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exam Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the CDAA code of ethics

A

be responsible to patients
be responsible to the public
be responsible to the profession

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2
Q

what happens to dental professionals when they report suspicions of abuse

A

nothing will hjappen to the dental professional because they are considered to be mandated reporters

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3
Q

what is informed consent

A

consent given by patient after he or she is informed about all the details of a procedure

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4
Q

functions of the teeth

A

incisors - cuts food and lingual side is shaped like a shovel to guide food into the mouth

canines- cuts and tears food

premolars - buccal cusps hold food, while lingual cusps grind food

molars - used to chew or grind food

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5
Q

what are the bones of the head

A

frontal
parietal
sphenoid
ethmoid
temporal
nasal
lacrimal
vomer
mandible
zygomatic
inferior nasal conchae
maxilla

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6
Q

what are the sutures of the head

A

coronal - connects frontal to parietal
lambdoidal - connects parietal to occipital
sagittal - connects both parietal
squamous - connects parietal to temporal

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7
Q

what are the parts of the tmj

A

glenoid fossa, articular eminence, condyloid process

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8
Q

what are disorders of the tmj

A

acute masticatory muscle - muscle inflammation and spasms

articular disc derangement - disc is displaced

extrinisc trauma - dislocation of joint

joint disease - degenerative and inflammatory arthritis

chronic mandibular hypomobility - damage to joint resulting in limited movements

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9
Q

what are the muscles of the face

A

orbicularis oris, buccinator, mentalis, zygomatic major

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10
Q

what are the muscles of mastication

A

temporalis, masseter, internal and external pterygoid

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11
Q

what are the muscles of the mouth

A

mylohyoid, digastric, stylohyoid, geniohyoid

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12
Q

what are the muscles of the soft palate

A

palatoglossus, palatopharyngeal

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13
Q

what are the salivary glands and the ducts associated with it

A

parotid gland - attached to stensens duct and is lcoated on the sides of the cheek

submandibular gland. - attached to whartons ducts and is located on the side of the jaw

sublingual gland - atatched to batholins duct and is located under the tongue

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14
Q

what are the sinuses

A

maillary sinuses - located in the cheeks

frontal sinuses - located on the forehead

ethmoid sinuses - located near the nsoe bridge

sphenoid sinuses - located near the temples

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15
Q

dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

a hereditary conditions that affects formation of the dentin

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16
Q

fissured tongue

A

top of the tongue is amrked by deep pits and fissures or grooves which can get irritated when food gets stuck

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17
Q

tori

A

bony overgrowth

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18
Q

exostoses

A

bening bony growht projecting outward from the outside surface of the jaw

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19
Q

tetracycline staining

A

staining of dentition due to treatment with tetracycline during tooth formation

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20
Q

dental fluorosis

A

mottled enamel - ingestion ofe xcessive fluoride

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21
Q

ulcer

A

a defect of the mucosa that results in a punched out area (like a crater)

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22
Q

erosion of soft tissue

A

shallow defect in the mucosa

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23
Q

abscess

A

a localized collection of pus in an area

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24
Q

cyst

A

a closed sac that is ligned with epithelium and contains fluid or semisolid material

