Exam:)

Question 1

Demarcate the study field of forensic pathology.

Answer 1

Forensic pathology entails the study of the effects of
1. Trauma.
2. Injury.
3. Unnatural diseases on the human body.

Question 2

Describe the six (6) circumstances under which deaths are seen as unnatural and state at least one example to illustrate each of the circumstances.

Answer 2

1. Deaths due to violence and the consequences of the injuries that result in death (cases of homicide, suicide, or accidents).
2. Deaths resulting from external physical factors that impact on the body (when individuals die in a vehicle accident).
3. Deaths resulting from the effect of a chemical substance (when individuals die as a result of poisoning).
4. When an anaesthetic was administered or the person had a surgical procedure shortly before death (all types of anaesthetic (local or general).
5. When a person dies suddenly without pre-existing illness or if the death is unexplained.
6. Any death, including deaths that would otherwise be classified as being “natural” where it is suspected that the death was due to an act or neglect to act by any person including medical staff.

Question 3

Describe the role of forensic pathologists when they attend death scenes.

Answer 3

1. Pronounce/confirm the death.
2. Determine the manner of death (Natural, Accidental, Homicidal, Suicidal, Undetermined).
3. Determine the time of death, also known as the Post Mortem Interval, through studying the post mortem changes (Rigor mortis, Hypostasis, Cooling, Decomposition, Insects which start a life cycle on the body).
4. Obtain clues and information at the scene to clarify what occurred at the scene of death.

Question 4

Provide a detailed explanation of Nysten’s Law.

Answer 4

2 – 4 hours after death: The first signs of RM become visible in smaller muscle groups in the eyelids, facial muscles, neck, and lower jaw.
4 – 12 hours after death: RM develops throughout the body. The order wherein it develops after the smaller muscle groups in the stated order is the wrists and ankles, knees, elbows and hips.
12 - 36 hours after death: The maximum peak of RM is reached within 12 hours and persists (remains constant) in the body for approximately 12 - 36 hours depending on circumstances.
Over the course of the next 12 hours: RM gradually disappears again in the same order it appeared; thus RM disappears in the small muscle groups first. This period is also known as Secondary Relaxation/Flaccidity.

Question 5

Discuss the guidelines forensic pathologists will follow during their objective search of death scenes.

Answer 5

1. Forensic pathologist must make sure all photographs have been taken and sketches made.
2. Looking for signs of a struggle is important, for example broken objects, overturned furniture, broken branches.
3. If an obvious weapon is present: Note the position of the weapon in relation to the body as this clue may be important to determine whether it was suicide or homicide. Handle weapons with extreme care.
4. If no obvious weapon is present at the scene: Homicide should be suspected. The forensic pathologist can also assist in determining the most likely weapon by studying the wound characteristics.
5. To assist the investigative process with an opinion about the cause (may appear to be due to a gunshot wound, stab wound, or blunt force trauma to the head) of death and the manner (natural, accidental, suicidal, homicidal, or undetermined) of death.
6. The position of the body should be noted and whether the rigor mortis and hypostasis match this position.
7. Clothing should be examined with care: Tears, missing buttons, blood stains, and gunshot residue should be observed. Take note of buttons fastened incorrectly/awkwardly. Take note whether wounds were inflicted through clothes or on bared skin.
8. The amount of blood at the scene should be noted: The average person has 4.7 – 5.5 litres of blood inside the body. The amount of blood at the scene may indicate that the location where the body is found is a secondary dumping site for the body.
9. Preliminary examination of body: Look for self-defence wounds. Paper bags should be placed over the hands for possible biological material under the nails. The body should be transported to the mortuary in a clean white sheet and washed body bag to avoid cross-contamination.
10. The forensic pathologist should look for signs of sexual assault, such as removed underwear.

Question 6

Explain what rigor mortis is and indicate the period of development under normal circumstances including the manner in which it spreads through the body.

Answer 6

Rigor Mortis (RM) is a period of rigidity in the muscles, that follows after the period of flaccidity.
It occurs as a result of the formation of lactic acid in the muscles and causes the body to stiffen and limbs to be locked “in place”.
Under normal circumstances, the period of development, which is also known as the “march of rigor mortis”, is as follows:
(1) 2 – 4 hours after death: The first signs of RM become visible in smaller muscle groups in the eyelids, facial muscles, neck, and lower jaw.
(2) 4 – 12 hours after death: RM develops throughout the body. The order wherein it develops after the smaller muscle groups in the stated order is the wrists and ankles, knees, elbows and hips.
(3) 12 - 36 hours after death: The maximum peak of RM is reached within 12 hours and persists (remains constant) in the body for approximately 12 - 36 hours depending on circumstances.
(4) Over the course of the next 12 hours: RM gradually disappears again in the same order it appeared; thus RM disappears in the small muscle groups first. This period is also known as Secondary Relaxation/Flaccidity.

Question 7

Factors that the onset and persistence of rigor mortis is subject to.

Answer 7

1. Environmental Temperature (If it is extremely hot, RM develops and disappears within 9-12 hours. If it is very cold, RM lasts for 3 - 4 days).
2. In malnourished and severely underweight individuals, RM sets in more rapidly, while in individuals with a high body mass, RM will slow down.
3. The onset of RM is accelerated in individuals who engaged in strenuous physical activity immediately before death (e.g. a gym workout).
4. Any disease which raised the body’s temperature before death accelerates the onset of RM (e.g. infections which caused fever).
5. Rapid onset of RM is indicative of possible brain hemorrhaging, epileptic seizure before death and strychnine poisoning.

Question 8

Deduce the criminalistic value of rigor mortis.

Answer 8

1. The pathologist can estimate the time of death because RM develops according to a predictable timetable, which is also known as Nysten’s Law.
2. The pathologist can, by studying the posture of the body, determine if there was movement of the body. If a body is found in an unnatural position, movement of the body may be assumed after RM had developed .

Question 9

Explain the importance of the pugilistic posture in forensic pathology.

Answer 9

1. The Pugilistic Posture occurs in bodies that were charred in a fire.
2. Exposure to severe heat causes coagulation of the muscle protein, which results in the contraction (stiffening and shortening) of the muscles.
3. The body would assume this posture even if death occurred before being exposed to the extreme heat source.

Question 10

Explain the significance of Cadaveric Spasm in forensic pathology in detail.

Answer 10

1. It is a very rare phenomenon.
2. Also called Instantaneous Rigor Mortis, Cataleptic Rigidity, or the Death Grip.
3. Occurs when the tense muscles at the time of death, retain their tense state immediately after death and persists into the period of RM.
5. Most often observed in the isolated muscles of the arm and hand.
6. If CS occurs, an object being clenched in a hand, will be very difficult or mostly impossible to release from the hand.
7. Manipulation of the muscles in cases of CS would be impossible.
8. Cadaveric Spasm has been documented before under the following circumstances:
   (a) If a victim is thought to have committed suicide, and the weapon is grasped so tightly in the hand that it is not possible to remove the weapon.
   (b) Homicides where buttons, hair or pieces of clothing (e.g. a pocket torn off a shirt) are found grasped tightly in victims’ hands.
   (c) Drowning and mountain accidents where stones, grass and branches are found grasped tightly in victims’ hands.
   (d) Car, airplane and train accidents where victims are found grasping onto objects (e.g. steering wheel, seats, cell phones etc.).
   (e) Deaths on the battlefield in wartime.

Question 11

Explain four (4) differences between rigor mortis and cadaveric
spasm in detail.

Answer 11

1. Rigor mortis can be used to estimate the time of death because it develops according to a predictable timetable, which is also known as Nysten’s Law whereas Cadaveric Spasm has no period of development (rigidity in specific muscles is immediate).
2. Rigor Mortis can be manipulated by force (e.g. a hardened/stiff/rigid arm can be pushed into a different position) whereas Manipulation of the muscles in cases of Cadaveric Spasm would be impossible.
3. Rigor Mortis occurs as a result of the formation of lactic acid in the muscles and causes the body to stiffen and limbs to be locked “in place” whereas Cadaveric Spasm is a very rare phenomenon.
4. Rigor Mortis occurs in smaller muscle groups in the eyelids, facial muscles, neck, and lower jaw, the ankles, knees, elbows and hips whereas Cadaveric Spasm occurs in isolated muscles of the arm and hand.

Question 12

Explain what hypostasis is and state the period of development.

Answer 12

Hypostasis is described as the purplish-red discoloration of the most dependent parts of the body (lowest points) after the heart stopped beating, where blood settles/pools in the blood vessels under the influence of gravity.
The Period of Development is as follows:
(1) 1 – 2 hours after death the first signs will be noticed.
(2) 4 hours after death hypostasis will be well developed.
(3) 8 – 12 hours after death hypostasis will reach a maximum peak.
(4) After 12 hours, hypostasis will fixate due to the coagulation (clotting) of the blood.

Question 13

Describe the period of development for cataleptic congestion.

Answer 13

(1) 1 – 2 hours after death the first signs will be noticed.
(2) 4 hours after death hypostasis will be well developed.
(3) 8 – 12 hours after death hypostasis will reach a maximum peak.
(4) After 12 hours, hypostasis will fixate due to the coagulation (clotting) of the blood.

Question 14

Discuss the fixation or non-fixation of livor mortis.

Answer 14

1. Whether or not hypostasis is fixed can be determined by the so-called Blanching Test, which entails that the thumb of the observer is pressed on the livid area (where the blood pooled) for approximately a minute and ten released.
   (a) If the area becomes pale after the thumb is removed, the hypostasis is not fixed, whereas if the area remains purplish-red the hypostasis is fixed.
   (b) However, after 12 hours the blood coagulates and hypostasis becomes fixated (does not change); thus if a body is found with hypostasis development and pale patches that do not match the position the body is found in, it is assumed that the body was moved after 12 hours into a new position.
2. Include the Period of development of Hypostasis.

