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SAFM 470 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the routes of entry for health hazards?

A

Inhalation: airborne contaminants
Absorption: penetration through the skin
Ingestion: eating or drinking
Injection: breaking of the skin for contaminated to enter

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2
Q

OSHA Hierarchy of Controls:

A

1) Engineering Controls
2) Work Practice Controls
3) Administrative Controls
4) PPE

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3
Q

What are the types of exposure?

A

Acute and Chronic

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4
Q

What is acute exposure?

A

Short term period between exposure and onset of symptoms

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5
Q

What is chronic exposure?

A

long term period between exposure to an agent and the onset of symptoms

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6
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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7
Q

What does NIOSH stand for?

A

National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health

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8
Q

What does ACGIH stand for?

A

American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists

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9
Q

What does OSHA cover for air contaminants?

A

PEL,STEL,Ceiling

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10
Q

What does NIOSH cover for air contaminants?

A

TWA,STEL,Ceiling

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11
Q

What does ACGIH cover for air contaminants?

A

TWA,STEL,Ceiling

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12
Q

What is TWA?

A

takes into account variable exposure through a full shift, 8 hour work day

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13
Q

What is STEL?

A

limit of exposure during a short period, 15 minutes

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14
Q

What is ceiling?

A

absolute maximum level of exposure not to be exceeded

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15
Q

What air contaminants are legally enforceable?

A
  • OSHA PEL
  • OSHA AL (action level)
  • OSHA EL (exposure limit)
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16
Q

What is SEP?

A

Special Emphasis Program–Silica

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17
Q

What is Silica Special Emphasis Program (SEP)?

A

Collaboration of OSHA Compliance and Consultation Programs

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18
Q

What is silica?

A

SiO2

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19
Q

Why Target Crystalline Silica Exposure?

A
  • Widespread occurrence and use
  • Number of related deaths
  • Number of exposed workers
  • Health effects
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20
Q

What is SiO2?

A

basic component of sand, quartz & granite

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21
Q

What is Quartz?

A

2nd most common mineral in the earth’s crust

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22
Q

Airborne silica is produced by:

A
  • sandblasting
  • rock drilling
  • foundry work
  • stone cutting
  • drilling
  • quarrying
  • tunneling jack hammering
  • concrete manufacturing
  • demolition
  • asphalt pavement manufacturing
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23
Q

What is Construction Targeting?

A
  • jack hammering
  • rock drilling
  • abrasive blasting
  • concrete mixing
  • brick and concrete block or slab cutting
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24
Q

Permissible Exposure Limit(PEL) for Silica?

A

10 mg/m3
% Quartz +2 = ? mg/m3

(PEL for respirable dust containing a % silica)

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25
Q

What is part of the Silicosis Prevention Program?

A

Medical surveillance program

  • baseline examination
  • -medical and occupational history
  • -prior to exposure
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26
Q

When must medical examinations for silica exposure take place?

A
  • every 5 years if < 20 years of exposure

- every 2 years if > 20 years of exposure

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27
Q

What is part of a silica exposure examination?

A
  • baseline chest x-ray
  • pulmonary function tests (PFT)
  • x-ray upon termination of employment
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28
Q

What other factors are part of the Silicosis Prevention Program?

A
  • Personal air monitoring program
  • Training and information on crystalline silica
  • Availability of air and medical surveillance data to workers
  • Respiratory protection program
  • Hygiene facilities and clothing change areas
  • Recordkeeping
  • Personal exposures below the PEL OR facility has an abatement program that provides interim worker protection
  • Housekeeping program
  • Regulated areas
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29
Q

intense crystalline silica exposure

A

Acute

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30
Q

more intense silica exposure over 5 to 15 years

A

Accelerated

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31
Q

20 to 45 years prolonged exposure to crystalline silica

A

Chronic

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32
Q

What are some common construction health hazards?

A
  • Abrasive blasting
  • Paint removal
  • Renovation & demolition
  • Road repair
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33
Q

What are some Exposure Controls through substitution?

A
  • Coal slag (black beauty)
  • Steel grit
  • Aluminum oxide
  • Wild stuff (frozen CO2, walnut shells, baking soda
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34
Q

What are some Exposure Controls through wet methods?

A
  • Water suppression of dust
  • Very effective method
  • May be less efficient
  • Requires supply of water and clean up
  • Power tools with HEPA exhaust
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35
Q

What is cadmium (29 CFR 1926.1127)?

A
  • Blue-white metal
  • Grayish-white powder
  • Found in lead, copper, and zinc sulfide ores
  • Compounds
  • -highly colored from brown to yellow and red
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36
Q

What are the uses of cadmium?

A
  • electrode component in alkaline batteries
  • stabilizer in plastics
  • paints
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37
Q

What are short term cadmium exposure symptoms?

A
  • irritation of upper respiratory tract
  • constriction of the throat
  • metallic taste
  • cough
  • flu-like symptoms
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38
Q

What are long term cadmium exposure symptoms?

A
  • kidney damage
  • lung cancer
  • prostate cancer
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39
Q

All occupational exposure to cadmium compounds:

A
  • in all construction work
  • -construction
  • -alteration
  • -repair
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40
Q

What are covered activities?

A
  • Wrecking
  • Demolition
  • Salvage
  • Use of cadmium containing paints
  • Cutting, brazing, burning, grinding or welding
  • Electrical grounding w/cadmium
  • Installation of cadmium products
  • Emergencies
  • Transportation, disposal, and storage
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41
Q

What is Action level (AL) for cadmium?

A

2.5 ug/m3

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42
Q

What does a Competent person do(29 CFR 1926.32)?

A
  • determines presents of cadmium
  • regulated areas
  • access
  • PPE
  • training
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43
Q

Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) for cadmium?

