Exam 2 Flashcards
(394 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT an effector?
A
a. the brain
2
Q
The neurotransmitter responsible for translating action potentials into mechanical actions at muscles is
A
c. acetylcholine.
3
Q
Alpha motor neurons in the spinal cord communicate with muscle fibers by releasing acetylcholine, which influences muscle activity by
A
b. directly causing muscle contractions.
4
Q
The primary interaction of muscles and the nervous system involves the alpha motor neurons, which originate in the _______, exit through the _______, and terminate in the muscles
A
d. spinal cord; ventral root
5
Q
A laboratory dog has had surgery to separate the spinal components of its motor system from the cortical and subcortical components. Which of the following best describes the motor abilities of this animal?
A
c. The dog demonstrates reflexive withdrawal of its foot in response to sudden stimulation.
6
Q
When a voluntary movement such as contracting one’s right biceps is generated, what other signals, if any, must accompany this command?
A
a. A signal to antagonist muscles, such as the right triceps, to relax.
7
Q
Hemiplegia is the
A
a. paralysis of the side of the body that is contralateral to the injured brain region.
8
Q
Loss of blood flow in the _______ is the most common cause of hemiplegia
A
c. middle cerebral artery
9
Q
The loss of a motor skill that cannot be attributed to hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, or motivation is called
A
c. apraxia.
10
Q
After suffering a focal brain injury, a patient has great difficulty in pantomiming particular motor actions such as turning a key in a lock. Because other problems like hemiplegia, muscle weakness, sensory deficits, and lack of motivation have been ruled out, your diagnosis would be
A
b. apraxia.
11
Q
Which of the following is NOT a part of the basal ganglia?
A
b. the claustrum
12
Q
Lesions to this region of the cerebellum lead to postural instability and difficulty in keeping one’s eyes fixed on a visual object despite head or body movements
A
b. the vestibulocerebellum
13
Q
Corticospinal fibers originate primarily in the
A
d. primary motor cortex.
14
Q
The term decussation refers to
A
c. the crossing of nerve fibers from one side of the body to the other.
15
Q
The excitatory command to contract the biceps muscle of the arm is normally accompanied by an inhibitory command to relax the antagonist triceps muscle. If this inhibitory signal failed to occur,
A
a. the passive stretching of the triceps would trigger a stretch reflex that would return the arm to its original position.
16
Q
Neurons in each half of the cerebellum synapse on _______ targets in the thalamus and other subcortical structures, and therefore regulate the effectors on the _______ side of the body.
A
c. contralateral; ipsilateral
17
Q
Single-cell recording studies have indicated that the _______ may be especially important in the control of internally guided motor sequences, whereas the _______ may be especially important in the control of externally guided motor sequences.
A
a. supplementary motor cortex; premotor cortex
18
Q
The pyramidal motor tract carries signals from the motor cortex of each cerebral hemisphere to _______ side(s) of the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal motor tracts carry signals from various subcortical structures to _______ side(s) of the spinal cord.
A
c. the contralateral; both the ipsilateral and contralateral
19
Q
Lesions to the pyramidal motor tract would produce difficulty in moving effectors on which side of the body?
A
a. the contralateral side
20
Q
One major difference between the pyramidal and the extrapyramidal motor tracts is their points of origin. The pyramidal tracts carry messages from _______ to the spinal cord, whereas the extrapyramidal tracts carry messages from _______ to the spinal cord.
A
a. cortical structures; subcortical structures
21
Q
Simple reflexive motor responses to external stimuli rely primarily on the function of the _______, whereas motor behaviors that are only minimally dependent on such external cues rely primarily on the function of the _______.
A
c. spinal cord; motor cortex
22
Q
Sherrington (1947) surgically disconnected spinal motor neurons from cortical and subcortical motor centers in laboratory animals. Which of the following statements is true about the subsequent motor behavior of these animals?
A
b. Reflexive responses were intact, but complex voluntary movements were disrupted.
23
Q
Neurons in the spinal cord that can mediate sequences of motor actions even in the absence of external sensory feedback signals are called
A
b. central pattern generators.
24
Q
Which of the following types of motor behavior probably relies most on the function of a central pattern generator?
A
a. walking
25
Studies of deafferentation and its effect on movement control in humans and other species demonstrate that
a. movement depends on internal mental representations of the consequences of motor commands.
26
The concept of endpoint control refers to the observation that voluntary muscle events
b. are programmed to result in the displacement of an effector based on its desired final location.
27
Single-cell recording studies of the motor control of reaching movements have demonstrated that neurons in the motor cortex are selectively active based on the
b. direction in which a reaching movement is generated.
28
Using single-cell recording, a researcher isolates a neuron in the motor cortex of a monkey that is extremely active when the monkey moves its arm from left to right. In subsequent trials, the animal is required to move its arm from the starting to the ending locations diagrammed here.
b. A and B
| arrows moving diagonally from left to right
29
With regard to motor cortex, a population vector is the
c. total number of neurons that are tuned to the same preferred direction.
30
Which of the following statements best describes the population vector associated with a reaching movement from left to right?
d. The population vector shifts from left to right before the arm begins to move.
31
The fact that the population vector recorded in the motor cortex precedes the corresponding reaching movement indicates that motor cortex activity
a. is primarily involved in the planning of movement.
32
When you first learn how to execute the complex motor sequence that comprises a slam dunk in basketball, a circuit including the _______ is active. After much practice, once you have learned the sequence well, a second circuit involving the _______ is active.
b. lateral premotor area; supplementary motor area
33
The _______ seem(s) particularly important in the control and planning of complex motor sequences as opposed to simple movements.
c. motor cortex regions in the prefrontal lobes
34
In the period of time immediately following focal brain injury to the supplementary motor cortex, patients may reach out and grasp objects with the affected arm when they have not been asked to do so, or even when they have been explicitly told not to do so. This is an example o
d. alien hand syndrome.
35
In the days following her stroke, Patient E cannot refrain from reaching out and grasping nearby objects even when she has been asked not to do so. This syndrome probably is the result of the abnormal dominance of the __________ loop.
c. medial supplementary motor area
36
Franz and colleagues (1996) asked a patient who had had his corpus callosum surgically severed to draw figures like the ones here, each simultaneously with a different hand. Compared to neurologically intact control participants, they found that this patient
a. was better at producing movements simultaneously with both hands, even when they differed in direction.
37
Chapin’s early work on a brain-machine interface (BMI) in rats used an online population vector that matched the _______ of the rats’ movement.
b. force
38
Once a BMI takes on the ability to reward a rat that was previously rewarded by pressing a lever, how will the rat’s lever-pressing rate change?
d. Lever-pressing will eventually stop.
39
Which of the following sets of elements is sufficient to produce an effective brain-machine interface?
c. an electrode array to record neural activity, a prosthetic limb, and computer software that can interpret intended actions from neural activity
40
One limitation of most BMI systems is that they
b. use only visual feedback and not somatosensory feedback.
41
Parkinson’s disease results from cell death in the _______, which is a part of the _______.
b. substantia nigra; basal ganglia
42
A patient has damage to the basal ganglia, particularly within the striatum, and demonstrates both chorea and hyperkinesia. What is your diagnosis?
b. Huntington’s disease
43
What disorder is characterized by a loss of dopaminergic fibers in the substantia nigra, which results in deficits in initiating voluntary movements, bradykinesia, and the progressive emergence of a resting tremor?
b. Parkinson’s disease
44
Hyperkinesia is to _______ as hypokinesia is to _______.
b. Huntington’s disease; Parkinson’s disease
45
One proposed role of dopamine in the context of motor learning via the basal ganglia is that dopamine release
c. in the basal ganglia results in a combination of stimulatory and inhibitory influences that reinforces particular motor actions.