Question 15

Discuss the criminalistic value of hypostasis.

Answer 15

1. Because there is a predictable period of development, it can be used to estimate the time of death.
2. It is helpful to determine movement of the body when hypostasis development does not correspond with the position the body is discovered in.
3. The colour of hypostasis can be indicative of the cause of death:
   (a) Cherry-red hypostasis is usually observed in cases of carbon monoxide.
   (b) Pink hypostasis is usually observed in cases of cyanide poisoning and deaths as a result of hypothermia (cold temperatures).
   (c) Brown hypostasis is typically seen in cases of nitrate poisoning.

Question 16

Explain what the blanching test entails and describe what the forensic pathologist who uses it can deduce.

Answer 16

The Blanching Test entails that the thumb of the observer is pressed on the livid area (where the blood pooled) for approximately a minute and then released.
The pale patches illustrate the areas of the body that were in contact with the surface (blood vessels under pressure due to weight of body) when hypostasis developed.

Question 17

Provide a detailed discussion of the significance of algor mortis in forensic pathology.

Answer 17

1. During algor mortis the body temperature lowers until it matches environmental temperature.
2. Three distinct periods of algor mortis are identified:
   (a) The Initial Phase or Temperature Plateau when the temperature remains relatively stable for 30 minutes to three hours.
   (b) The Intermediate Phase in which the body cools rapidly and at a relatively linear rate.
   (c) The Terminal Phase when the rate of body cooling slows as the core temperature reaches the environmental temperature.
3. Several factors can influence the rate at which a body cools down:
   (a) The difference between body temperature and environmental temperature - the greater the difference between the temperature of the body and the environment, the faster the cooling rate.
   (b) The body will cool down faster if the surrounding area is well ventilated or humid.
   (c) Clothing will isolate the body and slow the rate down.
   (d) Body weight.
4. After the body has cooled down to reach environmental temperature, the cooling rate is no longer useful to estimate the time of death.
5. The post mortem interval cannot be accurately estimated during the first three to five hours after death due to the effect of the actual body temperature at death and the length of the temperature plateau following death.

Question 18

Clearly distinguish between autolysis and putrefaction in forensic pathology.

Answer 18

1. Autolysis, or Aerobic Decomposition, which begins immediately after death is not visible to the naked eye and is also known as the fresh stage of decomposition. Putrefaction, or Anaerobic Decomposition, is the process of decomposition that is visible to the naked eye.
2. During autolysis, the cells inside the body begin to leak enzymes into the surrounding tissue, and the bacteria, which are still living in the intestines, begin to consume the internal organs. Insects have a very keen sense of smell and will be attracted to the body because of these chemical processes.
3. Putrefaction is separated into the bloating phase, the decay phase, the post decay phase, and the dry stage.

Question 19

Describe the main events during each of the four (4) phases of putrefaction.

Answer 19

1. The Bloating Phase: The first noticeable sign is 2-3 days after death when a greenish discolouration appears on the lower abdomen. This greenish discoloration spreads over the entire abdomen soon and later the entire body. The tongue and eyes may also protrude. This bloating process continues for approximately 5–6 days.
2. The Decay Phase: Lasts for approximately 11 days.The body takes on a wet appearance as fluids start to drain from the natural body orifices and the sweat pores. The internal organs have broken down (also known as Liquefaction), which produces the fluids which drain from the body. The drainage of fluids is called Post Mortem Purging.
3. The Post Decay Phase: Begins around the 12th day after death. Most of the flesh would have been consumed (by insects or other animals) or have decomposed. Therefore, this phase is also known as The Start Of Skeletonisation.
4. The Dry Stage: Begins approximately 3 to 4 weeks after death. It involves the decomposition of the dry remains, usually the bones, nails, hair, cartilage, and dehydrated skin. Specific insects start a life cycle on the remains. Other 27 insects like house moths will also start a life cycle on the dry tissue of the mummified body and the hair.

Question 20

Explain how insects and other animals who use human remains as a source of food may complicate post mortem findings.

Answer 20

1. Cockroaches and ants produce post mortem injuries to bodies when using the body as a source of food.
2. Terrestrial animals like rats, dogs and cats choose to eat soft exposed tissue around the eyes, ears, lips, and genitals. Moreover, they tend to choose to eat areas of the body where the skin is already broken; thus, wounds sustained ante mortem (before death) will be enlarged.
3. Bodies disposed off in water are also used as a source of food by aquatic animals. Leeches in particular attach themselves around the eyes which produce lesions that resemble a black eye.
4. Turtles, crabs, and fish eat tissue around the eyes, nose, ears, and genitals, as well as around ante mortem wounds where the skin is already broken.

Question 21

Name and discuss the factors that may influence the rate of decomposition.

Answer 21

1. Sepsis (severe infection throughout body) before death may cause faster decomposition.
2. The hotter and more humid the environmental temperature, the faster decomposition will occur.
3. Optimal temperature for accelerated decomposition is between 25 and 38 degrees Celsius.
4. In bodies with multiple external open injuries, decomposition is accelerated.
5. A body in open-air will putrefy faster than one which is buried or submerged in water.
6. If the temperature of the body is low, the onset and rate of autolysis will be retarded, while higher temperature caused by fever or high levels of exertion prior to death, will accelerate the rate and onset of decomposition.

Question 22

Explain what Casper’s dictum entails.

Answer 22

“Casper’s dictum” states that a body decomposes twice as fast in open air than a body submerged in water; and eight times faster than one buried in soil.

Question 23

Discuss two (2) post mortem phenomena that may arrest the progression of putrefaction.

Answer 23

1. Mummification
   (a) Should not be confused with the deliberate mummification of bodies by the Egyptians, because it is a natural process.
   (b) In a dry atmosphere, a body may lose fluids so rapidly (dehydrate), that it dries out before normal decomposition can proceed as discussed.
   (c) The rapid elimination of fluids from the tissue, circumvents the process of bacterial putrefaction.
   (d) In such instances the skin shrinks and is converted into a parchment-like mass of skin which surrounds the bones – mummified tissues are rigid and hard.
   (e) The natural mummification process takes approximately 6 to 12 months to conclude; but in extreme conditions the time can be rapidly reduced.
   (f) Mummification persists for decades, and even centuries; therefore, the body goes into a state of preservation.
   (g) External marks on the skin, such as strangulation marks, remain preserved in the skin which becomes like leather.
   (h) As a result of the shrinking of the skin, large tears/splits may occur in the groin and neck-area, which mimic injuries sustained before death and may lead to misinterpretation.
2. Adipocere
   (a) Under moist conditions, body fat (triglycerides in particular) converts into a substance which is described as soapy, waxy, greasy, cheese-like.
   (b) The process of conversion is defined as The Saponification Of Body Fats Into Grave Wax or corpse wax, and the colour is typically off-white to grey.
   (c) Adipocere can persist for decades, even centuries; therefore, the body goes into a state of preservation.
   (d) Burial ground which is acidic, where enough moisture is present, and oxygen absent (exposure to oxygen inhibits adipocere), can result in adipocere.
   (e) Types of soil where bodies may develop adipocere are peat bogs (characterised by acidic soil), which are wetlands where dead plant material accumulates; for this reason, such bodies are also called Bog Bodies.
   (f) Similar to mummification, it allows for the preservation of marks and injuries on the skin.
   (g) The phenomenon is most pronounced in body parts which contain more fat, such as the cheeks, buttocks, and breasts of women.
   (h) Adipocere is also more common in women, toddlers, and obese individuals, because they have more body fat.
   (i) It is seen as a complicating factor because once it sets in, it becomes very difficult to estimate the post mortem interval.
   (j) Depending on environmental conditions, adipocere may be observed as early as five weeks after death; however, as a rule the presence of adipocere is usually an indication of a post mortem interval of at least three to six months.

Question 24

The manifestation of adipocere in buried bodies depends on a variety of factors such as?

Answer 24

1. The geographical location of the burial site.
2. The season of the burial.
3. Vegetation surrounding the burial site.
4. Depth of the grave.
5. Insect infestation before burial (a body that is accessible to insects is unlikely to form adipocere).
6. The composition of a coffin, if used.
7. The chemical and physical soil properties.

Question 25

Describe the complete lifecycle of the most common insect that invades human remains in South Africa.

Answer 25

1. Blowfly” is a colloquial name used to describe a number of flying insects in the Diptera family and comprises of mainly bluebottles, greenbottles, and houseflies. 2. The most common blowfly which invades human remains in South Africa, is the bluebottle. 3. Eggs may even be deposited on the living if they are weakened or injured severely and cannot move to chase the blowflies away from them. Each fly can deposit up to 300 eggs. The eggs hatch within 12 - 24 hours in optimal environmental temperatures. The eggs hatch into maggots that use body as a source of food. 4. The maggots go through three phases (called Instars) during an eating frenzy: Instar 1: maggots grow to 5mm long within 1.8 days. Instar 2: maggots grow to 10mm long within 2.5 days. Instar 3: maggots grow to 14 -16mm long within 4 to 5 days. 5. After instar 3 (in other words 4–5 days), the maggots become too heavy to hold on to the body and fall to the ground; at this stage they have grown to 17mm long and have reached maturity. 6. They now migrate in a pre-pupal phase to a suitable site (usually the soil around the body); they stop feeding; and develop into pupae within 34 approximately 4 days. 7. In favourable conditions (warm temperatures), an adult blowfly emerges from the pupal phase within 6 to 8 days. In less favourable conditions (cold temperatures), the pupal phase can last the entire winter. 8. The blowfly which emerges from the pupal phase is ready to start the whole cycle from afresh within 2 days after emerging from the pupal phase.

