Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

OTR and OTA supervision

A

May be direct, monitored or consultative.
Usually requires weekly consultation.
Must discuss treatment plan modifications.
Discuss goal revisions.
Discuss progress and discharge plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

effective collaboration and team building are the result of satisfying 3 areas:

A

(a) ministration, which leads to mutual respect; (b) mastery or effective performance; and (c) maturation or personal growth and professional socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

OT priorities

A

Encourage occupational therapy team partner to share ideas/opinions (Communication)

•Give timely, sensitive, instructive feedback to occupational therapy team partner about performance (Communication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

OTR priorities

A

Know when to seek out information-support from occupational therapy team partner (Teamwork)
•Demonstrate flexibility for working effectively with different occupational therapy team partners (Teamwork)
•Engage in ongoing professional development to enhance the occupational therapy team partnership (Roles and Responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

barriers to professional development

A
  • seniority mindset
  • hierarchical mindset
  • scheduling and distance conflicts
  • time and financial restraints
  • experience and requirements
  • teachability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tips for overcoming barriers with OT/OTA collaboration

A
  • explore competencies, strengths/weaknesses, learning style
  • understand roles
  • be an active partner
  • preferred communication and feedback
  • clear expectations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

professional supervision binder

A

PROTECT YOURSELF, YOUR PATIENTS, YOUR LICENSE, and YOUR CAREER

•Build a binder that includes the most up-to-date guidelines regarding supervision of OTA/R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

staff recruitment

A

Recruitment and selection is the process of identifying the need for a job, defining the requirements of the position and the job holder, advertising the position and choosing the most appropriate person for the job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

staff recruitment process

A

stage 1: define requirements
stage 2: attract potential employees
stage 3: select right people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OT application

A
Basic Skills Testing
Certification Verifications
Licensure Infractions/Violations
Reference Checking
Specialty Competencies
Ability Tests
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

recruitment metrics

A
Applicants-Per-Opening
•Application Completion Rate
•Cost-of-Vacancy
•Time-to-Hire
•Offer Acceptance Rate
•Cost-Per-Hire
•Quality-of-Hire •Employee Retention Rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

workforce forecasting

A

forecast 2020-30: demand for OT services will outpace supply of OTs
greatest shortages in arizona, hawaii, and utah

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clinical considerations for recruitment

A

Does your state practice act require specific clinical certifications? (i.e. Modalities)
•how many assistants can each therapist supervise?
•Does your clinic, practice setting, or organization require LINE OF SITE supervision for Assistants and/or Students?
•Organization policies surrounding staff liability and required staffing models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

salary negotiation

A

is a process where one party (usually the employee) negotiates the amount of their pay, income, earnings, commission, salary, wages, wage remuneration, annual review, or salary raise with another party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

salary negotiation data

A

90% of employers have never retracted an offer due to negotiation or counter offer•74% of employers have room to increase their FIRST offer by up to 10% during negotiations•80% of students and new-grads who negotiate are at least partially successful•Only 38% of new-grads feel confident in negotiating an offer•Only 34% of women and 44% of men negotiate salary offer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what can be negotiated??

A

everything!

  • salary
  • schedule
  • hours worked
  • benefits
  • student loan repayment
  • perks
  • bonuses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

salary negotiation tips

A

Be Prepared, Polite, and Assertive
Only Negotiate AFTER an offer has been made
•Negotiate based on DATA
•Research the market rates in your GEOGRAPHICAL area for both new-grads and experienced therapists
•Lead with TALENT, not NEED - Know your worth in terms of experience, certifications, skills
•Be able to explain your current salary and needs for expected compensation based on how it may improve company margin or patient outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

staff development

A

A wide variety of specialized training, clinical and/or formal education, or advanced professional learning intended to help administrators, clinicians, and other healthcare professionals improve their professional knowledge, competence, skill, and effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

just right challenge in staff development

A

skills + interests = relevant work tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

just right challenge benefits

A

Acts as a motivator•Provides sense of accomplishment•Decreases stress•Builds self esteem•Improves morale•Discovers previously unknown capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

data for creating the just right challenge

A
Personality Tests (Myers-Briggs)
•Staff skills observation•Annual appraisals
•Established Clinical Foci
•Staff feedback
•1 on 1 meetings with individual staff
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