46
Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of a process related to basal ganglia influence/striatal disinhibition?
d. Inhibition of the internal segment of the globus pallidus dampens cortical activity to decrease motor output.
47
Keele’s work with people with Parkinson’s disease suggests that they may have difficulties in which of the following cognitive operations?
d. set shifting
48
One reason that lesions to the cerebellum disrupt the eye blink conditioning response is because
b. this structure is involved in timing the activation of different effectors involved in a learned motor sequence.
49
Which of the following would demonstrate the finding that some aspects of motor learning are independent of the specific effectors used to perform an action?
d. One’s signature looks very similar regardless of whether one uses the left or the right hand to produce it.
50
Using transgenic mice, Wagner et al.’s 2017 study provided which of the following pieces of evidence that the cerebellum is involved with learning and predictive processes?
c. Not only did the activity of certain cerebellar cells correspond with certain motor activity, but the activity of some cerebellar cells reflected trial outcomes
51
Kawai et al.’s 2015 study used rats to explore how lesions of the motor cortex impact the ability to learn and perform motor sequences. What results regarding the motor cortex did this study yield?
c. Once a new motor sequence had been learned, the cerebellum was sufficient to produce that motor sequence, even without motor cortex input.
52
The supplementary motor area (SMA) is particularly active during externally guided movements.
False
53
With time, people who experience a hemiplegia typically experience a full recovery.
False
54
A diagnosis of apraxia is mainly exclusionary: a person is said to have apraxia if he or she has a coordination problem that can’t be linked to a deficit in controlling the muscles themselves.
True
55
Single axons of the corticospinal tract can extend for more than one meter.
True
56
Although simple reflexes can occur without sensory input, the generation of rhythmic walking movements requires sensory feedback from the environment.
False
57
In performing a sequence of complex actions, such as playing the piano, each movement is planned primarily in relation to the immediately preceding and subsequent movements.
False
58
Before a movement is initiated, the population vector in the motor cortex has already shifted in the direction of the planned movement
True
59
Activity in the premotor cortex reflects not only the trajectory of a movement but also the context in which the movement occurs
True
60
________ is the process of acquiring new information, whereas ________ is the trace that results from this process and can be revealed at a later time.
c. Learning; memory
61
________ refers to the processing of incoming information to be stored.
c. Encoding
62
The encoding of information to be stored involves two stages: ________, in which inputs in sensory buffers and sensory analysis stages are registered, and then ________, in which a stronger representation for storage is created.
d. acquisition; consolidation
63
The result of acquisition and consolidation is to the process involved in accessing memory traces as __________ is to __________.
d. storage; retrieval
64
Which brain structure is located in the medial temporal lobe and is of particular importance in the formation of new long-term memories?
c. the hippocampus
65
Which of the following is NOT an area of cortex in the medial temporal lobe that interacts with the hippocampus in the formation of new long-term memories?
a. cingulate
66
Deficits in memory as a function of brain damage, disease, or psychological trauma are known collectively as
d. amnesia.
67
Which of the following statements is true of the kind of amnesia demonstrated by people with bilateral hippocampal damage (like patients H.M. and R.B.) or people with diencephalon injury (like people with Korsakoff’s syndrome)?
b. They can still learn new skills, such as the serial reaction time task, after the injury.
68
A 1957 study of patients who had undergone removal of the medial temporal lobe for the treatment of epilepsy suggested that
d. profound amnesia is associated only with bilateral medial temporal lobe removal.
69
Which of the following would be the most difficult for the famous patient H.M. and other patients with medial temporal lobe removal?
c. learning the words for numbers in a foreign language
70
Your favorite cartoon character has been struck over the head and can no longer remember his name or where he lives. This is an example of
d. retrograde amnesia.
71
Decreased oxygenation and cell death is to ____________ as beta-amyloid proteins negatively affecting synapse formation and neuroplasticity is to ____________.
c. vascular dementia; Alzheimer’s disease
72
You diagnose two different patients, each with a form of dementia. Patient 1 has a neurogenerative disease; Patient 2 does NOT have a neurogenerative disease. Which of the following summarizes the two patient reports?
d. Patient 1: Alzheimer’s disease, areas affected: medial temporal lobes. Patient 2: frontotemporal lobar dementia, areas affected: frontal lobes.
73
After suffering a severe head injury, a patient demonstrates a dense anterograde amnesia. She
b. cannot remember events that occurred after the injury.
74
A patient visits a neurologist and complains of memory problems, such as trouble remembering telephone numbers. After a few tests, the neurologist determines that there is a large impairment in the digit span, but no impairment in remembering the past or in forming new memories. Which brain area is the most likely to be impaired?
c. the left perisylvian cortex
75
The memory performance of patients K.F. and E.E., when compared to the memory performance of people with amnesia, such as patient H.M, demonstrates a double dissociation between two types of memory. Which of the following statements best describes these results?
b. H.M. has a deficit limited to long-term memory, whereas K.F. and E.E. have deficits limited to short-term memory.
76
Research using the mismatch field (MMF), which is the magnetic equivalent of the mismatch negativity (MMN), has suggested that auditory sensory memory has a duration of about
d. 10 seconds.
77
George Miller and other investigators found that humans can hold about ________ items in short-term memory at a time.
c. seven
78
Organizing individual bits of information into higher-order units can increase the amount of information that can be held in short-term memory. This strategy is called
d. chunking.
79
According to the modal model of memory, information that is currently held within short-term memory originates from
a. sensory memory.
80
Which of the following best describes the flow of information in the Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968) modal model of memory?
c. sensory memory ® short-term storage ® long-term storage
81
Which of the following statements concerning types of memory in the modal model of memory is FALSE?
b. Some contents of sensory memory are selected via attention and next processed in long-term memory.
82
You learn of an experiment conducted in 1942 by a researcher named Malmo. Malmo discovered that monkeys with certain lesions were impaired in a delayed-response task, but not when the lights were turned off. Malmo hypothesized that switching off the lights removed potential interference. Which of the following theories incorporates this kind of short-term interference?
d. the modal model of memory
83
The term ________ refers to a limited-capacity store that not only retains information over the short-term (maintenance) but also permits the performance of mental operations with the contents of this store (manipulation).
a. working memory
84
One finding that supports the idea that information in working memory is represented by an acoustic (auditory) code rather than a semantic (meaning-based) code is that when participants are given a list of words to learn and then are immediately tested for recall, performance is ______ when the list contains items that are similar in _______.
c. worse; sound
85
Of the following choices, damage to the ________ is most likely to result in impairment to the visuospatial sketch pad, or visual working memory.
a. parietal–occipital cortex
86
Visual sensory memory is to ________ as auditory sensory memory is to ________.
a. iconic memory; echoic memory
87
One major difference between the visual icon and the auditory echo is that the
b. auditory echo lasts longer than the visual icon.
88
One property of the central executive mechanism proposed by Baddeley and Hitch is that it
b. is not linked to a single modality.
89
The component that is responsible for acoustically coding information in working memory is the
c. phonological loop.
90
Declarative or explicit memory is knowledge that
a. one can access consciously.