Question 26

List the legal procedures that apply to post mortem examinations in South Africa.

Answer 26

1. An autopsy is performed by a forensic pathologist appointed by the Department of Health. 2. An autopsy is performed at a mortuary of the Forensic Pathology Service of the Department of Health. 3. The criminal investigator who is in charge of an investigation is allowed to attend an autopsy. 4. An autopsy is performed with the express request of a criminal investigator or on instruction by a magistrate. 5. The permission of family members is not required to perform an autopsy, and they may also not deny the procedure. 6. An autopsy is performed as soon as possible. 7. An unidentified body remains in the freezers at the mortuary for 30 days, after which the municipal council under whose authority the mortuary is, has to ensure a pauper’s burial takes place for the deceased.

Question 27

Describe the procedure that is followed during a full post mortem examination.

Answer 27

1. All autopsies start with a description of the deceased’s physical characteristics (external examination first), which includes documentation of age, height, weight, sex, nutritional state, muscular development, scars, and tattoos. 2. Injuries are documented, including the amount, size, characteristics, shape, course, direction, depth and location of injuries. 3. Organs are removed for separate examination and dissection. 4. Abnormal sized organs are weighed. 5. Laboratory specimens are taken for further analysis (e.g. suspected poisoning). 6. Abnormal collections of fluid are measured (e.g. blood collected and measured in chest cavity if deceased bled internally).

Question 28

What are the types of Low-Level Socio-Moral Reasoning?

Answer 28

Motivational Factor 1: Limited Consequential Thinking. Motivational Factor 2: Individualism. Motivational Factor 3: Interpersonal Relationships.

Question 29

Outline Motivational Factor 1: Limited Consequential Thinking.

Answer 29

1. It demonstrates high concern for the fear of punishment. 2. It demonstrates little concern for “right” vs “wrong”. 3. Attitude: “It’s only a mistake if you get caught.” 4. Fear of consequences is equated to the desire to avoid punishment. 5. This early conventional stage is referred to as “good boy” or “good girl” orientation.

Question 30

Outline Motivational Factor 2: Individualism.

Answer 30

1. “Right” vs “wrong” is defined in terms of personal needs and interests. 2. Obeying society’s laws and rules is secondary to self-protection and self-preservation. 3. For instance, those who cannot afford a meal might steal food. Although they understand that they are breaking the law, hunger has a stronger influence on their decision making. 5. Juveniles who adopt a stealing lifestyle and are convinced that it is the only method of survival. 6. The interactions with society and other humans are key in determining their mind processes and awareness. 7. The mind is not an activity of the brain, but a self-organising process that arises from bodily processes.

Question 31

Outline Motivational Factor 3: Interpersonal Relationships.

Answer 31

1. “Right” vs “wrong” is defined in terms of protecting the needs and interests of the people one cares about most. 2. A gang mentality prevails. Attitudes include: 3. Youth offenders who don’t look out for themselves, nobody else will. 4. Respect has to be earned through aggression. 5. Only the present matters as they have nothing to lose. 6. The weak will be exploited in every possible way. 7. The group is needed for protection and emotional support. 8. The system treats them unfairly and discriminates against them. 9. Material things are what life is all about.

Question 32

What is Poverty?

Answer 32

Poverty is the extent to which an individual does without resources. These resources include financial, emotional, mental, physical and spiritual support systems.

Question 33

What causes some young people who live in economically impoverished environments to engage in low-level socio-moral thinking?

Answer 33

1. Young people who grow up feeling impoverished, perhaps owing to family violence, may find themselves in a chronic pattern of deep emotional pain that directly influences their current and future actions and behaviour. 2. Emotional poverty is perpetuated through experiences of rejection, abandonment or abuse is likely to elicit additional feelings including shame, fear and anger.

Question 34

What are the 2 domains of empathy?

Answer 34

1. Affective empathy: encompasses an emotional response that manifests in feelings of concern for another individual. 2. Cognitive empathy: one’s ability to understand another person’s frame of reference and not being blinded by one’s own point of view.

Question 35

What has a greater likelihood of promoting pro-social behaviour?

Answer 35

A foundation of feeling loved and valued, and a sense of belonging have a greater likelihood of promoting pro-social behaviour and the capacity for empathetic involvement and high-level socio-moral reasoning.

Question 36

What is Neuroplasticity and what does it entail?

Answer 36

For a youth to change from low-level socio-moral reasoning to high-level socio-moral reasoning will need a process called Neuroplasticity, which entails the ability of the brain to change its’ structure in response to experiences.

Question 37

What are Thinking Errors?

Answer 37

Thinking Errors is an example of low-level socio-moral reasoning, which involves young people attempting to alter their reality to avoid taking responsibility for their actions.

Question 38

What are other common thinking errors?

Answer 38

Other common thinking errors include telling lies, justifying or coming up with excuses for behaviour.

Question 39

3 common Thinking Errors.

Answer 39

1. Assuming: A young person may assume he/she knows what another person is thinking or feeling, and will often act before verifying the facts. “He looks at me like he wanted to fight so I..." 2. Blaming: A young person justifies his/her negative behaviour as being due to someone else initiating the incident. “It’s not my fault, he started it!” 3. Minimising: The young person will attempt to make what he/she did seem less bared. “I barely touched him! That didn’t hurt.”

Question 40

What are the 3 levels of Crime Prevention?

Answer 40

1. Primary Prevention. 2. Secondary Prevention. 3. Tertiary Prevention.

Question 41

What is Primary Prevention?

Answer 41

Primary Prevention is proactive and relates to the steps that are taken to prevent youth misbehaviour and crime before they occur.

Question 42

What is Secondary Prevention?

Answer 42

Secondary Prevention refers to interventions in the lives of youths or groups identified as being in circumstances that predispose them to misbehaviour.

Question 43

What is Tertiary Prevention?

Answer 43

Tertiary Prevention deals with juveniles who have already committed crime.

Question 44

Name the features of the Primary Prevention of crime.

Answer 44

1. The role of the FAMILY as primary socializing agent. 2. The role of MENTORS in the prevention of youth misbehaviour. 3. The role of MEDIA in primary prevention. 4. The role of the POLICE in primary crime prevention. 5. The role of the GOVERNMENT AND SOCIETY IN SOCIAL UPLIFTMENT.

Question 45

Discuss the role of the FAMILY as primary socializing agent (Primary Prevention)

Answer 45

1. Everything that happens in the family system has a considerable influence on the future of the child: Because of economic and social factors, families are often unable to function as adequate support systems. Adequate social support networks, which instils a sense of belonging, enable children to accept responsibility. 2. Primary prevention projects aimed at improving the ability of families to support children should be a priority: Empowering parents by instructing them on aspects such as basic care of infants, child development, the disciplinary needs of children and conflict resolution is the most basic preventative measures. 3. Any form of parent effectiveness training as well as family skills training can be beneficial: Parent training should be aimed at instructing parents on the demands and responsibilities associated with raising children. How to set clear expectations, nurture children and improve interaction to promote bonding within the family context. 4. An effective proactive strategy for preventing youth crime would be to offer programmes aimed at reinforcing and internalizing positive individual traits such as discipline, trustworthiness, self-respect and responsibility. 5. NICRO – offer two parenting programmes. The goal of these programmes is to promote positive parenting and to curb child abuse and neglect. They assist parents to raise children who are emotionally balanced, have high self-esteem. 6. Youth-at-risk programmes such as Conquest for Life aim to enhance dialogue between the youth, parents, and community institutions such as schools. 7. MomConnect - gives pregnant women and caregivers of children younger than 2 years the opportunity to register for free child-rearing advice.

Question 46

Discuss the role of MENTORS in the prevention of youth misbehaviour (Primary Prevention).

Answer 46

1. The increase in number of single parent and child-headed households led to many youths lacking positive role models. 2. Mentorship programmes that encourage friendships with conventional peer can be viewed as a primary measure for preventing youth misbehaviour: A positive relationship with an adult is a major contributing factor. Children need to acquire resilience factors and this can be achieved by assistance of a mentor who assists the child in dire situations and shows them that they are loved and wanted, and that they are trusted by the mentor. 3. Mentorship programmes can also be used in circumstances where youths are at risk of clashing with the criminal justice system. 4. Big Brothers Big Sisters (BBBS) – offer peer counselling and tutoring. This leads to an improvement in the children’s self-esteem, feelings of self-worth, ability to trust, communication skills, as well as academic performance.

Question 47

Discuss the role of MEDIA in primary prevention.

Answer 47

1. Mass media can be used to address crime, and specifically youth misbehaviour: Educating the community about crimes and the prevention of crimes. 2. SHOUT Trust – A campaign for a safer South Africa (2010): A crime fighting non-profit organization. Launched by Danny K and Kabelo Mabalane as a reaction to the murder of Lucky Dube. Musicians of South Africa should speak out on behalf of “an almost voiceless nation”. “We have a chance to turn the pages over. How long can we look at each other down the barrel of a gun?” 3. Soul City: The impact of violence against women and how this can be prevented. Preventing alcohol-induced violence. They also work on the tertiary prevention level where the aim is to prevent victimization or the reoccurrence of crime. 4. Crime-related information can reduce people’s fear of crime, enable members of the community to help themselves, raise awareness among the youth. 5. The media can also be used to encourage the youth to report crime through the marketing of information lines such as 08600 10111.

Question 48

Discuss the role of the POLICE in primary crime prevention.