employee/staff retention

A

Employee retention refers to the ability of an organization to retain its employees and the programs relating to the efforts by which retention is achieved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

attrition reasons

A

20% - Bad pay and inadequate benefits18% - Secured a better position17% - Unclear regarding upward mobility with current company10% - Poor work environment/culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

staff retention strategies

A

Appropriate and thorough orientation experience
•Listen to staff feedback about needs, wants, stressors, safety, and quality improvement.
•Appoint duties appropriately to staff according to skills sets and interests
•Clearly Explain & Delegate Responsibilities
•Provide Adequate Resources
•Monitor Performance Periodically and Fairly
•Give Guidance where needed
Make Deadlines/Goals Achievable
•If an employee is unsuccessful: mentor, support, educate, remediate
•Reassign task or divide tasks when needed
•Staff Appreciation: Individual and Team
•Provide Constructive Feedback
•Opportunities for Advancement. & Internal recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

examples of employee retention and engagement activities

A

OT Month •Interprofessional Education and Profession Promotion Opportunities
•Staff Mentorship Programs
•Leadership Training Programs
•Research ,Publishing, Advanced Clinical Skills Certifications
•Ongoing Staff AppreciationActivities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

performance appraisal

A

systematic evaluation of the performance of employees and to understand the abilities of a person for further growth and development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

annual appraisal includes

A
Patient Outcomes Data Review
•Clinical Skills Competencies
•Documentation Quality and Timeliness
•Interprofessional Communication
•Client Satisfaction
•Attitude towards performing work duties
•Agent of Change
•Attendance, Punctuality, Flexibility
•Amount of Mentorship/Assistance Needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

advantages of performance appraisals

A
Systematic Checks in Work Quality
•Promotion
•Compensation Assessment
•Staff Development and Motivation
•Selection Validation
•Update expectations and policies
•Construct performance improvement plan
•Hear employee opinions, suggestions /concern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

effective communication skills

A
  1. verbal: respectful and professional
  2. nonverbal: eye contact, tone of voice
  3. effective listening: paraphrase to ensure understanding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

emotional intelligence

A

capacity to be aware of, control, and express one’s emotions

handle interpersonal relationships judiciously and empathetically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Daniel Goleman’s domains of emotional intelligence

A
self awareness
self regulation
motivation
empathy
social skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

potential causes of conflicts

A

A. Unclear Expectations or Guidelines
B. Poor Communication
C. Unclear Limits of Power
D. Different Attitudes/Interests/Values Related to Practice
E. Individual or Group Conflicts of Interest
F. Operational or Staffing Changes
G. Accidental oversight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

unresolved conflict may lead to

A
Emotional distress
Poor retention
Poor communication
Decreased effectiveness
Decreased efficiency
Poor client satisfaction
Poor reputation
Legal action
34
Q

communication styles and conflict

A

aggressive: dominating, critical, controlling
passive: indifferent, avoid confrontation

passive aggressive: passive on the surface but feel differently

assertive: most effective, open without overbearing, express needs and ideas but also considerate

35
Q

basic strategies for conflict resolution

A
avoidance
stand your ground
give in
compromise
collaborate
36
Q

5 sequential steps of the disciplinary process

A
  1. counseling
  2. oral warning
  3. written warning
  4. suspension
  5. discharge

*the process may be modified based on the severity and if they have completed their probationary period

37
Q

counseling and disciplinary process

A

counseling implementation
develop a solution for the problem in conjunction with the employee (seek outside counsel)
decide on a resolution and timeline
follow-up

38
Q

guidelines for fair and effective discipline

A
Be reasonable 
•Avoid making examples
•Follow the rules consistently
•Respect privacy
•Avoid favoritism
•Act only on clear evidence
•Avoid dwelling on history
39
Q

equal pay act (EPA) of 1963

A

protects men and women who perform substantially equal work in the same establishment from sex-based wage discrimination

40
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

41
Q

Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) of 1967

A

protects individuals who are 40 years of age or older

42
Q

Title I and V of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

A

prohibit employment discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities in the private sector, and in state and local governments

43
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A

World’s first comprehensive civil rights law for people with disabilities

The Act prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment (Title I), in public services (Title II), in public accommodations (Title III) and in telecommunications (Title IV)

George H.W. Bush

44
Q

New freedom initiative

A

2001 - George W. Bush promote the full participation of people with disabilities in all areas of society by increasing:
•access to assistive and universally designed technologies
•expanding educational and employment opportunities
•promoting full access to community life

45
Q

Title I of ADA

A

prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in all employment practices.