91
Barbara remembers that Madrid is the capital of Spain, but she has no idea when or where she acquired this knowledge. Her ________ memory is accurate, but her ________ memory is incomplete.
a. semantic; episodic
92
Classical conditioning is an example of a specific type of ________ memory.
d. nondeclarative
93
________ memory does NOT affect behavior consciously.
a. Nondeclarative
94
In the delayed nonmatching to sample task, animals are taught in a single trial that a specific object is associated with a food reward. When this object is shown again in a subsequent trial in the presence of a new object, the animal
b. must select the new item to receive a food reward.
95
Patient H.M. is to the ________ as patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome are to the ________.
d. medial temporal lobes; diencephalon
96
It appears that the medial temporal lobes and the diencephalon are important in consolidating explicit long-term memories but are not themselves the storage sites for this knowledge because
d. most episodic and semantic memories acquired before injury to these structures will remain intact.
97
Two weeks ago, you saw a patient who was suffering from amnesia, and the amnesia appeared to be related to the vertebrobasilar artery system. Currently, the patient’s memory seems to have returned to normal. Which of the following people is most likely to be the patient described?
d. A 59-year-old grocery store owner who works long hours and is struggling financially.
98
Following a case of encephalitis, a person has developed lesions in his anterior temporal lobes, but his medial temporal structures are intact. Which of the following is most likely to be true of this person?
b. The person has isolated retrograde amnesia.
99
After a brain injury, a person is found to have isolated retrograde amnesia. Which of the following brain regions is probably damaged?
b. the anterior temporal lobes
100
Greater activity in the frontal and parietal portions of the retrieval network is to __________ as greater activity in the medial temporal lobe and sensory areas is to __________.
a. false memories; true memories
101
Neuroimaging work has suggested that during the retrieval of a list of studied items, the hippocampus is most active
a. for items that are correctly recollected as old items.
102
Recent neuroimaging and neuropsychological work in memory has attempted to disentangle ________, which seems to implicate the hippocampus and the posterior parahippocampal cortex, from ________, which seems to implicate the perirhinal cortex.
c. recollection; familiarity
103
Neuroimaging studies of the left and right hemispheres in memory function indicate that
b. encoding and retrieval processes in long-term memory may be lateralized to different hemispheres.
104
When individuals encode information that relates to themselves, which of following regions is particularly likely to be active?
c. retrosplenial cortex
105
Consider the binding-of-items-and-contexts (BIC) model. The perirhinal cortex is to the parahippocampal cortex as __________ is to __________.
c. who and what; when and where
106
Under the standard consolidation theory, the involvement of the hippocampus in accessing memories is best described as
a. temporary.
107
Under the multiple trace theory, the neocortex is to semantic memory as the hippocampus is to
d. episodic memory.
108
Which of the following best describes a component of the multiple trace theory?
b. Episodic memory relies on the hippocampus for retrieval.
109
Herpes simplex encephalitis shares which characteristic with semantic dementia?
c. viral transmission
110
Hebbian learning occurs when
a. a synapse is strengthened by the synchronous activity of the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
111
Long-term potentiation does NOT occur unless the neurotransmitter ________ is present in the synapse to bind to postsynaptic NMDA receptors.
d. glutamate
112
Imagine that a new drug is discovered that acts by depleting the brain of free magnesium ions. How would this drug affect long-term potentiation (LTP)?
a. The amount of LTP would increase.
113
Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of NMDA receptors in mediating LTP in the brain?
a. NMDA receptors are critical to inducing LTP but not to maintaining LTP.
114
Patients with damage to the medial temporal lobe and hippocampus typically do not have difficulty performing short-term memory tasks such as the digit span.
True
115
Patient H.M. had severe retrograde amnesia.
False
116
People with amnesia often show preserved implicit learning and nondeclarative memory.
True
117
In the Atkinson and Shiffrin modal model, information can be lost by both decay and interference at each stage.
True
118
Semantic memory is a kind of declarative memory that concerns events we recall from our own lives.
False
119
Most forms of classical conditioning can be considered declarative memory.
False
120
Lesions to the hippocampus typically do not result in profound memory problems unless the lesions also encompass the amygdala.
False
121
Korsakoff’s syndrome is associated with alcoholism.
True
122
During memory retrieval, cortical regions that were important during encoding are reactivated.
True
123
Dopamine is the neurotransmitter most associated with long-term potentiation.
False
124
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of emotions?
b. similarity to moods
125
Emotions are ________ responses to external or internal stimuli.
d. valenced
126
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the six basic facial expressions representing emotional states?
b. jealousy
127
Which of the following statements best describes the distinction between affect, mood, and emotion?
a. Affect is the most general term of the three, and it includes emotions, which tend to be short-term and reactionary; moods tend to last longer than emotions.
128
One theory of emotion and the brain from the mid 20th century implicated the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus. These structures were later named the ________ circuit.
d. Papez
129
Which of the following is NOT a well-established basic emotion?
c. contempt
130
A patient reports feeling intense sadness. Which of the following signs would indicate that this is true?
a. facial expression
b. physiological reaction
c. brief duration
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
131
Which of the following best describes our current understanding of the brain areas that process emotions?
b. The limbic system seems to be heavily involved in processing emotion, with contribution from other brain areas, particularly in frontal-medial cortical areas.
132
Which of the following outcomes is MOST likely to be produced by the information gleaned from studies using multivoxel pattern analysis (MVPA) and 7-tesla scanning (7T) technology to better elucidate the neural structures associated with different emotional states?
d. Each emotion is processed by a network of brain regions, some of which overlap with many other emotions, and some of which overlap with few or no other emotions.
133
Some theories of emotion employ a factor approach. In one conceptualization, the first factor is ________, or how pleasant or unpleasant the stimulus is, and the second factor is ________, or how intense the emotional response is.
b. valence; arousal
134
In one conceptualization of emotions (Davidson et al. 1990), some emotional states such as happiness and surprise create a tendency to ________, whereas other emotional states such as fear and disgust create a tendency to ________.
a. approach; withdraw
135
Which of the following would be MOST useful in establishing discrete categories of emotions?
b. A better understanding of which overlapping networks of brain regions process which emotions.
136
Which of the following, in itself, would be expected to have the LEAST effect on individual differences in emotional processing of a particular stimulus?
d. Differences in the gender of individuals processing the stimulus.
137
Julian spots a snake in the forest. He immediately runs away from it and then notes that he is scared as he is running. Which of the following theories would suggest that his feeling of fear is due entirely to the fact that Julian notices his physiological response?
a. James–Lange theory
138
Klüver–Bucy syndrome is associated with damage to which brain structure or region?
c. the amygdala
139
The ________ is a small, almond-shaped structure in the medial temporal lobe, immediately adjacent to the anterior portion of the ________.
d. amygdala; hippocampus
140
The amygdala consists of several subnuclei. During fear conditioning, information converges on the ________ of the amygdala and from there projects to the ________.
a. lateral nucleus; central nucleus
141
Fear conditioning is a more specific instance of
a. classical conditioning.
142
One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “low road.” This pathway can be characterized as ________ and involves a ________.
c. “quick and dirty”; direct signal from the thalamus to the amygdala
143
One of the two pathways of the amygdala is known as the “high road.” This pathway can be characterized as _________ and involves a ________.
b. “slow and analytical”; project to the cortex
144
A double dissociation has been demonstrated between people with damage to the ________, who show impairment in the explicit or declarative aspects of fear conditioning, and people with damage to the ________, who show impairment in the implicit or nondeclarative aspects of fear conditioning
b. hippocampus; amygdala
145
Which of the following results best supports the notion that the amygdala modulates the consolidation of hippocampus-based memories?
d. Modulation of hippocampus-based learning by arousal occurs after the initial encoding of the task, during retention.