Answer 48

1. A good relationship between the police and the community is an important part of primary crime prevention. 2. Community policing (a strategy that is based on a partnership between the police and the community to find solutions to community crimes) and sector policing (an approach where a police station area is divided into smaller, more manageable sectors) will never succeed if the youth do not trust the police. 3. Adopt-A-Cop: Schools that are included each receive the service of 2 police officials (a detective and police officer). Both of these police officials liaise with the school and visit schools with the aim of reviving school safety forums and encouraging children to report crime. Improve local safety and security by implementing proactive initiatives to address factors that cause crimes in schools. Provide information sessions focusing on aspects such as safety precautions, bullying, gangsterism and drug abuse. Establish a relationship with the school and the children by attending events and becoming authority figures who are trusted by the children.

Question 49

Discuss the role of the GOVERNMENT AND SOCIETY IN SOCIAL UPLIFTMENT (Primary Prevention).

Answer 49

1. Community-wide social upliftment programmes focus on structural problems such as lack of adequate housing, education and employment opportunities. 2. Growth, Employment and Redistribution Strategy (GEAR): Improving the socioeconomic situation in South Africa. The goals are to facilitate a new economic system that ensures a competitive and fast-growing economy that will create enough jobs for South Africans. 3. The National Youth Development Agency (NYDA): To empower the youth (14-53 years) of South Africa on both a social and an economic level, aiming to reduce youth employments and promote social cohesion. To alleviate poverty, to focus on rural and urban development, to combat crime and substance abuse, and to prevent social decay among the youth. 4. Limitless Youth Campaign – to instil a positive mindset in youth people on an emotional level and to assure them that they can be anything they want to be.

Question 50

Name the features of the Secondary Prevention of crime.

Answer 50

1. Homeless/Street Children. 2. The role of the SCHOOL in the secondary prevention of youth misbehaviour.

Question 51

Discuss Homeless/Street Children (Secondary Prevention).

Answer 51

1. Ons Plek: A shelter for female street children in Cape Town. To prevent runaway girls from becoming street children. To provide a safe heaven for the street for new arrivals, while counsellors work on long-term solutions for their problems. 2. Street-Wise Programme: Designed to address problems that street children may have to face and to help prevent them from becoming adult offenders. Accommodation is offered for a maximum period of 1 year, as the aim is to reconcile children with their families. Where reconciliation is not possible, such children will be referred to a youth care centre or other suitable accommodation. 3. The Homestead Projects for Street Children: Services provided include aspects such as substance abuse counselling, school attendance support and family preservation programmes. Accommodates boys between 6-17 years who are traumatised and have suffered neglect, abuse and/or exploitation, children who have been living, working and/or begging on the streets. 4. The Launch Pad: Provides shelter for drug-free youths between 15-21 years. To empower and provide life skills to traumatized youth with aspects such as anger management issues and inappropriate private sexual behaviour, working to improve their relationships with their families or guardians, developing their talent.

Question 52

Discuss the role of the SCHOOL in the secondary prevention of youth misbehaviour.

Answer 52

1. The school fulfils an important role as a socializing agent and also in the development of the child: Implemented policies and procedures should be developed to address problems at school. It is also important that the school rules are enforced fairly and consistently. 2. The Safe School Project: Initiated by the government aimed at addressing safety in public schools. The provision of school environment that are conductive, to identity and assist those with learning difficulties, and to support those from broken homes, or those who live in poverty. 3. THE NATIONAL SCHOOL SAFETY FRAMEWORK: To manage the school safety committees in South Africa with the aim of creating a safe and violence-free learning environment. The purpose of the school safety committee is to identify and manage threats of violence and risk factors in and around schools. 4. The Department of Social Development (DSD): To gauge the nature and extent of violence in schools. Teachers, parents, the community and the SAPS should collaborate and use community policing forums to assist in the safe-keeping of schools. Coordinates an anti-gang strategy to alleviate gang-related school violence. 5. Teachers are in an ideal position to identify key indicators or risk factors, which if not addressed can give rise to violence at the school.

Question 53

Preventing Recidivism (Tertiary Prevention)

Answer 53

1. It is important to manage juveniles in accordance with current legislation and international standards. 2. To adhere to their rights as children and focus programmes on rehabilitation and reintegration.

Question 54

Discuss the role of The Department of Correctional Services (DCS) at a Tertiary Prevention of crime level.

Answer 54

1. Aims to provide offenders with needs-based programmes and interventions to facilitate rehabilitation and enable reintegration into communities. 2. Offender development is a priority and include personal development and rehabilitation programmes addressing illiteracy, furthering education, teaching practical skills such as bricklaying and agricultural skills; as well as the inclusion of recreational programmes (sport). 3. Programmes target offending behaviour by teaching life skills and focusing on anger management. 4. Social work services and religious care programmes are provided. 5. Social reintegration programmes focus on coping skills for handling challenges that the offender will face upon release. 6. Facilitates restorative justice meetings (Victim-Offender Dialogues) in order to promote mediation and healing among offenders, victims,

Question 55

Discuss the features of Preventing Recidivism (Tertiary Prevention).

Answer 55

1. Khulisa: Aims to prevent crime, divert youth from the criminal justice system, provide alternatives to imprisonment, foster personal transformation for those who are in prison, and assist with transition back to society. Dare to Dream programme - Aims to help individuals escape from a life of poverty and crime. Silence the Violence - Focuses on the culture of violence ingrained in communities and belief systems. 2. My Path: Aimed at individuals in need of personal development and behavioural therapy. It promotes the discovery of oneself as a physical, psychological, emotional, and social being. It helps offenders embark on a path of exploring who they are and helping to prepare them for re-entry into a positive and meaningful lifestyle. The focus is on replacing inappropriate beliefs, goal-setting, communication skills, improving relationships, and restorative justice.

Question 56

What is Diversion?

Answer 56

A matter involving a child away from the formal court procedures in a criminal matter when there is sufficient evidence to prosecute the child. It entails those children in conflict with the law are kept away from the formal criminal justice system and ensures that they are successfully reintegrated into society.

Question 57

What are the Objectives (what do we want to achieve) of diversion?

Answer 57

1. Deal with a child outside the formal criminal justice system. 2. Encourage the child to be accountable for the harm they have caused. 3. Meet the particular needs of an individual child. 4. Provide an opportunity to victims to express their views about the impact of the offence on them. 5. Promote the reintegration of the child into his/her family and community. 6. Reduce the potential for re-offending and prevent the child from having a criminal record. 7. Promote the dignity and wellbeing of the child and the development of his/her sense of self-worth. 8. Prevent the stigmatizing of the child and prevent the adverse consequences of contact with the criminal justice system.

Question 58

In what ways can Diversion occur?

Answer 58

Diversion can occur in three ways: 1. Through prosecutorial diversion when a child has committed a Schedule 1 offence. 2. At the preliminary inquiry, through an order of the inquiry magistrate. 3. During the trial in the child justice court through an order of the court.

Question 59

Criteria for diversion (what requirements should be in place to consider diversion).

Answer 59

1. The child acknowledges responsibility for the offence. 2. The child has not been unduly influenced to acknowledge responsibility. 3. A prima facie case exists against the child (there is sufficient evidence to prosecute the child) 4. The child and his/her parent/guardian consents to diversion. 5. The prosecutor or Director of Public Prosecutions indicates that the child may be diverted in accordance with relevant provision of the Child Justice Act.

Question 60

The Minimum Standards for diversion (what is the standards that a diversion programme has to adhere to).

Answer 60

1. May not be exploitative, harmful or hazardous to the child’s physical or mental health, and may not interfere with the child’s schooling. 2. Must be appropriate to the age and maturity of the child. 3. May not exclude certain children due to a lack of resources, financial or otherwise, and also bearing in mind the circumstances of children in rural areas. 4. Must be sensitive to the circumstances of the victims, and must involve the child’s parents/guardians. 5. Must, where reasonably possible, impart useful skills, include a restorative element and promote the child’s understanding of the impact of the offence. 6. Must be accessible to the child, structured in a way that is suitable to be used in a variety of circumstances and for a variety of offences, and measurable in terms of effectiveness.

Question 61

Types of Diversion programmes.

Answer 61

1. Life skills training. 2. Mentoring. 3. Family group conferencing. 4. Outdoor programmes.

Question 62

What are Dynamic Risk Factors?

Answer 62

Factors that can be changed, for example one can replace criminal role models with positive role models or mentors.

Question 63

What is a Risk Factor?

Answer 63

A variable that predicts a high probability of offending.

Question 64

What are Static Risk Factors?

Answer 64

Factors that do not change or only change in one direction, for example gender and age.

Question 65

What are Criminogenic Risk Factors?

Answer 65

Factors specifically associated with criminal activities.

Question 66

What are Protective Factors?

Answer 66

Characteristics of the individual or his circumstances that mediate or buffer the effects of the risk factor. The presence of protective factors explains why some children who are exposed to multiple risk factors do not engage in misbehaviour.

Question 67

Name the Community or Neighbourhood variables of the risk factors pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 67

1. Economic Inequality, Relative Deprivation and Unemployment. 2. Community Disorganization. 3. Availability Of Alcohol And Drugs. 4. Culture (Climate) Of Violence.

Question 68

Discuss Economic Inequality, Relative Deprivation and Unemployment as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 68

1. It is not poverty per se that does so, but how people experience their financial situation within their social environment: Majority of poor people do not commit crime, only those who feel deprived will often resort to crime. 2. The effect of income inequality in society will depend on the individual’s relative income position: It is unlikely that an increase in inequality will induce the rich to commit crime. However, for the poor, an increase in inequality may be crime inducing. 3. People steal because of unemployment and poverty, and because life is difficult and it is hard to make ends meet. 4. Unemployment and frustration, together with being disadvantaged, were justifications given for committing most crimes.