It is necessary to understand several important ADA definitions to know who is protected by the law and what constitutes illegal discrimination.

46
Q

individual with a disability - definition

A

Under the ADA it is a person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
•Major life activities are activities that an average person can perform with little or no difficulty such as walking, breathing, seeing, hearing, speaking, learning, and working

47
Q

qualified individual with a disability - definition

A

someone who satisfies skill, experience, education, and other job-related requirements of the position held or desired, and who, with or without reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of that position

48
Q

reasonable accommodations

A

making existing facilities used by employees readily accessible to and usable by persons with disabilities
•job restructuring
•modification of work schedules
•providing additional unpaid leave
•reassignment to a vacant position
•acquiring or modifying equipment or devices
•adjusting or modifying examinations, training materials, or policies
•providing qualified readers or interpreter

49
Q

an employer is not required to lower ___ to make an accommodation

A

production standards

50
Q

undue hardship

A

An employer is required to make a reasonable accommodation to a qualified individual with a disability unless doing so would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the employer’s business.

•Undue hardship means an action that requires significant difficulty or expense when considered in relation to factors such as a business’ size, financial resources, and the nature and structure of its operation

51
Q

drug and alcohol use

A

Employees and applicants currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs are not protected by the ADA, when an employer acts on the basis of such use.
•Tests for illegal use of drugs are not considered medical examinations and, therefore, are not subject to the ADA’s restrictions on medical examinations.
•Employers may hold individuals who are illegally using drugs and individuals with alcoholism to the same standards of performance as other employees

52
Q

sexual harassment

A

Sexual harassment is a form of discrimination that violates Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
•Unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when this conduct explicitly or implicitly affects an individual’s employment, unreasonably interferes with an individual’s work performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment

53
Q

nature of harassment

A
  • The victim as well as the harasser may be a woman or a man. The victim does not have to be of the opposite sex.
  • The harasser can be the victim’s supervisor, an agent of the employer, a supervisor in another area, a co-worker, or a non-employee.
  • The victim does not have to be the person harassed but could be anyoneaffected by the offensive conduct. •Unlawful sexual harassment may occur without economic injury to or discharge of the victim.
  • The harasser’s conduct must be unwelcome
54
Q

prevention of sexual harassment

A

The victim should:
•inform the harasser directly that the conduct is unwelcome and must stop. •use any employer complaint mechanism

Prevention is the best tool to eliminate sexual harassment in the workplace, employers are encouraged to:
•provide sexual harassment training to their employees
•establish an effective complaint or grievance process
•take immediate and appropriate action when an employee complains.

55
Q

retaliation of sexual harassment

A

It is unlawful to retaliate against an individual for opposing employment practices that discriminate based on sex or for filing a discrimination charge, testifying, or participating in any way in an investigation, proceeding, or litigation under Title VII.

56
Q

Health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)

A
  • federal privacy standards to protect patients’ medical records and other health info
  • provide patients with access to their medical records and more control over how they personal health info is used and disclosed
57
Q

patient protections

A
  • access to medical records (within 30 days)
  • notice of privacy practices
  • limits on use of personal medical information
58
Q

prohibited inquires and examinations

A

Before making an offer of employment, an employer may not ask job applicants about the existence, nature, or severity of a disability.
•Includes “temporary disability” such as pregnancy.

  • Applicants may be asked about their ability to perform job functions.
  • A job offer may be conditioned on the results of a medical examination, but only if the examination is required for all entering employees in the same job category. Medical examinations of employees must be job-related and consistent with business necessity
59
Q

illegal interview questions

A

In most interviewing situations, the questions that you will be asked are standard and relevant to the position for which you are applying. In a rare situation, you may be asked questions that make you feel uncomfortable or seem irrelevant to the position at hand.
•State and federal laws regulate the type of questions an employer can ask.
•Illegal questions: marital status, family, or religious beliefs
•An exception may be if you are applying for a counselor or teacher position in a religious organization