146
The mechanism through which the amygdala modulates hippocampus-based learning may be related to the observation that
a. arousing stimuli decay less quickly than nonarousing stimuli do.
147
You conduct an experiment in which you expose a rat repeatedly to a 440 Hz tone and an electric shock. After a few trials, the rat begins to show signs of fear in response to the tone. In this paradigm, the electric shock is the ________, while the tone is the ________.
b. unconditioned stimulus; conditioned stimulus
148
Lesions to the amygdala ________ unconditioned responses to aversive events, ________ the ability to acquire and express a conditioned response to neutral stimuli.
b. do not block; but they do block
149
Patient S.P., who had bilateral damage to the amygdala, participated in a study involving the pairing of a blue square with an electric shock. S.P.’s skin conductance response (SCR) and verbal report indicated that
b. she had an explicit expectation that the shock would occur after seeing the blue square but did not demonstrate any implicit fear-conditioning SCR response.
150
Which of the following is true about the role of the amygdala in explicit emotional learning?
a. The amygdala performs a modulatory role in declarative memory.
151
In a fear-conditioning experiment, you find a person who shows a normal skin conductance response to a conditioned stimulus (such as a blue square) but who does not consciously remember the pairing of the conditioned stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus (such as a shock). This person may have damage to the
b. hippocampus.
152
Which of the following is a way in which the amygdala interacts with hippocampus-dependent memories?
d. enhancing the strength of explicit or declarative memories for emotional events
153
Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and emotional learning?
a. The amygdala plays a role in the expression of fear responses, regardless of whether the initial learning was implicit or explicit.
154
A rat’s performance on the Morris water maze, a test of spatial ability and memory, will be affected in what way by a lesion to the amygdala?
b. The rat will not be impaired in a basic water maze task, but it will fail to show the stronger retention that would otherwise be expected if the task includes a physical stressor
155
Neuroimaging of the perception of facial expression suggests that
d. the amygdala responds most strongly to fearful faces, but it also shows some response to other expressions
156
The amygdala responds to fearful facial expressions
a. regardless of whether the face is consciously perceived.
157
Which of the following is typically true of people with bilateral damage to the amygdala?
b. They are like controls in their implicit and explicit reactions to race
158
The implicit association test (IAT) measures the degree to which social groups are automatically associated with positive and negative evaluations. Which of the following is FALSE regarding this test?
c. The IAT is designed to reflect declarative memories.
159
Research on racial stereotypes conducted by Phelps and colleagues (2000) suggested that when European–American participants viewed pictures of unfamiliar African–American men, activity in the ________ of these participants was correlated with the results of ________ behavioral measures of racial beliefs and attitudes.
d. amygdala; indirect or implicit
160
Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala and indirect evaluations of racial bias?
a. White participants who show greater amygdala activity during the presentation of black faces tend to have stronger racial bias as measured by an implicit behavioral task.
161
Cunningham and colleagues (2004) suggested that although the amygdala plays a role in the automatic evaluation of social groups, controlled processing may implicate which of the following brain regions?
c. the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex
162
Which statement best characterizes the insula’s role in emotional processing?
a. The insula processes interoception and bodily states, and plays a role in connecting the physiology of emotion with emotional state.
163
The insula is MOST involved in which of the following?
b. disgust
164
Emotional regulation refers to the processes that influence emotions in which of the following ways?
a. the type of emotions we have
b. when emotions occur
c. how emotions are experienced and expressed
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
165
EEG studies have found that those with more ________ activity are better able to suppress negative emotion voluntarily.
d. left-sided
166
A friend comes into your house and eats all the chocolates in your pantry. You come in and at first are very angry. Then you think to yourself, “That’s actually better for me. Now I don’t have to eat all those calories.” What have you done?
a. antecedent-focused regulation
b. reappraisal
c. reduction of your anger
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
167
Which area of the frontal lobe does NOT show increased activity in the cognitive control of emotion?
a. left lateral prefrontal cortex
168
Patient S.M., who had damage to the amygdala, had difficulty recognizing sadness in the expressions of other people.
False
169
Evidence from cognitive neuroscience suggests that the recognition of the six basic facial expressions of emotion is processed in the amygdala.
False
170
The Papez circuit includes the hypothalamus, anterior thalamus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus.
True
171
Paul Ekman argued that the perception of facial expressions of emotion is highly relative across cultures.
False
172
The role of the amygdala in emotion and memory has been studied using a form of classical conditioning known as fear conditioning.
True
173
One pathway through which information about unconditioned or conditioned stimuli reaches the amygdala is known as the “high road” and has a cortical component.
True
174
The role of the amygdala in learning to respond to stimuli that have come to represent aversive events through fear conditioning is primarily implicit.
True
175
A common conditioned stimulus (CS) in fear-conditioning experiments is an electric shock.
False
176
In some of the fear-conditioning experiments described in your text, simple shapes like a blue square are used as the conditioned stimulus (CS).
True
177
When someone is emotionally aroused, the hippocampus plays a modulatory role in strengthening the consolidation of amygdala-based memory.
False
178
Which of the following, if true, would be most helpful toward advancing our understanding of the anatomy of language?
a. if mice had a sophisticated spoken language
179
The language-relevant regions of the right hemisphere would be most critical to understanding which of the following?
b. sarcasm
180
Which of the following brain structures is NOT directly involved in language?
a. Sylvian fissure
181
The left perisylvian network of language includes which areas?
c. both Broca's area and Wernicke's area
182
A patient with dysarthria has trouble
a. controlling the muscles that articulate speech sounds.
183
________ is a general term for deficits in language comprehension and production that occur as the result of brain injury.
b. Aphasia
184
Which of the following statements best describes agrammatic aphasics?
c. They are unable to use syntax.
185
Which of the following statements does NOT describe agrammatic aphasics?
d. They have difficulty with comprehension.
186
Patient “Tan,” studied by the neurologist Broca, had great difficulty in generating spontaneous speech and was unable to utter any word other than the nonsense syllable “tan.” Postmortem autopsy of Tan’s brain revealed
b. a lesion in the left inferior frontal cortex.
187
You encounter an aphasic patient with language deficits resulting from brain injury. You are also likely to also observe hemiparesis on the ________ side of the body, which would indicate that the ________ hemisphere is especially critical to language function.
c. right; left
188
The German neurologist Wernicke found that injury to which region of the brain resulted in poor language comprehension and nonsensical but relatively fluent speech?
b. the left posterior and superior temporal lobe
189
The speech of people with Broca’s aphasia is usually slow and effortful and consists of primarily concrete words, while words that serve grammatical functions are omitted. This type of speech output is called
b. telegraphic speech.
190
Which of the following sentences would a person with Broca’s aphasia be most likely to misunderstand?
b. “The woman whom Richard met yesterday is leaving for Vancouver.”
191
People with Broca’s aphasia may have subtle deficits in their ability to comprehend language based on its grammatical structure. This symptom is called
c. agrammatism
192
A current controversy regarding the usefulness of Broca’s aphasia as a diagnostic category focuses on the observation that
a. there is no strict correspondence between lesions of Broca’s area and the symptoms classically associated with Broca’s aphasia.