Question 69

Discuss Availability of Alcohol and Drugs as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 69

1. It is not only the high level of substance abuse that contributes to crime: The existence of profitable criminal activities also means that the expected loot from crime is more attractive in certain countries such as South Africa. 2. People who use illegal drugs generally commit more crimes than those who do not. 3. The drug enslavement theory states that drug and/or alcohol dependency is expensive and drive people to crime if they have no other means of supporting their habit. 4. Deficit users are those subjected to the factors of living in poverty, having an inadequate education, lacking job skills. 5. Drug use by itself does not cause users to commit crime, but it intensifies criminal tendencies or increase the frequency of criminal activities. 6. The widespread availability of drugs and drug use in South Africa has heightened young individual’s participation and exposure to violence. 7. Potentially effective interventions for adolescent victimization should be designed to address personal, family, peer and environmental risk factors.

Question 70

Discuss Community Disorganisation as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 70

1. Factors such as the loss of social control, cohesion and trust in the collective ability to direct the affairs of the neighborhood in positive directions are referred to as social disorganization. 2. When urbanization occurs suddenly and on a large scale, ideal conditions for crime are created. 3. The situation is made worse because of unemployment, poverty, a lack of education, the lack of proper housing, the need for food and disorganization in urban areas. 4. Large informal settlements are particularly problematic in terms of effective policing and crime control. 5. Uncontrolled urbanization places an unmanageable strain on available resources, and creates conditions even more conductive to crime.

Question 71

Name the Family Variables of the risk factors pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 71

1. Socioeconomic status of the family. 2. Family Structure. 3. Lack Of Parental Supervision . 4. Inter-Generational Continuity In Offending. 5. Family Violence. 6. Homelessness.

Question 72

Discuss Socioeconomic Status of the family as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 72

1. A child is unlikely to avoid misbehaviour if he/she comes from a neighbourhood where crime prevails or from a poverty-stricken family in which the parents are unable to provide for basic needs. 2. Variables that predict misbehaviour more strongly for girls than for boys: Low social class, Low family income, Poor housing, Large family size. 3. As a result of a family’s low socioeconomic status, children may develop a negative self-concept and feelings of shame and guilt. 4. Overcrowding leads to a lack of privacy. And children may tend to wander around and even desert the home: They may land in bad company, Be tempted and begin to use substances, Crime is the inevitable outcome. 5. There is no guarantee that high socioeconomic status will decrease the risk of children becoming involved in crime. 6. Economic deprivation increases the level of stress experienced by parents, and this may negatively affect the relationship with the child.

Question 72

Discuss Culture (Climate) of Violence as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 72

1. Culture Of Violence refers to daily activities that are characterised by violence. 2. We have a culture of violence in SA because the community views violence as a legitimate and acceptable way of resolving their problems and reaching their goals. 3. Ways in which the culture of violence developed: History of political violence, Social inequalities and deprivation, Violent gangs and violent role models, Ineffective CJS. 4. Children in SA are exposed to violence on a daily basis: Violence in the community, Violence at home, Media, Violence at school (e.g. bullying, gang activities), Technology (e.g. cyberbullying, games). 5. The consequences of exposure to community violence: Heightened psychological distress, Low self-esteem, A heightened risk of displaying trauma-related symptoms, Lower social competence, Poor school performance. 6. Indicators that serve as possible warning signs of potential gun violence among youth: Exposure to violence, A lack of success with normal tasks of adolescence, Social rejection or poor social involvement, A build-up of intense anger.

Question 73

Discuss Inter-Generational Continuity in Offending as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 73

1. This process starts from the earliest childhood developmental periods, with the focus on the role of parental offending on their offspring’s developmental vulnerability in early childhood. 2. Children of criminal parents are at a greater risk of becoming involved in criminal behaviour than their counterparts. 3. If siblings are close and interact with one another, they may easily influence or encourage or discourage deviance in one another. 4. Maintenance of antisocial lifestyle is an important mechanism on intergenerational continuity of antisocial behaviour across three generations. 5. The risk of children developing conduct problems increased if they had two antisocial parents and witnessed conflict.

Question 74

Discuss Family Structure as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 74

1. An Incomplete Family refers to the absence of the father or mother. 2. Homes without both parents, together with poverty, are factors that influence the commission of crime. 3. The absence of a father figure has a negative effect on the socializing process, especially with regard to boys, as they are more at risk in engaging in antisocial behaviour. 4. In some households, grandparents or older siblings have to look after the younger children. 5. The presence of a stepmother results in relationship problems with adolescents: Owing to some unhappiness, children may run away from home to live on the streets. Become involved in gang activities, misbehaviour and crime. 6. Death of parents leaves many young children orphaned: Older siblings seek employment or turn to crime in order to support the younger siblings in these child-headed households. 7. A Mixed Extended Family is when each parent brings children into the family setting: Children may have conflicts with one another. They may feel unwanted and withdraw from social contact, start using substances or join gangs. 8. Poor parental supervision and family support affects adolescents’ behaviour, as youths then choose to associate with peers who may display diverse problematic behaviour. 9. Owing to the lack of proper supervision, some children may loiter in shopping malls and arcade games. Others become involved in illegal activities without the parents’ knowledge or become victims of crime.

Question 75

Discuss Family Violence as a risk factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 75

1. The family is the “most violent institution, with the two exceptions of the police and the military”. 2. A special police unit has also been established to investigate DV in SA, namely the Family Violence, Child Protection and Sexual Offences (FCS) unit of the South African Police Service (SAPS). 3. Factors that increase the risk for child abuse by parents: Problematic interaction between parent and child. Lack of parenting skills and knowledge about normal childhood behaviour. 4. Intergenerational Transmission of Violence occurs when parents think that violence is the only way to solve child-rearing problems because they themselves experienced abuse as children or observed how their parents used violence to express anger. 5. Although family violence can occur at all levels, the incident is more significant among poor people. However, sexual abuse rates show no significance related to social class. 6. Children who have been abused experience some of the following problems: Emotional and social difficulties, Learning disabilities, Poor academic performance, Running away from home, which result in criminal behaviour. 7. As adults, they are also at the risk of abusing substances, engaging in criminal activities and becoming child abusers themselves.

Question 76

Discuss Homelessness as a factor pertaining to youth offenders.

Answer 76

1. Homelessness and living on the streets are linked to crime and criminalization in many ways. 2. Homeless people may be vulnerable to victimization on the streets, and are at risk of committing criminal offences to support themselves through stealing, prostitution and the drug trade. 3. They often use substances to assist themselves to escape the harsh realities of life on the streets. 4. For many, surviving on the streets means becoming involved in criminal activities. 5. The causes of homelessness: Poverty, The lack of affordable housing, Unemployment, Inadequate social welfare policies. 6. Street children often live in slums, and their gangs may specialize in crime such as pickpocketing, prostitution and begging.

Question 77

Outline the origin of the Classical School of Thought.

Answer 77

1. The origins of the Classical School of Criminology are traced back to the writings of Cesare Beccaria’s book Of crimes and punishment (1764), and Jeremy Bentham’s Introduction to the principles of morals and legislation (1789). 2. Classical theorists criticized Western criminal justice systems for their cruel and oppressive practices. 3. It gave rise to the basic ideas for the operation of the justice system and the processing of criminals as it stands today: Currents concepts such as civil rights, testimony, due process, sentencing, deterrence.

Question 78

What were the goals of the Classical Theorists?

Answer 78

To reduce the severity of existing punishment and to achieve equal justice for all.

Question 79

Outline the 3 central features of human nature according to the Classical Theory.

Answer 79

1. People are not bound by original sin but have freedom to choose (people choose all their behaviour, including criminal behaviour. 2. People are rational and are capable of using their reason to govern their lives. 3. People are motivated to pursue their own self-interests at the exposure of others.

Question 79

What is the key premise of the Classical Theory?

Answer 79

A key premise of the classical theory is that humans are rational creatures, endowed with a free will. 1. This implies that all criminal acts are willful. 2. That is, people commit crimes because they can choose to do so. 3. Rational beings are capable of taking decisions in a logically reasoned way by taking the costs and benefits of alternative accounts. 4. Free will means that people may act as they choose. 5. Deterrence not to commit a crime is based on the premise that the threat of punishment will influence decisions and behaviour.

Question 80

Explain the Pleasure-Pain principle of the Classical School of Thought.

Answer 80

1. Punishment serves as the “pain function". 2. Specific punishment for specific offences should be written into law and should not be based on interpretation by the presiding officer in the court”. 3. It implies that every human who is found guilty of a specific crime should suffer the same prescribed punishment.

Question 81

What is the slogan of the Classical theorists?

Answer 81

“Let the punishment fit the crime”

Question 82

Explain youth offenders as rational decision makers.

Answer 82

1. Young offenders are seen to be rational decision makers who choose to commit crime, and their choices can be controlled by fear of punishment. 2. Young people would be deterred from committing crimes if they were threatened with punishment that was certain, unavoidable and swift.

Question 83

How can punishment be deterred?

Answer 83

Punishment could only deter if it were proportional to the crime. Proportionality means: 1. The severity of the punishment corresponds with the severity of the harm done by the crime. 2. The type of punishment resembles the crime so that others in society can best associate the punishment with the crime.

Question 84

In what instances was is not necessary to mete out punishment according to the Classical School of Thought?

Answer 84

1. When the punishment was groundless. 2. When the punishment was deemed ineffective. 3. The punishment was too expensive. 4. The punishment was needless.

Question 84

What are the Principles of Punishment?

