which part of the brain controls conscious thoughts, sensations, memory storage, and complex movements?
Cerebrum
85
The hypothalamus is connected to what glans, which is the primary link between the nervous and endocrine systems?
Pituitary
86
Which region of the brain is responsible for control of autonomic functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestive activities?
Medulla Oblongata
87
Which of the following is caused by an imbalance in the amount of CSF produced and the rate at which it is absorbed?
Hydrocephalus
88
The _________ division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates tissue metabolism, increases alertness, and prepares the body to deal with emergencies.
Sympathetic
89
The stimulation of beta 1 receptors causes which of the following?
An increase in cardiac contractility, An increase in heart rate, An increase in cardiac conduction
90
The parasympathetic nervous system has nicotinic and __________ receptors.
Muscarinic
91
What are the chemical messengers of the endocrine system called?
Hormones
92
The __________ provides acts as an important link between the nervous and endocrine systems?
Hypothalamus
93
The hormones released by the ___________ control other endocrine glands.
Anterior pituitary gland
94
Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin are released by which gland?
Posterior pituitary gland
95
What is the primary function of the antidiuretic hormone?
To decrease the amount of water lost in urine
96
Which disease occurs when the kidneys cannot respond to ADH or there is inadequate release of ADH into the body, which may be a result of trauma to the hypothalamus?
Diabetes insipidus
97
Which corticosteroid affects the electrolyte composition of body fluids?
Aldosterone
98
Which of the following promotes the conversion of lipids to glucose?
Cortisone
99
Epinephrine is secreted by which gland?
Adrenal medulla
100
The endocrine cells of which organ produce & secrete glucagon and insulin?
Pancreas
101
The alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans produce & secrete which hormone?
Glucagon
102
Which hormone secreted by the kidneys stimulates the production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin
103
In a(n) __________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?
Permissive
104
In a(n) __________ effect, one hormone must be present for another hormone to work?
Permissive
105
A(n) _________ effect can result in two hormones having a net effect greater than the sum of their individual effects.
Synergistic
106
Blood reduces fluid loss at an injury site by which of the following?
Clotting
107
What are special proteins that attack invading organisms called?
Antibodies
108
What is the average pH of whole blood?
7.35 to 7.45
109
Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein and the one responsible for the osmotic pressure of plasma?
Albumin
110
Which plasma protein is responsible for antibodies and transport proteins?
Globulins
111
Which of the following is called a drifting blood clot?
Embolus
112
Which plasma protein is involved in blood coagulation?
Fibrinogens
113
_________ bind(s) and transport (s) carbon dioxide and oxygen
Hemoglobin
114
The ________ is the percentage of whole blood volume occupied by cellular elements.
Hematocrit
115
Which surface antigen on red blood cells determines blood type?
A, B, Rh
116
What is thrombocytopenia?
Low Platelet Count
117
Which chambers of the heart are associated with the pulmonary circuit?
Right atrium, right ventricle
118
Which connective tissue divides the thoracic cavity into two pleural cavities and encloses the heart?
Mediastinum
119
The muscular wall of the heart is called what?
Myocardium
120
Which of the following is true of the foramen ovale?
Closes at birth, penetrates the interatrial septum and connects the atria, allows blood flow from the right atrium and left ventricle
121
The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the:
Mitral valve, Left atrioventricular valve, Bicuspid valve
122
The right coronary artery divides into what branches?
Marginal and posterior interventricular
123
What is an area of dead tissue caused by interruption in cardiac blood flow called?
Infarct
124
The influx of _________ rapidly depolarizes the cardiac contractile cells.
Sodium
125
Pulmonary veins carry blood to which of the following?
Heart
126
The normal rate of contraction of the heart is established by _________ cells.
Pacemaker
127
_________ form branching networks and are barely the diameter of a single red blood cell
Capillaries
128
Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle tissue?
Tunica Media
129
The formation of lipid deposits in the tunica media associated with damage to the endothelial lining is called what?
Atherosclerosis
130
Which of the following controls the flow of blood into the capillary?
Precapillary Sphincter
131
________ connect arterioles and venules, acting as shunts of the capillary beds.
Arteriovenous anastomosis
132
________ is the resistance to flow resulting from interactions among molecules and suspended materials in a liquid.
Viscosity
133
________ is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.
Pulse Pressure
134
Which of the following affects tissue perfusion?