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25
blisters
filled with a watery fluid
26
types of bacteria
coccci - spherical bacteria that cause: pharyngeitis, tonsilitis, pneumona bacilli - rod shaped bacteria that cause: tuberculosis spirochetes - spiral shaped bacteria that can cause: lyme disease, syphilis
27
spores
bacteria that is highly resistant
28
fungi
organisms that lack chlorophyll and can cause candida
29
viruses
can live and multiply only inside an appropriate host cell, it invades the cell and replicates and destroys host cell
30
what are the modes of transmission
direct transmission - from one person to another indirect transmission - from one person to an object, and from object to another person airborne transmission - spread through droplets of moisture parenteral transmission - transmission through cuts or punctures blood-borne transmission - pathogens carried in the blood and transmitted to others food and water transmission - through contaminated food that has not been cooked properly fecal-oral transmission - when proper sanitation procedures are not followed
31
chain of infection
mode of spread portal of entry susceptible host pathogenic agent reservoir portal of exit
32
what is considered for dosages of medications
age of patient weight time of day aptient tolerance
33
what are analgesics
for relief of acute pain, chronic pain, postop psin
34
what are antibiotics
can directly kill an infecting organism
35
why are pre-medications used
prevents the bacterial colonization while undergoing dental treatment for patients with prosthetic cardiac valves, congenital heart disease
36
superscription
patients name, address, weight and age
37
inscription
main body of the prescription that includes drugs name, form, dose and number of tablets
38
subscription
directions to the pharmacist for information included in the label
39
signature
instructions for patient on how to take medicine, when ti take it and how much
40
methods of pre-cleaning
ultrasonic cleaning - used to loosen and remove debris from insturments and reduces hand injury
41
methods of disinfection
automated washers - recirculates hot water and detergents to remove organic materials then is automatically dried
42
methods of steri
steam autoclave - sterilizes by means of steam under pressure unsaturated chemical vapor - combination of chemical and water vapor dry heat - heats up air and transfers onto instruments ethylene oxide - uses ethylene gas liquid chemical - sterilizes insturments that cannot be put through heat
43
types of waste
general hazardous contamianted infectious blood and blood soakes pathologic sharps
44
management of an exposure incident
1. document the route of exposure and circumstances 2. identify and document the source individual if possible 3. request the source individual has their blood tested for hiv 4. advise employee to hace their blood tested for hiv 5. provide medically indicated prophylactic treatmetn 6. provide appropriate counselling 7. evaluate reported illnesses
45
who owns patient records
the dentist
46
what should be completed when updating patient records
personal information health and dental hystory, vital signs, medications, med alerts intra oral and extra oral examination diagnoses oral hygiene indicies and periodontal notations diagnostic records consent forms, financial and insurance information treatment plan and progress notes
47
explain the rationale for obtaining and recording vital signs
the dental team is confirming that the patients health status is at a level of wellbeing before the procedure starts
48
whats the purpose of a visual evaluation
allows the dentist to determine an overall assesment by checking the soft tissues and tooth structures
49
what is the purpose of a palpation test
uses the fingers and hands to feel the texture and consistency of the hard and soft tissue
50
whats the purpose of a preliminary impression
used to create an accurate reproduction of the teeth and surrounding tissues
51
what is the purpose of a final impression
used to produce the exact detail of the teeth and surrounding tissues
52
what is the purpose of a bite registration
taken by the dentist to produce reproductionof the occlusal relationship of the max and mand teeht when the mouth is occluded
53
what are components of the xray machine
tubehead metal housing tubehead seal xray tube transformer pid extension arm control panel
54
what is quality in relation to xrays
describes the energy or penetrating ability of the xray beam controlled by kv
55
what is the quantity in relation to xrays
refers to the number of xrays produced is measured by ma
56
what type of changes can exposure radiation do to the human body
cumulative effect - repeated exposure where some tissues are damaged and some can repair some of the damage acute effect - occurs when a alrge dose of radiation is absorbed in a short period chronic effect - occurs when small amounts of radiation are absorbed repeatedly over a long period genetic - damage to genetic cells are passed on to succeeding generations somatic - xrays can damage somatic tissue but damage from somatic effect is not passed onto future generations
57
what do periapical images show and rationale for their use
shows the entire totoh from the occlusal surface to the apex used to diagnose pathologic conditions of the tooth, root and bone
58
what do bitewings show and rationale for their usr
shows the upper and lower teeth in occlusion is used to detect interproximal decay, recurrent decay etc
59
what do panoramic images show and the rationale for their use