193
A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. What is the most probable diagnosis?
c. Wernicke’s aphasia
194
A patient’s symptoms include poor spoken and written comprehension but fluent and reasonably grammatical speech output. Which part of this person’s brain is most likely damaged?
d. the posterior language areas in the left hemisphere
195
Recent studies have shown that the lesion associated with persistent severe Wernicke’s aphasia may have to include not only Wernicke’s area itself, but also
c. the white matter tracts below Wernicke’s area.
196
A person with conduction aphasia is most likely to have difficulty in
c. repeating spoken language.
197
The term ________ refers to the collective store of information about the semantics, syntax, orthography, and phonology of words.
c. mental lexicon
198
________ is to the meaning of a word as ________ is to the spelling of a word.
d. Semantics; orthography
199
When you are shown the written word “neuroscience” and you read it aloud, you are translating ________ information into ________ information about this word.
c. orthographic; phonological
200
The concept of “words in the same neighborhood” is analogous to which of the following in the semantic domain?
c. words related in meaning
201
Which of the following statements regarding the organization of semantic networks is FALSE?
a. The most frequently associated nodes have the largest distances between them in the network.
202
The mental lexicon is thought to be organized as a semantic network in which word meanings are connected to each other, as in the two-dimensional diagram here. Based on what you know about how strength of association between word meanings is represented in semantic networks, determine which of the following statements regarding the network is true.
d. The association between dog and cat is stronger than the association between animal and cat.
203
Which of the following is NOT a property of the Word Bank?
c. It has more than one pronunciation
204
Language errors in which a person substitutes words that are related in meaning for one another are called
c. semantic paraphasias.
205
An aphasic person who makes semantic paraphasia errors in her speech might say “________” when she actually intends to say “________.”
c. cow; horse
206
The symptoms of all of the following neurological language syndromes suggest the disruption of an organized semantic network in which word meanings are stored, EXCEPT
d. conduction aphasia.
207
Which of the following best describes the three main components of word or lexical processing in the correct order, according to most modular models of word recognition?
b. lexical access ® lexical selection ® lexical integration
208
Which of the following is NOT true of infants’ speech recognition abilities?
c. At 9 months infants are unable to recognize foreign language phonemes.
209
Segmenting the boundaries between words is a particularly difficult computational problem in
c.speech perception.
210
________ specifically refers to the variations in the pitch of a speaker’s voice that convey emotion and emphasis in speech.
b.Prosody
211
Which of the following best describes a case that depends primarily on prosodic aspects of language?
a. The ability to recognize the characteristic rise that occurs at the end of a sentence in a speaker’s voice when she asks a question.
212
The observation that we can understand the speech of different speakers, regardless of variations in the
pitches of the speakers’ voices, the speakers’ rates of speech, and the speakers’ dialects, indicates that
d. speech recognition cannot rely on the direct matching of specific sounds to language representations in memory.
213
A major issue in the study of word recognition involves the extent to which relatively low-level
sensory representations interact with relatively high-level information, such as the context in which a
word appears. A modular model of word comprehension would be most likely to argue that
b. processing at each level is independent, and there is little or no interaction between them.
214
You receive a text message that reads “What time do you want to have lunch tomorrow night?” Which
word would lead to an N400 for you?
d. night
215
You receive a text message that reads “My steak eaten up by the broccoli.” Which word would lead to a P600 for you?
b. eaten
216
The P600, also known as the SPS, is an ERP component that is sensitive to the violation of
expectations based mostly on
d. syntax.
217
An early ERP component associated with morphosyntactic violations is the
a. LAN.
218
In Hagoort’s language model, the “memory” component is mediated by the ________, the
“unification” component by the ________, and the “control” component by the ________.
d. temporal lobe; inferior frontal gyrus; lateral frontal cortex
219
Considering the Memory and Unification components of Hagoort’s model of language comprehension,
during a conversation with your professor,
d. unification would be pulling together and integrating various components of the words
coming out of your professor's mouth to process what she was saying.
220
The brain regions involved with the unification process in Hagoort’s model suggest that a person with
a major comprehension deficit due to significant damage in Brodmann area 45 (BA45) could be
expected to exhibit which of the following?
c. both an abnormal N400 and an abnormal P600
221
In studies with implanted electrodes, Sahin and colleagues (2009) found that Broca’s area processed
which elements of language?
a. lexical
b. grammatical
c. phonological
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
222
Under certain circumstances, when the conceptual representation of an item is activated, there is
subsequent difficulty activating the corresponding word form in the mental lexicon, even though other
information about the item can be accessed. This phenomenon is called
d. the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
223
According to Levelt’s (1989) model of speech production, two main processing stages are involved in
generating a meaningful utterance. In the ________ stage, the speaker determines what he or she
intends to express to the listener; in the ________ stage, word choices and the grammatical role that
each word will play are determined.
d. macroplanning; microplanning
224
According to Levelt, information-specific networks exist for word forms at the ________ level and for
the grammatical properties of words at the ________ level.
b. lexeme; lemma
225
Which of the following evolutionary anatomical developments from apes to humans seems to have
most greatly facilitated humans’ capacity for sophisticated spoken language?
d. increased connectivity between inferior frontal, lateral temporal, and inferior parietal areas
226
Animal calls were thought to be purely emotional. Which of the following findings with monkey calls
does NOT contradict this view?
d. Calls can be strung together in predictable orders.
227
What is the main reason that there has been more success teaching nonhuman primates to use sign
language than spoken language?
a. Hand signals are easier than vocalizations.
b. Vocalizations are better controlled in humans.
c. Control of manual gestures is better in nonhuman primates.
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
228
Homo sapiens have made the leap from ________ to ________ sequences.
c. manual; vocal
229
Which of the following, if true, would be damaging to evidence cited to support the hypothesis that
spoken language evolved from gestural language?
c. Monkey brains are organized ipsilaterally with regard to motor control.
230
A normal adult speaker has passive knowledge of about 50,000 words
True
231
Semantic priming effects are due to spreading activation in many models of lexical processing.
False
232
. Saying the word “horse” when intending to say the word “cow” is an example of a semantic
paraphasia.
True
233
Phonemes are the smallest units of sound that make a difference to meaning.
True
234
The information that a listener derives from the speech rhythm and pitch of the speaker’s voice is
referred to as morphological.
False
235
The three primary ways in which words are symbolized in different writing systems are alphabetic,
syllabic, and logographic.
True
236
The Spanish language uses the logographic system for written words.
False
237
Modular models of language comprehension argue for a high degree of interactivity between different
specialized modules.
False
238
The immediate assignment of syntactic structure of incoming words is known as parsing.
True
239
Listening to a sentence like “He spreads the warm bread with socks” will evoke a P600 brain potential
False
240
Cognitive control is often associated with
a. goal-oriented behavior.
b. decision making.
c. cognitive flexibility.
d. All of the answer options are correct.
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
241
Cognitive control is NOT involved in which of the following?
d. implicit memory
242
Which of the following processes would LEAST involve cognitive control?
b. jumping rope with your niece and nephew, after not having jumped rope for at least
10 years
243
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is sometimes thought of as being associated with
cognitive control deficits. Which piece of evidence best supports this?
a. ADHD stimulant medications have a particularly high affinity for frontal lobe structures
involved in cognitive control.
244
The statement “ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny” is discussed in multiple places in this chapter.