Cardiac Output, Blood Pressure, Peripheral Resistance
135
Which portion of the brain has the cardiac and vasomotor centers?
Medulla Oblongata
136
Receptors sensitive to chemical stimuli are called what?
Chemoreceptors
137
The perception of pain coming from parts of the body that are not actually stimulated is called what?
Referred Pain
138
Which of the following monitor changes in pressure, such as in the carotid artery and aorta?
Baroreceptors
139
The chemoreceptors that monitor pH, oxygen levels, and carbon dioxide levels in the blood are located in the:
Carotid Bodies
140
The clear fluid that fills the anterior chamber of the eye and helps give it its shape is called?
Aqueous Humor
141
Which of the following photoreceptors provides color vision?
Cones
142
______ is caused by an elevation in the pressure inside the eye from a blockage of the scleral venous sinus.
Glaucoma
143
_________ is the body's ability to resist infection and disease through the activation of specific defenses.
Immunity
144
Which type of lymphocyte directly attacks foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses?
T Cells
145
Which type of lymphocyte can differentiate into plasma cells, which produce and secrete antibodies?
B Cells
146
The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found where?
Spleen
147
_________ is the process of removing foreign particles from the lymph and the blood.
Phagocytosis
148
A reaction to antigen-antibody coupling in which macrophages and neutrophils are attracted, is referred to _________.
Chemotaxis
149
_______ is the process of NK cells constantly monitoring normal tissues.
Immunological Surveillance
150
________ are small proteins released by activated tissue cells infected with viruses.
Interferons
151
Which chemicals initiate the inflammatory process?
Histamine and Heparin
152
The _______ acts as the body's "thermostat."
Hypothalamus
153
Which proteins reset the hypothalamus and cause a rise in body temperature?
Pyrogens
154
Which of the following are small organs that are found along lymphatic vessels?
Lymph Nodes
155
________ Immunity appears after exposure to an antigen as a consequence of the immune response.
Naturally Acquired Active
156
When antibodies produced by a mother protect her baby against infections, it is called ______ immunity.
Naturally Acquired Passive
157
A(n) __________ process requires oxygen.
Aerobic
158
The right lung is divided into how many lobes?
3
159
The division of the trachea into the right and left primary bronchi occurs at the:
Carina
160
Which of the following is the presence of air in the pleural sac and breaks the fluid bond between the pleurae?
Pneumothorax
161
Which of the following is treated by a pleural decompression?
Tension pneumothorax
162
________ is the process that involves gas exchange and gas transport.
Respiration
163
What is the physical movement of air into the and out of the lungs called?
Ventilation
164
Which of the following is a type of obstructive lung disease?
Chronic Bronchitis, Emphysema, Asthma
165
________ levels are responsible for regulating respiratory activity under normal conditions.
Carbon Dioxide
166
_______ is the chemical breakdown of food into small organic fragments.
Digestion
167
What are the waves of muscular contractions that move along the length of the digestive tract called?
Peristalsis
168
Which nerve controls the stomach and initiates the production of gastric juice?
Vagus
169
Which condition is caused by abdominal organs sliding into the thoracic cavity through the esophageal hiatus?
Hiatal Hernia
170
The ________ is the second segment of the small intestine and does the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption?
Jejunum
171
Which of the following portions of the small intestine is attached to the pylorus of the stomach?
Duodenum
172
The cystic duct leaves the liver and leads to the:
Gallbladder
173
Which of the following is a general function of the liver?
Bile production, Metabolic regulation, Hematological regulation
174
What is the most common cause of cirrhosis of the liver?
Chronic Alcohol Abuse
175
The human liver is composed of how many lobes?
4
176
What is a common cause of chronic viral hepatitis in the United States?
Hepatitis C
177
Carbohydrate digestion begins in which of the following parts of the digestive tract?
Mouth
178
The parietal cells secrete which of the following?
Hydrochloric Acid
179
The renal tubule is responsible for:
Reabsorbing useful organic molecules, secreting any waste products missed by the filtration process, reabsorbing water
180
Filtration membranes allow the passage of:
Water, Ions, and Glucose
181
In the proximal convoluted tubule, water moves out of the tubular fluid by what process?