allows the dentist to view the entire dentition and related structures in a single image
60
what pre-exposure information is needed to be said to patient
risks and benefits of radiographic procedures person who will be exposing rads number and type of radiographs consequences of not having the rads alternative diagnostic aids
61
what is, signs and symptoms of syncope
caused by an imbalance in the distribution of blood to the brain causing patient to lose consciousness can be due to: - stress - fear - same position for a long time - skipping meals
62
what is posutral hypotension and its signs and symptoms
a level of altered consciousness that may lead to loss of consciousness occurs due to insufficient blood flow to the brain and can occurs to a patient immediately after sudden change in positioning
63
what is angina
severe chest pain because the heart msucle is deprived of adequate oxygen
64
acute myocardial infarction
heart attack occurs because of insurfficient oxygen supply to muscles of the heart causing damage
65
cerebrvasculat accident
stroke, due to interruption of blood flow to the brain
66
hyperventilation
an increase in the frequency of depth of respiration
67
asthma attack
a pulmonary disorder characterized by attacks of sudden onset during which the patients airways narrow
68
allergic reaction
altered state of reactivity that occurs in body tissues in response to an antigen
69
epileptic seixure
a neurologic disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of seizures
70
diabetes mellitus
a metabolic disorder that results from disturbances in the bodys normal insulin mechanism hyperglycemia - abnormal increase in glucose levels hypoglycemia - abnormal decrease in glucose levels
71
nerve innervations of teeth max
anterior superior alveolar nerve - innervates buccal surface of anterior teeth middle superior alveolar nerve- innervates premolars and mesial of the 6 posterior superior alveolar nerve- innervates distal of the 6 and all molars infraorbital nerve - innervates anteriors and premolars nasopalatine - innervates lingual of all anteriors greater palatine - innervates lingual of premolars and molars
72
what can cause adverse reactions from anesthetic
injecting into a blood vessel infected areas - can delay effects of anesthetic localized and toxic reactions systemic reactions temporary numbness paresthesia
73
what are the different types of sedation and anesthesia
inhalation sedation intravenous sedation general anesthesia
74
contraindications for administration of sedation and anesthesia
nausea and vertigo behavioural challenges chronic pulmonary disorders cardiac diseases first trimester critically ill patients
75
indications and contraindications of a saliva ejector
indications - preventive procedures, controls saliva accumulation under the dam contraindications - not powerful enough to remove solid debris
76
indications of HVE
keeps the mouth free of saliva, blood and debris retracts the tongue and cheek reduces bacterial aerosols
77
classification of cavities
class I - pits and fissures of posterior teeth class II - proximals of posterior teeth class III - proximals of incisors and canines class IV - proximals of incisors and canines and the incisal edge class V - gingival third of all teeth class VI - cusp tips
78
what are the functions and benefits of liners
palced in the deep areas of a cavity prep to provide a barrier between the tooth and resto materials
79
types of cavity liners
calcium hydroxide - stimulates production of secondary dentin but cannot be used on enamel glass ionomer - releases fluoride and can bond onto enamel and dentin
80
what are the functions and benefits of bases
designed to provide pulpal defense there are three types - protective, insulating and sedative
81
types of protective bases
placed to protect the pulp before the restoration is placed polycarboxylate - can be placed under all types of direct and indirect restos
82
types of insulating bases
placed in a deep prep to protect the tooth from thermal shock zinc oxide eugenol - cannot be used uner composite resin, glass ionomer and other resins zinc phosphate - phosphoric acid can be irritating to pulp
83
types of sedative bases
helps soother a pulp that has been damaged by decay glass ionomer - releases fluoride
84
indications and contraindications of amalgam
indications - primary and permanent teeth - used in stess bearing areas - small to medium sized cavities - patients commitment to personal hygiene is poor - moisture control is problematic contraindications - esthetics is not important - history of allergy to mercury - cost
85
what is amalgam composed of
alloy powders and silver, tin,copper, zinc and mercury
86
indications and contraindications of composite resin
indications - class I-V restorations - surface defects - closure of diastema - estehtic recontouring of teeth contraindications - patients with high risk caries - poor roal hygiene - heavy occlusal stress - cost
87
temp resto materials
irm
88
what are the side effects which may result from tooth whitening
sensitivity and tissue irritation
89
what are factors that affect occlusion
developmental causes environmental causes acquired causes trauma
90
what are the causes of periodontal disease
bacterial plaque calcium deposits calculus
91
what are symptoms of periodontal disease
- red, swollen gingiva - bleeding gingiva - loose or separating teeth - pain and pressure when chewing - pus around the teeth
92
describe the caries process
a susceptible tooth and a diet rich in fermentable carbs
93

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