Answer 84

1. Certainty Principle: if the observed certainty of punishment increases, the probability that laws will be broken decreases. 2. Celerity (Swiftness) Principle: when the rate of punishment reaction accelerates, the extent to which rules are broken diminishes (if the enforcement of punishment is slow, the probability is high that laws will be broken). 3. Severity Principle: the severity of punishment had deterrence value if it does not exceed a certain level (if the punishment for one crime is 40 years and for another is 50 years, a person will not be deterred from committing the crime for which a longer sentence may be imposed).

Question 85

The application of the Classical school to the prevalence of (house robbery)

Answer 85

1. Rational choice. Offenders choose the type of crime that they want to commit by looking at the advantages of involvement in such an act (Choose house robbery as they can gain financially. Choose a specific house where they can obtain valuable possessions like money, electronic equipment, weapons). 2. Choose a specific target. Vulnerable victims (Look at absence of protection (can refer to victims who are isolated). The absence of protective measures like alarm systems). 3. Will pursue own interest even if it is at the expense of others. Do not consider the pain that victims experience (Violence and offences that are associated with house robberies include assault, rape, murder, etc.). 4. Pain vs. pleasure principle (If pleasure (goods from the robbery) weigh more than pain (punishment, certainty, swiftness and severity) it is likely that the offence will be committed).

Question 86

Outline Sociological Positivism.

Answer 86

1. The importance of social factors as causes of crime. 2. The aim is to account for the distribution of varying rates of crime in given populations. 3. Society shapes the individual psychologically provided the foundation for sociological positivism. 4. Adolphe Quetelet used social statistics to investigate the influence of social factors on the tendency to commit crime. 5. Emile Durkheim deemed crime as a normal phenomenon as he believed it was impossible to imagine a society completely without crime. 6. Two main branches of sociological positivism: Social Structure Theories and Social Process Theories.

Question 86

Positivist School of Thought.

Answer 86

1. The assumptions of the classical school on the rationality and free will of human nature were questioned: “What sort of creature is the human animal?” 2. Thinkers turned to new methods of science for answers, specifically to the use of scientific research techniques such as observation, experimentation and comparison.

Question 86

What is Positivism?

Answer 86

Positivism can be defined as an attempt to use the scientific methods of sampling, control and the analysis of crime to study social phenomena. 1. The tradition of empirical research and verification in criminology.

Question 87

What are the 3 basic assumptions of Positivism in terms of youth misbehaviour?

Answer 87

1. The character and personal backgrounds of individuals explain youth misbehaviour (the cause of misbehaviour within the young person) 2. The existence of scientific determinism is a critical assumption. Youth misbehaviour is determined by prior cause; it does not just happen (the person possesses reason and is capable of choice). 3. The young offender is seen as fundamentally different from the non-offender. Offending youths are driven into crime by something in their physical makeup, by psychological impulses or by the harshness of their social environment.

Question 88

Outline Social Structure Theories.

Answer 88

1. The primary premise is that the lower class engage in behaviour to a high degree than the middle class. 2. Assume that crime is primarily a lower-class problem and point to flaws within the social structure that increase the odds of a person resorting to illegal behaviour. 3. Structural features that contribute to poverty, unemployment, poor education and racism are viewed as indirect causes of high crime among members of socially deprived groups. 4. These theories include: Social Disorganisation Theories, Strain Theories, Cultural Deviance Theories.

Question 89

Discuss Social Disorganisation Theories as part of Social Structure Theories.

Answer 89

1. The focus is on the social environment and specifically on urban conditions that affect crime rates. 2. Centres around three variables: poverty, residential mobility and racial heterogeneity. 3. A disorganised area is one in which institutions of social control can no longer function properly: Residents in these areas experience despair, and as a result antisocial behaviour flourishes. 4. More focus has been put on the injustices in society to explain crime, so instead of blaming the person, researchers are focusing on the high-risk neighbourhoods and informal settlements that create forces of strain and inherently create crime. 5. Cultural transmission theory is that social disorganisation affects juvenile and leads to their misbehaviour.

Question 90

Discuss Strain Theories as part of Social Structure Theories.

Answer 90

1. Views crime as a direct result of lower-class frustration and anger. 2. People are more likely to engage in crime when they cannot get what they want through legitimate channels. 3. This theory was developed from the work of Emile Durkheim’s notion of anomie, which means “a total absence of a moral sense, disregard for divine law and lack of conformity”. 4. The inability to achieve economic success creates frustration, and individuals sometimes respond to this by engaging in crime such as theft and substance abuse.

Question 91

Outline Merton's 5 Modes of Adaptation (Strain Theories).

Answer 91

1. Conformity: individuals embrace the conventional goals of society and also have the means at their disposal to attain them. Such people are law abiding. 2. Innovation: most associated with criminal behaviour as it occurs when an individual accepts the goals of society, but is incapable of attaining them through legitimate means. The resulting conflict may entice them to adopt illegal solutions to their dilemma. 3. Ritualism: gain pleasure from practicing traditional ceremonies with set manners and customs, irrespective of whether they have a real goal. This is the lowest level of misbehaviour because of abandonment of the success goal. 4. Retreatism: reject both the goals and the means of society, and do not buy into the idea of conventional hard work. It includes psychotics, chronic drunkards, drug addicts and street people. 5. Rebellion: substituting conventional goals and means with an alternative set.

Question 92

Discuss Cultural Deviance Theories as part of Social Structure Theories.

Answer 92

1. Elements of both the strain and social disorganisation theories are combined, and the distinct differences between social classes are emphasised. 2. A unique lower-class culture develops in disorganised neighbourhoods due to strain and social isolation. 3. These independent subcultures maintain unique values and beliefs that are in conflict with conventional norms, thus criminal behaviour is an expression of conformity to lower-class subculture values such as excitement, toughness and risk-taking. 4. Adolescents who share lower-class values and admire criminals find it difficult to impress authority figures and as a result, they join gangs and engage in crime. 5. They experience frustration and conflict when they fail to attain these expectations which contributes to their delinquent behaviour.

Question 93

Outline Social Process Theories.

Answer 93

1. The theme is that deviant socialisation and intimacy with criminal peers breed criminality. 2. Assumes that deviant behaviour is learnt through social interaction with others. 3. Social process theories share one basic idea: all people, regardless of their race, class, or gender, have the potential to become law-breakers. 4. Social process theories include Social Learning theories and Social Control theories.

Question 94

Discuss Social Learning Theories as part of Social Process Theories.

Answer 94

1. Believe that crime is a result of learning the norms, values and behaviours associated with criminal activity. 2. Social learning can involve the actual techniques of crime (how to handle a firearm), as well as the psychological aspects of criminality (how to deal with the guilt associated with crime). 3. Law-breaking Socialisation occurs through a process by which young offenders are taught that criminal behaviour is acceptable and more desirable than legitimate behaviour. 4. Three types of models in a young person’s life that have a significant impact on behaviour: family members, the subculture, and symbolic models provided by the media. 5. Albert Bandura: The learning process begins in early childhood. Children develop behaviours merely by watching their parents, significant others and role models in the environment, known as modelling or observational learning. 6. Sutherland's Differential Association Theory: Criminal behaviour is normal learnt behaviour. The learning of deviant ideas and beliefs in the process of associating with other people.

Question 95

Discuss Social Control Theories as part of Social Process Theories.

Answer 95

1. Human behaviour is largely the result of how children are socialised: This socialisation determines the extent which children come to trust and rely on others, as socialised by parents and guardians. 2. Human nature is the motivators for criminal behaviour, and if some type of outside controls did not exist, individuals would more readily commit crimes: People are therefore free to break the law, but certain controls prevent them from doing so. 3. Travis Hirschi- the social bond between people is a strong controlling factor. People with low social bonds will be more inclined to commit crime.

Question 96

Outline Travis Hirschi's 4 elements in the socialisation process (Social Control Theories).

Answer 96

1. Attachment: the first and most important element refers to the trust, respect and intimacy that develop between children and their parents or guardians. The individual’s capacity to form effective relationships with others. 2. Involvement: the involvement in conventional activities like sport and church activities in which the young person cannot find the time to engage in criminal behaviour. The opportunity for deviance would rarely arise because the child is too busy with acceptable activities. 3. Commitment: how invested the individual is in conforming to the rules of society. Ambition and aspiration play an important role in producing conformity. Committed youths will think of their parents, their teacher, friends and will think through the risks of losing the investment they made in these relationships. 4. Belief: the inner feeling that children acquire with regard to the legitimacy of the boundaries being placed on their behaviour. Belief refers to the existence of a common value system which adhered to.

Question 97

Discuss the Labelling Theory.

Answer 97

1. Inadequate families, poverty, lack of opportunities or peer group associations do not cause crime. Instead, society’s reactions to youthful lawbreakers produce serious misconduct (secondary deviance). 2. Identifying, labelling and stigmatising children in the juvenile justice system will apparently worsen their behaviour. 3. The “looking-glass self” alludes to the idea that your self-concept reflects another person’s conception of you: Applying labels like “that group are the problem kids at school” could lead to these individuals aligning their behaviour to the label. 4. Argues that criminological analysis should begin with how people come to be defined as deviant, and examine the implications that such definitions hold for future offensive behaviour. 5. Human nature is relatively flexible and subject to change.

Question 98

Outline the process of labelling (Labelling Theory).

Answer 98

1. Negative labelling. 2. Stigmatisation. 3. New identity formation in response to negative labelling. 4. Commitment to the new identity based on available roles and relationships.

Question 99

What does school related violence encompass?

Answer 99

School related violence encompasses a variety of acts perpetrated on the school grounds, such as hazing, assault, robbery, sexual assault, gangsterism and drug-related offences.