Which of the following, if true, would be inconsistent with that statement?
c. The frontal lobes of chimpanzees become fully developed at a younger age than the frontal
lobes of squirrel monkeys or dogs
245
Three main subdivisions of the prefrontal cortex are the
b. lateral prefrontal cortex, frontal pole, and medial frontal cortex.
246
The most caudal part of the frontal lobe contains the ________ region.
d. primary motor
247
Which of the following statements best describes the anatomical connectivity of the prefrontal lobes to
the rest of the brain?
d. There are extensive projections to and from the prefrontal cortex to all other lobes of the
brain.
248
The ventromedial zone is also known as (the)
d. orbitofrontal cortex
249
Focal injuries of the prefrontal cortex generally produce all of the following cognitive changes or
symptoms EXCEPT
c. fluent aphasia.
250
John is unable to carry on the most rudimentary conversations. Whenever someone changes the subject
he persists on the same topic for several minutes. Eventually, people simply leave him alone, talking to
himself. John has
b. perseveration in responding.
251
A patient with a frontal lobe lesion kneels and prays when watching another person do the same thing
in the middle of the cafeteria. This is an example of
c. utilization behavior.
252
The information that you are currently thinking about, perceiving, or using to guide responding is held
in this type of memory store.
c. working memory
253
Which of the following best describes a real-life example of the delayed-response task?
b. After looking up the phone number of a local pizza place, you walk across the room to the
telephone and begin dialing it.
254
You are driving around town. Which of the following stops will require the most working memory?
d. stopping at a business you have never visited before
255
Working memory has been called the ________ of the mind
a. blackboard
256
A monkey is taught that food is associated with a stimulus card that has a star on it. After training, the
animal receives a lesion to the lateral prefrontal cortex. The monkey’s memory for the food–stimulus
card association is then tested by presenting the animal with the two stimulus cards diagrammed here. How will the monkey now respond?
a. The monkey will remember the correct response and choose stimulus card 1 to earn a food
reward.
257
Lesions of the lateral prefrontal cortex disrupt ________ memory but not ________ memory.
c. working; long-term
258
A monkey that has previously received a lesion in the lateral prefrontal cortex is shown two food
wells, each of which is covered by a marked stimulus card:
As the monkey watches, a food reward is placed into the left well and then both wells are covered. If
the monkey is now allowed to retrieve the food reward immediately, it will
a. correctly select the left food well.
259
The human analog of the delayed-response task that is used as a test of cognitive development in
human infants is the ________ task.
b. object permanence
260
While the ________ will be most active during the encoding of a face stimulus, the ________ will be
active during the delay period.
b. fusiform gyrus; prefrontal cortex
261
Which patient group is most likely to be impaired on a task in which one must decide which of two
pictures was seen most recently?
a. patients with frontal lobe injuries
262
Which of the following is NOT a gradient along which the prefrontal cortex is organized?
c. left-right
263
A person who has difficulty with “recency memory” tasks would have the most difficulty with which
of the following?
d. entering the ingredients for a recipe in the correct order
264
Neuroimaging experiments have demonstrated that working memory engages the
c. prefrontal cortex and more posterior brain areas involved in perception and mental
representation.
265
You conduct a single-cell recording study of a lateral prefrontal cortical cell while an animal performs
a delayed-response task. Which of the following response profiles best matches the behavior of the cell
if it is primarily involved in working memory function? (Each vertical line represents an action
potential.)
b. no response during cue, lines during delay, no response during response
266
________ theories describe what people ought to do, whereas ________ theories describe what people
actually do.
a. Normative; descriptive
267
Action-outcome decisions involve a more ________ form of processing, whereas stimulus-response
decisions are more ________.
c. controlled; automatic
268
Primary reinforcers involve ________, whereas secondary reinforcers do not.
d. survival value
269
Ventromedial prefrontal cortex involves ________ valuation, whereas dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
involves more ________ valuation.
b. automatic; controlled
270
You encounter a bear, which triggers an emotional response. Which of the following areas would not
show increased dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway?
d. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
271
With which of the following is prediction error NOT correlated?
d. the unconditioned stimulus
272
People with frontal lobe injuries and control participants were asked to figure out a way to clean a
floor when there are no towels. Which of the following statements would be associated with frontal
lobe patients and not controls?
b. “Just take your blouse off and clean it with that.”
273
One conceptualization of the prefrontal cortex, offered by Shimamura (2000), which could explain the
seemingly disparate set of impairments associated with damage to this area, is that
a. one underlying function of the prefrontal lobes is to select the information that is most
task-relevant.
274
Imagine that a frontal lobe patient meets a very good friend and his family doctor. Which of the two
would this patient be able to engage more easily in a short conversation?
b. the family doctor
275
Thompson-Schill and colleagues (1997, 1998) conducted an experiment in which participants
generated an appropriate verb in response to a presented noun. They found that the processing of
nouns such as rope, which have many semantically associated verbs, elicited ________ activity in the
inferior frontal cortex than did nouns such as scissors, which do not. This result supports the ________
hypothesis of inferior frontal lobe function.
b. greater; selection
276
An experiment that requires participants to respond based on one goal, such as naming digits, on some
trials and another goal, such as naming letters, on other trials is an example of a(n) ________
paradigm.
b. task-switching
277
In the task-switching experiment involving a digit task and a letter task, a digit or letter response was
indicated by a word or by a color. Which of these conditions was particularly problematic when
switching between digits and letters for frontal lobe patients?
b. digits indicated by colors
278
Which of the following findings, if true, would best argue in favor of the parallel processing model of
multi-tasking, as opposed to the task-switching model?
d. Participants’ improvements over time in the dual task condition were highly correlated
with their improvements on each individual task.
279
The idea that the prefrontal cortex filters out and inhibits irrelevant information is supported by the
ERP findings of Knight and Grabowecky (1995), who found that patients with prefrontal lesions
produced ________ in response to ignored tones during a listening task.
b. larger evoked potentials
280
In a delayed response task, participants were asked to look at faces or scenes or engage in passive
viewing. Which of the following results distinguished older adults from young adults when viewing
faces relative to passive viewing?
d. The young adults showed reduced activation in the parahippocampal place area.
281
In a stop-signal task, participants are asked to
a. choose between two responses but abort their response when signaled to do so.
282
At any given time, many different schema control units may be activated. However, we can rarely
carry out more than one unit at a time and must select the most appropriate one to translate into action.
The units are mutually inhibitory, and only the most activated one wins the competition for expression.
This type of selection mechanism is called
b. contention scheduling.
283
For situations in which no routine procedure can be used to generate an appropriate response, which
type of mechanism is used to select the best schema control unit for translation into action?
c. the supervisory attentional system
284
Which of the following is NOT a situation that you would expect to engage the supervisory attentional
system?
a. one that engages a specific schema control unit
285
Which of the following situations would be most likely to engage the anterior cingulate cortex?
c. You enter your classroom and find someone sitting in your usual seat.
286
In general, increased activity in the anterior cingulate cortex has been observed when participants
perform tasks that have any of the following properties EXCEPT:
b. The task involves well-learned or automatic responses
287
The supervisory attentional system, which seems to be localized to the ________ in the brain, becomes
active during the Stroop task because this task requires ________.
d. anterior cingulate cortex; a response (vocalizing a perceived color) that competes with a
strong habitual response (reading)
288
Hypothetically, which of the following would represent a potential consequence of a population of
children whose frontal lobes were far more developed than neurotypical children?
b. They would be more cognitively inflexible.