60
Q

3 choices for responding

A
  1. answer directly
  2. refuse to answer
  3. non-direct method
61
Q

types of liability and risk

A
  • fraud and abuse
  • malpractice
  • health management
  • death or injury
  • worker’s comp
  • disability
  • HIPAA
  • cyber theft, identity theft
  • facility and supplies
  • disaster preparedness
62
Q

managing liability and risk

A
  • Ensure adequate insurance coverage
  • Be aware of organization/system guidelines, policies, and laws
  • Be vigilant in everyday practice by developing good habits for organization, documentation, and reporting
  • As a manager: Ensure that policies are adequately documented, clear, and understood, that processes are implemented on regular timetables with adequate accountability, that initial and ongoing staff training opportunities are available, that policies, procedures, and documents are re-assessed regularly
63
Q

typical job search flow

A
graduate
pass the NBCOT exam
apply for state OT license
apply for OT positions
interview
begin
64
Q

interview process

A
live meetings
references contact
video submission
clinical case studies
quizzes
65
Q

interviewing

A

if your qualifications are a match based on your application and/or resume to the needs of the organization, you can expect to be invited for an interview

may compete against others

have a list of questions ready to demonstrate interest

ask how soon you can follow up

send ty note

66
Q

what is a resume?

A
  • A brief summary of highlighted accomplishments that show your potential to prospective employers
  • Typical sections for a new graduate
  • Education
  • Awards and recognition
  • Current experience in the field
  • Relevant prior experience
  • Activities related to the field
67
Q

why use a resume?

A

compete for a job interview
differentiate yourself from other candidates
highlight what you do best

68
Q

resume details

A
  • used for clinical positions
  • 2 page max
  • academics, employments, awards and honors, leadership, research, certifications
69
Q

curriculum vitae details

A
  • used for academic positions
  • no length maximum
  • common components: academic, employment, awards and honors, training/continuing ed, mentorship, courses taught
70
Q

According to managers, the most successful sources for recruiting new employees include:

A
Employee referrals (63%)
•Company websites (58%)
•Career Fairs (51%)
•Social Networks (50%)
•Job boards (39%)
•Staffing Firms (39%
71
Q

Virtual and In-person networking opportunities at the national and state level

A
National Level- AOTA
Special Interest Sections
CommunOT
Specialty and National Conferences
Special events, such as OT Hill Day

State Level- SCOTA or other state OT associations
Districts and special events (CEU meetings, OT Hill Day, etc.)
Discussion forums
Annual Conference

72
Q

LinkedIn

A
  • most popular social media website for professionals
  • provides opportunities to connect with employers. colleagues, and recruiters directly
  • more than 95% of recruiters use it regularly
73
Q

Income-drive repayment (IDR)

A

-Monthly loan payments at an affordable amount based on income and household

74
Q

loan deferment

A

Temporarily qualify to not make payments due to financial hardship, public service, or education. Interest may accrue

75
Q

loan forbearance

A

Temporary approval by lender/servicer to delay payments for time limit while interest accrues

76
Q

loan consolidation

A

combine multiple student loan payments into one loan

77
Q

Loan Forgiveness Options

A
  • Indian Health Service loan repayment program
  • Public Service Loan Forgiveness (PSLF)
  • AmeriCorps, Peace Corps, and the military
78
Q

microsoft budget tool

A

my money tool - free

feels like an integrates with other office tools

79
Q

Intuit/turbotax tool mint

A

free; #1 most downloaded personal finance app

integrates with turbotax and other financial software

80
Q

Quicken Budget tool

A

starter $35.99

integrates with quickbooks and other sophisticated financial software for personal and professional use

81
Q

South Carolina OT requirements - licensure

A

Application (online or application) - $135 application fee •NBCOT Scores or Certification
•Social security card AND valid I’d
•Passport Photo
•Notarized Affidavit of Eligibility form and Certifying Statement form
•Legal documentation of name change (if applicable due to marriage, etc.)
•Jurisprudence Exam (examines your knowledge of the South Carolina OT Practice Act) once application is complete

ongoing: 8 continuing ed hours

82
Q

OTKE

A

(OT knowledge exams) are cohort-based online examinations designed exclusively for program director’s to assist with analyzing students’ performance related to the validated domain and task statements for entry-level practice… across the country

  • Designed as a knowledge exam prior to participation in full time Level II fieldwork
  • Based on the blueprint of the NBCOT certification exam and its validated domains and tasks
  • Not a predictor of success on the certification exam
  • Useful as a guide for determining gaps in knowledge