Question 100

Who may engage in school-based violence?

Answer 100

School-based violence may be perpetrated by fellow learners or school staff, and at times perpetrators enter the school premises with the aim of committing violent acts.

Question 101

How is teacher-on-learner violence perpetrated?

Answer 101

Regarding teacher-on-learner violence, educators verbally abuse learners, use corporal punishment to discipline them and are involved in “love relationships” with them.

Question 102

How is learner-on-learner violence perpetrated?

Answer 102

With learner-on-learner violence, girls are more likely to be victims of sexual assault and rape perpetrated by fellow learners as well as male teachers, and boys the victims of assault and bullying.

Question 103

How is learner-on-teacher violence perpetrated?

Answer 103

Learner-on-teacher violence includes verbally abusing or insulting teachers, threatening to hurt teachers as well as physical assault and sexual harassment.

Question 104

Give a brief profile of school shooters.

Answer 104

1. School shooters usually reveal their intentions before committing the offence, but the warning signs are ignored. 2. In most instances they feel excluded (bond with other school outcasts). 3. In many cases the offenders were victims of acts such as bullying and want to dominate and exercise power, hence their involvement in offending.

Question 105

What is a Firearm-Free Zone (FFZ)?

Answer 105

Firearm-Free Zone (FFZ) is any place that has been declared by the Minister of Safety and Security to be a firearm-free zone, such as a school, a hospital, the workplace or any other area.

Question 106

What are the criminal offences once a place has been declared an FFZ?

Answer 106

1. Allowing any firearm or ammunition into the FFZ. 2. Carrying a firearm or ammunition in the FFZ. 3. Storing any firearm or ammunition in the FFZ.

Question 107

What are the penalties for contravening the stipulations of the FFZ law?

Answer 107

1. If a person allows any firearm or ammunition in the FFZ, they can be sent to prison for up to 5 years. 2. If a person brings a gun or ammunition in the FFZ, they can be sent to prison for up to 10 years. 3. If a person stores guns or ammunition in the FFZ, they can be sent to prison for up to 25 years.

Question 108

What is Bullying?

Answer 108

Bullying is the intentional, repetitive violent acts and/or insults as well as other negative behaviour which is displayed by one child/children against another child/children.

Question 109

What are the defining factors of bullying?

Answer 109

1. Intent to harm, with the bully finding pleasure in taunting others. 2. Intensity and duration: bullying continues over a longer period of time. 3. Exercising of power over the victim because of the bully’s age, size, strength or gender. 4. Selection of victims who appear vulnerable. 5. Lack of support experienced by the victim, causing underreporting. 6. Long-lasting consequences, such as the victim withdrawing from school activities.

Question 110

What is the difference between boys and girls when it comes to bullying?

Answer 110

Girls are more prone to experiencing indirect bullying, while boys usually fall victim to direct bullying.

Question 111

What are the factors that contribute to and maintains bullying in schools?

Answer 111

1. A victim who is either powerless or made to feel powerless by the bully. 2. An active perpetrator who displays power over the victim. 3. Bystanders who ignore the bullying. 4. School settings conductive to bullying due to the lack of discipline and good leadership.

Question 112

What are the 4 types of bystanders?

Answer 112

1. Assistants, who join in the bully’s side (bully supporter). 2. Reinforcers, who encourage bullies (bully supporter). 3. Passive bystanders, who merely watch what is happening and do nothing to stop the bullying. 4. Defenders, who stand up on behalf of the victim.

Question 113

What is the difference between male and female bystanders?

Answer 113

Male bystanders are more likely to defend when the bully or victim is male, whereas female bystanders are likely to be defenders when the bully or victim is female.

Question 114

What are the types of bullying?

Answer 114

1. Physical bullying: includes physical acts such as poking, punching, strangling, suffocating, burning, poisoning, biting, stabbing, forcing someone to hand over pocket money or possessions and demanding to copy someone’s homework. 2. Emotional bullying: this type of bullying is invisible and is hard to detect. It includes activities such as terrorising, defaming, humiliating, blackmailing someone. It also includes deliberately excluding someone from group activities, spreading rumours and name-calling. 3. Sexual bullying: can be verbal (making comments about someone’s body, telling inappropriate sexual jokes), physical (grabbing a female learner’s breasts, flashing of genital organs) or visual (displaying nude pictures).

Question 115

What are the categories of bullies?

Answer 115

1. Proactive bullies: they are more aggressive in nature and need no provocation to hurt another person. 2. Reactive bullies: they were previously victims themselves and retaliate by bullying other smaller and weaker people. 3. Proactive victims: they provoke fights with other children. If challenged, they are quick to cry and display exaggerated responses.

Question 115

What are the characteristics of bullies?

Answer 115

1. They tend to evolve into antisocial adults. 2. They are bigger and physically stronger than their victims. 3. Some may enter school armed with weapons. 4. They display aggressive and impulsive behaviour. 5. They have a positive attitude towards violence.

Question 116

List some of the anti-bullying strategies.

Answer 116

1. Teachers, administrators and learners must understand what constitutes bullying. 2. Teachers and school staff must identify potential bullies and victims. 3. Different forms of bullying must be identified and described. 4. The extent of bullying must be determined by means of observation. 5. Anti-bullying activities must become part of the school curriculum.

Question 117

What is Cyber-bullying?

Answer 117

Cyberbullying is the use of electronic forms of communication by an individual or group to engage repeatedly in sending or posting content about an individual or group that is deemed cruel, threatening and humiliating.

Question 118

How can Cyber-bullying be carried out?

Answer 118

Cyberbullying can be carried out by means of email, mobile phones, instant messaging, picture and video clips, chat rooms, video hosting and social networks (Twitter, Facebook).

Question 119

What are the types of cyber-bullying?

Answer 119

1. Flaming: online fights in which angry and vulgar texts are exchanged between users. 2. Denigration: sending or posting of gossip or rumours about someone in order to damage their reputation (“slut list”). 3. Cyber-stalking: threats of harm through repeated online harassment. 4. Happy slapping: a new type of bulling where a learner walk up to someone and slap them while another captures this on a mobile phone video.

Question 120

What are the possible reasons for cyber-bullying?

Answer 120

1. It may be done for revenge, for entertainment, out of boredom or to get a reaction from peers and victims. 2. It is carried out anonymously and the bully may think that he/she is getting away with the crime. 3. Learners who are too afraid to engage in “traditional” bullying may resort to cyber bullying because of anonymity. 4. A number of targets can be bullied in front of a large audience without significant risk.

Question 121

The characteristics of cyber-bullies.

Answer 121

1. Moral approval of bullying. 2. Feeling disconnected from school. 3. Lack of perceived support from peers and adults. 4. Below-average school grades. 5. Consumption of substances

Question 122

What are the categories of Drugs?

Answer 122

1. Central Nervous System Depressants (Downers): these drugs depress the functioning of the central nervous system and may cause sedation, drowsiness and come. Popular depressants are alcohol, heroine, morphine, painkillers and sleeping pills. Domestic depressants used by street kids are glue, petrol and nail varnish remover. 2. Central Nervous System Stimulants (Uppers): these drugs increase respiration, heart rate and alertness. Popular stimulants are amphetamines (Benzedrine), methamphetamine (ecstasy, ice, crack), appetite suppressants, caffeine, ephedrine (speed), cocaine and nicotine. 3. Hallucinogens: the most common used in South Africa are LSD, dagga and ketamine (a dissociative anaesthetic intended for animals but used as a date-rape drug). 4. Opiates: these provide pain relief, euphoria and sedation, and in increasing doses may induce come. Examples are heroin, morphine, opium and methadone.

Question 123

Opioid and Depressants.

Answer 123

1. A drug can be both an opioid and a depressant. Furthermore, all opioids are depressants, but not all depressants are opioids. 2. The opiates category refers to drugs that are derived from the opium poppy plant.

Question 124

A list of Popular Drugs.

Answer 124

1. Mandrax. 2. LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide). 3. Cocaine. 4. Dagga. 5. Heroin 6. Ecstasy or MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine).

Question 125

Discuss the drug Mandrax.

Answer 125

1. Developed and manufactured in the 60s to treat sleeping disorders. 2. Presented in tablet or powder form. 3. Tablets vary in colour (white, blue, green, dark brown). 4. Highly addictive and people become physically dependent and have withdrawal symptoms. 5. It can be swallowed or injected, but most often smoked. 6. Witpyp (white pipe) is when it is mixed with dagga and then smoked using a pipe. 7. Used to relieve tension, mental stress and anxiety, but some people become aggressive.

Question 125

Discuss the drug Cocaine.

Answer 125

1. Can be sniffed, smoked or injected. 2. Sometimes combined with others drugs like cannabis or heroin. 3. An alkaloid found in the leaves of the South American shrub erythroxylon coca. 4. Induces a sense of exhilaration by blocking neurotransmitter dopamine in the brain. 5. Effects can be felt immediately and last from 1-2 hrs. 6. In its purest form is a white product. 7. In powder form, it is a salt or hydrochloride. 8. May also be “cut” with other stimulants. 9. Most users become physically dependent.

Question 125

Discuss the drug LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide).

Answer 125

1. Common forms are microdots on paper. 2. It is colourless, tasteless and odourless, and soluble in water. 3. Used as a “club” drug in addition to ecstasy. 4. Effects can be felt with 30-40 mins after consummation and lasts up to 12 hrs. 5. Include intensified colours and distortions of vision and hearing. 6. Emotional reaction may include heightened self-awareness and ecstatic experiences. 7. Unpleasant reactions may include depression, dizziness, fear, paranoia and panic.

Question 125

Discuss the drug Nyaope.