289
The lateral prefrontal cortex is important for working memory tasks.
True
290
People with frontal lobe lesions are often impaired in organizing and segregating events in memory.
True
291
Appropriate goal-oriented behavior is typically described as stimulus-driven.
False
292
Although the prefrontal cortex is not essential for working memory, it is particularly important for the
storage of associative knowledge.
False
293
Prefrontal areas are likely a temporary repository for representations accessed from other neural sites
True
294
Switching tasks requires maintenance but not manipulation of information in working memory
False
295
Dynamic filtering is one view of the prefrontal cortex, in which this area is a repository of
representations and selects information most relevant to the current task.
True
296
The error-related negativity (ERN) has been localized to the anterior cingulate cortex.
True
297
The key function of the inferior temporal lobe is to evaluate response conflict.
False
298
Which brain region is the most susceptible to coup-contrecoup injury?
d. the orbitofrontal cortex
299
A traumatic brain injury in which impact causes the brain to bounce against the back of the skull and
then rebound is known as a ________ injury
c. coup-contrecoup
300
The most salient symptom in people who have suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is
a. inappropriate social behavior
301
What were the circumstances under which Phineas Gage sustained his brain injury?
c. an explosion while laying a Vermont railway that sent a tamping iron through his head
302
Which of the following resulted in the significant personality changes observed in Phineas Gage?
c. orbitofrontal damage
303
Phineas Gage, who suffered injury to the orbitofrontal cortex, experienced changes in all of the
following areas as a result of his injury EXCEPT
b. performance on cognitive tests
304
Which of the following areas is LEAST involved in social cognition?
b. inferior frontal gyrus
305
Which term describes the deficits associated with autism spectrum disorder?
d. mindblindness
306
Baron Cohen has proposed that people with ________ have impaired theory-of-mind abilities, coining
the term mindblindness.
d. autism spectrum disorder
307
Which of the following hypothetical programs would be MOST helpful toward alleviating the social
deficits typically observed in antisocial personality disorder (APD), autism spectrum disorder (ASD),
or schizophrenia?
a. A program that is able to teach people with ASD how to interpret intentions of others
308
The self-referent effect refers to the phenomenon that
d. information processed in relation to the self is enhanced in memory.
309
In what way might the self-referent effect and the depth-of-processing effect be related?
a. Information processed in relation to the self may benefit from the wealth of information
about the self in memory.
310
In an experiment by William Kelley and colleagues (2002), participants judged personality adjectives
in relation to either themselves or the U.S. president. The results suggested that memory for words
processed in relation to the self was ________ than that for words processed in relation to the U.S.
president, and that the former condition resulted in greater neural activity in the ________ cortex.
c. better; medial prefrontal
311
Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and event-related potentials (ERP) studies suggest that
the medial prefrontal cortex may be involved in tasks requiring
b. self-referential processing.
312
When deciding whether an adjective describes ________, we rely on ________.
a. others; memories of specific behaviors
313
Stanley Klein and colleagues (2002) found that after rating a personality adjective for
self-descriptiveness, participants were ________ to recall a time in which they exhibited the
characteristic, suggesting that self-characteristics ________ linked to recall of specific past behaviors.
d. equally fast; are not
314
People with retrograde and anterograde amnesia are ________ to maintain a sense of self because our
judgments about self-characteristics are ________ recall of specific past behaviors.
b. able; not linked to
315
Studies using fMRI have found that neural activity in the medial prefrontal cortex ________ when
people make self-referential judgments compared to other judgments, suggesting that when we are “at
rest” we are engaging in a number of self-referential processes.
d. decreases less
316
One concern with interpreting fMRI studies employing a “resting state” for comparison with cognitive
activities of interest is that
b. many processes are engaged “at rest,” including self-referential processes.
317
Which brain area seems to be the most important for selectively attending to positive self-relevant
information, as opposed to negative self-relevant information?
a. the anterior cingulate cortex
318
People with damage to the orbitofrontal cortex tend to be ________ of their social mistakes in the
moment, ________ become embarrassed by them if they view a video of themselves after the fact.
c. unaware; but they do
319
Most children who are asked to sort a set of facial pictures will likely sort on the basis of ________,
whereas autistic children will likely sort on the basis of ________.
a. emotional expression; physical features
320
Which of the following is true of the prefrontal cortex, schizophrenia, and depression?
d. While schizophrenia is associated with hypometabolism in the prefrontal cortex,
depression is associated with hypermetabolism in the prefrontal cortex.
321
A patient recently had a tumor near his temporoparietal junction (TPJ) removed. Since then, he has
been experiencing occasional out-of-body experiences. Which of the following surgical ramifications
might explain this?
a. removal of a brain region that inhibits TPJ activity
322
Anomalies in bodily experience, such as xenomelia and alien limb syndrome, are generally thought to
be due to __________, but are actually due to __________.
c. psychological issues; issues with processing in a particular area of the brain related to
sensorimotor integration
323
The Sally-Anne task is used to test whether someone
a. understands that people can have different mental states.
324
To engage in joint attention, a child will pay attention to
a. the direction of your eye gaze.
325
The term theory of mind refers to
b. our ability to make inferences about the mental states of other people.
326
Studies of the perception of the self and others have suggested that
b. similar regions of the medial prefrontal cortex are activated when we answer questions
about the self and about others, if they are close.
327
If neuroimaging studies showed that entirely different brain regions were activated when a person
experienced pain from those that are activated when a person viewed or imagined someone else
experiencing pain, this would
a. be inconsistent with mirror neuron involvement in empathic processes.
328
Which of the following statements best characterizes our ability to modulate our empathic responses?
d. Our empathic responses are not particularly static, and can be modulated even by
relatively trivial connections to others.
329
When reading a series of statements such as “At the party, he was the first to start dancing on the
table,” the ________ is more active when making a personality inference as opposed to remembering
the order of the statements
d. medial prefrontal cortex
330
Tasks involving thinking about mental states often engage which region of the brain, in comparison to
thinking about social background or life events?
c. the right temporoparietal junction
331
What do mentalizing tasks have in common with attentional cuing tasks?
c. Both tasks require that participants direct their attention away from invalid information
332
Single-cell recording studies in monkeys and human neuroimaging studies support the idea that the
________ is important for interpreting eye gaze in relation to mental states.
b. superior temporal sulcus
333
Autistic children are likely to report that ________ when performing the Sally–Anne task
a. Sally will look in the location in which Anne has put the marble
334
What did Ami Klin find when autistic people watched the film Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?
c. They did not pay attention to the faces and eyes of the characters.
335
Studies of the neural bases of autism have found that people with autism
a. have less activation in the medial prefrontal cortex and superior temporal sulcus when
performing theory of mind tasks.
b. have smaller amygdalae in comparison to nonautistic people.
c. do not significantly deactivate the medial prefrontal cortex when performing
non-self-referential tasks.
d. All of the answer options are true
D IS THE CORRECT ANSWER
336
Studies of people with autism have suggested that they do not significantly deactivate the ________
when performing non-self-referential tasks. This is consistent with the observation that many people
with autism have an unusual focus on ________ rather than ________.
a. medial prefrontal cortex; the external world; internal states
337
In a social faux pas experiment, participants are presented with a scenario in which one character
accidentally says something impolite to another character. When people with orbitofrontal damage
perform this task
c. they believe that the impolite comment was intentional
338
In a teasing experiment, people with orbitofrontal injuries and control participants were asked to make
up nicknames for an experimenter whom they did not know well. What were the results?
a. The control participants chose flattering nicknames, whereas the people with orbitofrontal
injuries chose unflattering ones.