Osmosis
182
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle actively transports:
All needed ions
183
The hormone erythropoietin and the enzyme renin are secreted in response to:
Hypotension
184
Which is a metabolic waste product of the breakdown of amino acids?
Urea
185
Which hormone, when at lower levels, decreases water permeability in the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct?
ADH
186
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism is the body's main mechanism for which of the following?
Increasing blood pressure
187
Which of the following is a major hormone involved in regulating kidney function?
Aldosterone, Angiotensin II, ADH
188
Atrial natriuretic peptide is released by _________ when blood volume and blood pressure are too high and opposes the actions of the renin-angiotensin system.
Atrial cardiac muscle cells
189
Kidney stones consisting of ________ are common?
Calcium Salts
190
The _________ and kidneys play key roles in maintaining the acid-base balance of body fluids.
Lungs
191
If extracellular fluids (ECF) become hypertonic, when compared to the intracellular fluid (ICF), water will move in which direction?
From the cells into the ECF
192
In response to circulating aldosterone, the kidneys ________ sodium ions.
Reabsorb
193
Severe acidosis can cause what effect on the body?
CNS deterioration, Peripheral vasodilation, Weak cardiac contractions
194
_______ occurs when alveolar ventilation is increased, resulting in excess elimination of CO2.
Respiratory Alkalosis
195
The _______ buffer system depends on the ability of amino acids to respond to changes in pH by accepting or releasing hydrogen ions.
Protein
196
Cells break down organic molecules to obtain energy usually in the form of:
ATP
197
The synthesis of new organic molecules that involves the formation of new chemical bonds is called ___________.
Anabolism
198
The liver stores ________ in case of depleted nutrients in the blood stream.
Triglycerides and Glycogen
199
After the catabolism of glucose, a typical cell has gained ______ molecules.
36 ATP
200
In glycolysis, glucose is broken down into what acid?
Pyruvic
201
What is a lack of oxygen that inhibits or stops the TCA cycle called?
Hypoxia
202
_________ is the synthesis of glucose from protein or lipid precursor molecules/non-carbohydrate molecules.
Gluconeogenesis
203
Glucose enters the cells via facilitated diffusion, which is largely enhanced by which of the following?
Insulin
204
This is a result of metabolism of certain organic bases in nucleic acids?
Uric Acid
205
Which type of diabetic patient requires insulin?
Type I
206
__________ is the result of conductive heat loss to the air that overlies the surface of an object.
Convection
207
Where are the heat-loss and heat-gain centers are located (the thermostat of the brain)?
Hypothalamus
208
Which of the following occurs during glycolysis?
One molecule of glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid
209
The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during:
The TCA Cycle
210
Parasympathetic innervation of the penile arteries that release ________ at their synaptic knobs causes the smooth muscle in the arterial walls to relax, resulting in erection.
Nitric Oxide
211
Sickle cell disease, spinal anesthesia, and drugs can cause a prolonged, usually painful, penile erection
Priapism
212
During fertilization, the embryo implants into which layer of the uterus?
Endometrium
213
After which day of development is the fetus considered "full term"?
266
214
The __________ is marked by the detachment of the functional layer of the endometrium.
Menstrual Phase
215
Which of the following is the most common cause of bleeding during the third trimester of pregnancy?
Placenta Previa
216
A zygote contains_____ chromosomes.
46
217
In an ectopic pregnancy the fertilized egg is implanted where?
Ovary, Abdomen, Fallopian Tube
218
Which of the following is a chemical that causes malformation of a fetus?
Teratogen
219
Rising oxytocin levels stimulate what?
Force and frequency of uterine contractions
220
The _______ stage of labor begins with the onset of labor, as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to slide down the cervical canal
Dilation
221
By which week of pregnancy may the external reproductive organs be distinguished as either male or female?
12th
222
Fetuses born before _______ weeks have a poor chance of survival.
27
223
At which of the following of stages of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?
Placental
224
The mammary gland cells produce _______, which is ingested by the breastfed newborn during the first two to three days of life.
Colostrum
225
Which of the following is not a risk factor for preeclampsia?
Hypercalcemia