Answer 125

1. Unique to South Africa. 2. Originates in Pretoria (Soshanguve, Atteridgeville, Mamelodi). 3. Also known as sugars (Durban), ungah (Western Cape), pinch (Mpumalanga), kataza (Johannesburg). 4. It is cheap and sells between R35-R40 per straw. 5. Mixed with dagga and heroin, but also with bicarbonate of soda, pool cleaner and rat poison. 6. Usually rolled in Rizla cigarette and smoked like a “zol”. 7. Users tend to be impulsive and get into habitual thieving to support their addiction. 8. Causes shortness of breath, compulsive eating, persistent coughing and aggression, and blisters around the mouth. 9. “Blue-tooth” is when users exchange blood through a syringe to share the high. 10. Whoonga (wukeka) describes the severe stomach cramps addicts experience when they withdraw from the drug.

Question 126

Discuss the drug Dagga.

Answer 126

1. The botanical name is Cannabis Sativa or cannabis. 2. “Gateway drug”: people start experimenting with it. 3. Resembles tobacco, with leaves shaped like a five-pointed star, which are smoked. 4. Cigarette smoking precede the smoking of dagga. 5. Mandrax is a popular combination. 6. It is dangerous as it contains more cancer-causing agents. 7. In the long run, it causes bronchitis and other respiratory disorders. 8. In males, it is associated with lower levels of testosterone, decreased sperm count, increased risk of testicular cancer. 9. In females, the menstrual cycle can be disrupted. 10. The psychoactive effects in low doses are mild euphoria and relaxion. 11. In high doses, delusions, hallucinations and psychosis are present.

Question 126

A list of New drugs on the market.

Answer 126

1. Tik. 2. Nyaope. 3. Krokodil. 4. Lean. 5. Performance-enhancing substances (PES).

Question 126

Discuss the drug Krokodil.

Answer 126

1. Appeared in Russia, 2002. 2. Includes crushed codeine tablets mixed with paint thinner, petrol. 3. The liquid is injected into a vein and has the same effects as heroin but at such a cheaper price. 4. Side effects are ruptured blood vessels, burning or swelling of the veins, rotten teeth falling, brain damage. FAs well as liver and kidney damage. 5. Named after the crocodile because of the green, scaly and bumpy appearance an addict’s skin takes on after injections.

Question 126

Discuss the drug Tik.

Answer 126

1. Crystal methamphetamine first identified in Cape Town in 2002. 2. Impacts on dopamine levels by overexciting the CNS. 3. Most popular drug among youths on the Cape Flats. 4. Addicts may display loss appetite, weight loss, not caring about personal hygiene, increased irritability, anxiety and insomnia.

Question 126

Discuss the drug Heroin.

Answer 126

1. Spreading rapidly among the school-going population. 2. Spreading rapidly among the school-going population. 3. Used as a recreational for intense euphoria, however, this disappears with increased tolerance. 4. Can be injected, sniffed or smoked. 5. Can be mixed with cocaine in a speedball. 6. It can also be dissolved in water for a more intense rush. 7. Highly addictive. 8. Addiction develops withing 2-3 weeks, and it is most difficult to quit than all illegal drugs. 9. The death rate among heroin addicts is 20 times higher than that among other drug addicts who do not use heroin.

Question 126

Discuss the drug Ecstasy or MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine).

Answer 126

1. Effects are usually felt within 30-60 mins after ingestion and last up to 24 hrs. 2. Effects are usually felt within 30-60 mins after ingestion and last up to 24 hrs. 3. Feeling of emotional closeness to others, as well as increased physical and emotional energy. 4. Loss of inhibition. 5. Increased vital signs including heart rate, body temperature and blood pressure, decreased appetite and sexual feelings. 6. Frequently used at so-called rave parties. 7. Side effects can be depression in the short-term. 8. Brain and liver damage in the long-term. 9. Regarded as the most impure drugs as the compositions of an ecstasy tablet can vary from pure MDMA to MDMA mixed with LSD, caffeine. 10. It is a powerful stimulant that can cause chronic dehydration, serious exhaustion and “Gloomy Tuesdays”. 11. It can cause blood supply to malfunction resulting in an abnormal heart rate.

Question 126

What is the difference between Cheese Boys and Mvonqas?

Answer 126

The Cheese Boys surf for fun while the Mvonqas surf to get away from the guards after stealing bags or cellphones from commuters.

Question 126

Discuss the drug Lean.

Answer 126

1. Cough syrups mixed with carbonated soft drinks, fruits juices or alcohol. 2. Codeine is a mild painkiller and falls within the same group as morphine. 3. Relatively cheap in South Africa and costs between R20-R30. 4. It is easy to obtain Stilpane from a pharmacy without a prescription. 5. Factors: accessibility, affordability, social influence, clandestine appeal. 6. Social media plays an important role in the use of lean.

Question 126

Discuss Retaliatory Hate Crimes.

Answer 126

1. It is sparked by “a desire to avenge a perceived degradation or assault on their group”. 2. The offender may act alone and will travel to the victim’s territory in order to retaliate. 3. They are committed after information or rumours, whether that are accurate or not, are circulated about a hate crime against the offender’s group.

Question 126

Discuss Thrill-seeking Hate Crimes.

Answer 126

1. Typically perpetrated by groups of youths or young adults who, in return, gain the approval of their friends and are labelled as “cool”. 2. These crimes are committed to alleviate boredom and to seek excitement. 3. Many youths who engage in such acts would not engage in such on their own, but are manipulated and encouraged by the leader. 4. The randomness of thrill-seeking makes it difficult for the police to apprehend the perpetrators, and therefore may go unpunished. 5. Homosexuals are the most frequent targets for thrill-seeking young males.

Question 126

The Profile of train surfers in South Africa.

Answer 126

1. Young men between the ages of 15 and 25 years. 2. Seldom younger than 14 years. 3. Come from traumatic family situations. 4. Poor school achievement. 5. Substance abuse. 6. Gang involvement.

Question 127

List the categories of Hate Crimes.

Answer 127

1. Thrill-seeking hate crimes. 2. Defensive (Reactive) hate crimes. 3. Mission hate crimes. 4. Retaliatory hate crimes.

Question 127

Discuss Mission Hate Crimes.

Answer 127

1. The rarest of hate crimes and consists of an act carried out by an individual on a mission, namely to “rid the world of evil” by disposing of the members of the target group. 2. The perpetrator is often psychotic and may have hallucinations and impaired ability to reason. 3. In the delusional state, the perpetrator may think that the world is conspiring against him/her and that he/she must seek revenge. 4. The mission is suicidal, and the perpetrator commits suicide after the source of frustration has been eliminated.

Question 127

Discuss Defensive (Reactive) Hate Crimes.

Answer 127

1. Perpetrators do not have to leave their neighbourhood as victimisation takes place in a local area, thus they feel that their neighbourhood is invaded by intruders. 2. The aim is to send a message to the intended victims and if there is no reaction to the warning, violence will be used to achieve a goal. 3. Perpetrators do not have a criminal history and there is no record of their being involved in previous hate crimes.

Question 127

What is Train Surfing?

Answer 127

1. Train Surfing (Staff Riding, Spiderman) is a popular adrenaline-boosting practice among teenagers worldwide. 2. Known as S-Bahn surfing in Germany. 3. It is an illegal activity that involves getting on the roof of a moving train and riding on it like a surfer would ride a surfing board in the sea.

Question 127

Discuss the drug Performance-enhancing substances (PES).

Answer 127

1. Children involved in sport use PES to enhance performance. 2. The pressure from parents, teachers and coaches on young children to perform is a factor in the use of PES.

Question 127

What is a Hate Crime?

Answer 127

Hate Crime is an offence by a person that is motivated on the basis of that person’s prejudice, bias or intolerance towards a victim because of race, gender, belief, culture, nationality, sexual orientation.

Question 127

What are the types of Hate Crimes?

Answer 127

1. Property crime is destroying the property of a person at which the hatred is directed, for example vandalism. 2. Hate crime committed against a person, for example corrective rape.

Question 127

What is Izikhotane?

Answer 127

Izikhotane (The Lickers) is a subculture in South Africa, of which is to burn money, destroy expensive clothing and shoes, and pour bottles of expensive alcohol on the ground.

Question 127

Why youths become involved in train surfing.

Answer 127

1. Excitement and entertainment. 2. To impress girls. 3. Substance abuse: mostly under the influence of alcohol or dagga to get the courage to surf. 4. Circumstances at home. 5. To prove manhood. 6. Acceptance. 7. Lack of leisure time activities. 8. Escape reality: When I surf, I feel free.

Question 127

What must the youth do to become part of the Izikhotane crew?

Answer 127

To become part of a crew, the youth must purchase, wear and destroy expensive clothes.

Question 127

Methods of train surfing.

Answer 127

1. Matrix: performed on the roof of the moving train and involves bending backwards to avoid deadly overhead electric cables. 2. Gravel or Isipharaphara: surfers hop in and out of a moving train by clinging to the hand rails and doors.

Question 128

The Profile of Izikhotane.

Answer 128

1. Black, middle-class youth. 2. Between the ages of 12 and 25 years. 3. Known for wearing wildly coloured branded clothes. 4. Engage in pantsula (dance) battles.

Question 129

What are the reasons for Izikhotane's occurence?

Answer 129

1. To earn respect. 2. Impress girls. 3. To claim a certain territory. 4. To have fun. 5. Aspirations for a better life (escape poverty and become successful). 6. Reaction formation.

Question 130

What are some of Izikhotane crew members role performances?

Answer 130

Each member in the crew has a certain role performance, for example, the dancer, logistician, leader and financial manager.