339
The experimental economics task known as the "Ultimatum Game" provides evidence that humans
c. do not always make decisions that maximize rewards and minimize losses.
340
In the experimental economics task known as the “Ultimatum Game,” one participant must choose
how to split a sum of money with another player. The second player can choose to accept the offer—or
to reject it, meaning neither player receives anything. Consideration of unfair offers is associated with
activity in the ________, an area that has been associated with disgust.
d. insula
341
The trolley problem and footbridge problem are ethical thought experiments involving life-or-death
situations. Which of the following is true?
a. Both situations involve sacrificing one life to save multiple other lives.
342
Functional MRI studies of ethical dilemmas suggest that ________ decisions recruit working memory
processes, whereas ________ decisions recruit emotional and social cognitive processes.
b. impersonal; personal
343
Raine (2002) has argued that ________ factors play a role in determining whether someone exhibits
violent behavior.
c. both genetic and environmental
344
If a stroke patient was better at answering abstract conditional logic questions that evaluate rule
violations than at answering equivalent logic questions that evaluate rule violations involving people,
this would indicate that the person’s stroke most likely had
b. specifically affected the patient's brain system attuned to social contract violations.
345
Phineas Gage was a famous neurological patient who suffered damage to the orbitofrontal cortex.
True
346
Information processed in relation to the self is better remembered than that which is processed in
relation to others.
True
347
Research suggests that self-description judgments rely on recall of specific autobiographical episodes.
False
348
Neuroimaging studies suggest that the medial prefrontal cortex activates more relative to a baseline
when people make self-referential judgments than when they make other kinds of judgments
True
349
The anterior cingulate cortex is important for distinguishing positive self-relevant information from
negative self-relevant information.
True
350
Simulation theory suggests that theory of mind is based on an ability to put ourselves in the shoes of
another person, using our own minds to simulate what might be going on in the mind of someone else.
True
351
The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex plays a strong role in forming impressions about the internal states
of other people.
False
352
False-belief tasks require participants to direct their attention away from invalid information to answer
questions about another person’s mental states.
True
353
Research suggests that the brain regions that are active during mentalizing tasks and during attentional
cuing are functionally distinct from one another.
False
354
Neuroeconomics is the field of philosophy that discusses the rights and wrongs of the treatment or
enhancement of the human brain.
False
355
Which psychologist would be most likely to agree with the statement, “I attend, therefore I am
conscious.”
d. Stanislas Dehaene
356
Which of the following is NOT a form of unconscious processing?
d. short-term memory
357
How would theorists who follow Pinker’s perspective label your subjective experience of viewing the
colors of your textbook?
b. sentience
358
Which aspect of conscious experience is NOT well understood from a cognitive neuroscience
perspective?
c. the subjective conscious experience itself
359
Which of the following of Damasio’s categories is most associated with the brainstem?
a. core consciousness
360
Which structure is responsible for extended consciousness?
c. cerebral cortex
361
Core consciousness is turned off by lesioning which intralaminar nuclei (ILN) of the thalamus?
c. both left and right
362
Which of the following would NOT result from damage to the pons?
a. blindsight
363
Patients in a vegetative state are evidence for which of the following statements?
b. Wakefulness does not depend on consciousness.
364
Which of the following pieces of neuroimaging evidence would best support the conclusion that a
patient was experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS), as opposed to a vegetative state (UWS)?
d. There was activation in the patient’s visual cortex when he was asked to imagine the Eiffel
Tower, but not when he was asked to imagine music playing.
365
Which of the following comparisons between someone experiencing somnambulism (sleepwalking)
and someone experiencing locked-in syndrome (LIS) is true?
b. Both are opposite in terms of their automatic behaviors and conscious awareness
366
Which of the following properties is NOT true of layered architecture systems?
c. Each layer must be privy to the protocol of the previous layer
367
Which of the following findings would violate the principle of multiple realizability?
c. A creature that had only one combination of neuronal activity for each behavior
368
For people with blindsight, “blind” can be considered ________, with “sight” reflecting ________.
a. perception; sensation
369
Employing subliminal perception by quickly flashing an angry face before an image of someone could
__________ the participant's attitude about the person.
c. worsen
370
Which of the following is NOT thought to be an evolutionary pressure that gave rise to
access-consciousness?
d. cost of prey
371
The scaffolding to storage framework was proposed to account for the movement from ________ to
________.
a. conscious; unconscious
372
Which system processes novel task demands under the scaffolding to storage framework?
a. scaffolding
373
Compared to a novice, a chess grandmaster is more likely to be using their ________ when playing
chess.
b. right cortical hemisphere
374
Without the brain’s “interpreter” system,
b. we would not have our own personal set of beliefs about the world
375
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the interpreter system?
d. It processes emotion.
376
A neural event occurs at 1:00 p.m. Libet’s backward referral hypothesis suggests that awareness is
assigned to what time?
b. Exactly 1:00 p.m.
377
Which statement below is both true and suggestive that chimpanzees and bonobos might have a conscious state?
a. They share a common ancestor with humans.
378
What is the earliest age at which humans can typically succeed at mirror self-recognition (MSR)?
b. 2 years
379
A research participant fails the MSR test. Which of the following questions should be asked before
concluding that this person lacks self-awareness?
d. Do you have prosopagnosia?
380
Which of the following abilities do chimpanzees NOT possess?
b. sharing intentionality
381
The work of biologist Andrew Barron and neuroscience philosopher Colin Klein suggests that
subjective experience may be present in animals as evolutionarily primitive as
d. invertebrates.
382
Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would suggest that the cortex is required for
sentience in humans?
c. The extent and characteristics of sentience in people with hydranencephaly can be
predicted by cortex mapping
383
You meet a Capgras syndrome patient who insists their spouse is an imposter. Why do they think this?
a. They recognize their spouse but feel no emotion toward them.
384
Which of the following hypothetical experimental results would support the idea that the two
hemispheres have different conscious experiences?
c. A split-brain patient’s right hemisphere cannot infer that “match” and “paper” can lead to
fire.
385
Imagine you develop a technique to introduce language processing into a split-brain patient’s right
hemisphere. How would this likely change the right hemisphere’s ability to make inferences?
d. Its inferences abilities would not change
386
Regarding layered architecture, “abstraction” refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each
layer is hidden from the following layer.
True
387
Multiple realizability refers to the principle that multiple combinations of neuronal activity patterns
can result in the same observable behavior.
True
388
Regarding layered architecture, abstraction refers to the phenomenon that the processing of each layer
is hidden from the following layer
True
389
The content of conscious experience for people with Alzheimer’s disease typically changes as the
neurodegenerative process progresses through various brain regions.
True
390
Neuroimaging studies of conversation indicate that a person’s brain activity is unchanged by
interaction with another person
False
391
Evidence suggests that chimpanzees are unable to understand false beliefs
False
392
A determinist would believe that free will does not exist and that the experience of free will is an
illusion.
True
393
The principle of complementarity suggests that we can understand our phenomenal experience if we
understand the firing of neurons.
False
394
Typically, split-brain patients are initially very distressed when unable to verbally communicate what
they are seeing in their left visual field.
False