A

PEL = 5 ug/m3

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44
Q

Exposure Monitoring for cadmium?

A
  • Prior to performance
  • Exposure at or above the AL
  • -relevant plans
  • -reports
  • -MSDSs
  • -other records
  • Frequency
  • Additional monitoring
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45
Q

What are Prohibited Activities when working with cadmium?

A

-Eating
-Drinking
-Smoking
-Chew tobacco
-Apply cosmetics
OR
carry such products into regulated areas

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46
Q

FINISH HEALTH HAZARDS AFTER KAHOOT

A

FINISH HEALTH HAZARDS AFTER KAHOOT

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47
Q

At what distances is fall protection required?

A

4 feet or more for General Industry
5 feet or more for Maritime
6 feet or more for Construction

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48
Q

At unsafe distances what must be in use?

A

Must be protected by Covers, Guardrail, Safety Net, Personal Fall Protections Systems, Travel Restraint System or refers to another standard

(If not feasible, a fall protection plan that meets 1926.502(k) could be implemented under certain conditions)

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49
Q

What sections are in 1926 Subpart M Fall Protection?

A

.500 Scope, Application and Definitions
.501 Duty to have fall protection
.502 Fall protection system criteria and practices
.503 Training requirements

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50
Q

What is surface strength?

A

Walking/working surfaces must be strong enough to handle the maximum intended load

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51
Q

What is an unprotected side or edge fall hazard?

A

Each employee on a walking/working surface (horizontal and vertical surface) with an unprotected side or edge

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52
Q

Each employee who is constructing a _____ ______ must be protected

A

leading edge

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53
Q

Each employee in the hoist area shall be

A

protected from falling

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54
Q

Holes larger than ___ must be protected by covers, guardrails, nets or other means

A

2 inches

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55
Q

Employees on formwork or reinforcing steel must be protected when

A

6 feet or more above the surface below them

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56
Q

Protection is required on ramps, runways, and other walkways where

A

a fall could occur

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57
Q

Excavations over _______ that are not readily seen must be protected

A

6 feet deep

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58
Q

Wells, pits, shafts, or similar excavations ______

A

6 ft. or more must have protection

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59
Q

For repair, service and assembly pits,

A

Less than 10 feet deep do not require fall protection if the employer:

  • Limits access within 6 feet to authorized employees trained
  • Floor Markings or Warning Line at 6 feet from edge of pit
  • “Caution - Open Pit” signs
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60
Q

Each employee working above dangerous equipment must be

A

protected from falling into or onto dangerous equipment

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61
Q

What is overhead bricklaying?

A

Laying bricks on the opposite side of the wall from the mason, requiring the mason to lean over the wall to complete the work

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62
Q

the hoisting, storage, application, and removal of roofing materials and equipment, including related insulation, sheet metal, and vapor barrier work, but not including the construction of the roof deck

A

Roofing work

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63
Q

Low-sloped means a roof having a slope less than or equal to

A

4 in 12

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64
Q

Steep roofs means a roof having a slope greater than

A

4 in 12

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65
Q

Workers on steep roofs need

A

guardrail systems with toeboards, safety net systems, or personal fall arrest systems

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66
Q

What is Pre-Cast Concrete Erection?

A

Concrete components are brought to the site and put together (tilted up) to create a structure

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67
Q

What is Residential Construction?

A

Applies for homes built with traditional wood frame construction and methods

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68
Q

If employer can prove “infeasibility” in Residential Construction than

A

A “Fall Protection Plan” can be used

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69
Q

Window sills and other openings _____ above foot level must have protection

A

less than 39”

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70
Q

Whenever overhead hazards exist, OSHA requires:

A
  1. Head protection
  2. Toeboards, screens, or guardrail systems
    OR
  3. Canopies and barricades
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71
Q

Any walking/working surface __ feet (General Industry)/___ feet (Construction) or more above the lower level needs protection

A

4

6

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72
Q

The employer must provide a training program for each employee that:

A
  1. Teaches each employee to recognize fall hazards;

and

  1. Teaches each employee your procedures to minimize fall hazards
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73
Q

What are the hierarchy of controls?

A
  • Elimination
  • Substitution
  • Engineering Controls
  • Administrative Controls
  • PPE
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74
Q

What is elimination?

A

Physically remove the hazard

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75
Q

What is substitution?

A

Replace the hazard

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76
Q

What are engineering controls?

A

Isolate people from the hazard

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77
Q

What are administrative controls?

A

Change the way people work

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78
Q

What is PPE?

A

Protect the worker with personal protective equipment

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79
Q

What is the fall protection hierarchy of controls?

A

1) Eliminate the Fall Hazard
2) Passive Fall Protection
3) Active Fall Protection
4) Fall Arrest
5) Administrative Controls

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80
Q

What does eliminating the Fall Hazard consist of?

A
  • Eliminate work at height

- Design changes to allow work to take place at ground level

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81
Q

What is passive fall protection?

A
  • Physical barriers such as guardrails or parapets

- Safety net systems

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82
Q

What is active fall protection?

A

Travel restraint keeps the worker from reaching the fall zone

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83
Q

What is a fall arrest system?

A
  • Personal Fall Arrest System (PFAS)

- Positioning Device Systems (PDS)

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84
Q

What are administration controls?

A

Controlled Access Zones (CAZ)

Safety Monitoring Systems

Warning Line Systems

Fall Protection Plan

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85
Q

What are Elimination: Cocoon Systems?

A
  • Wrap the structure with material to create temporary walls

- Fall and falling object hazards are eliminated

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86
Q

What are Elimination: Move Work to Ground Level?

A

Assembling Roof Assemblies on the Ground

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87
Q

What are guardian systems?

A

Wood, cables, pipe, or steel

Surfaced to prevent injury

Must fully extend around the perimeter

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88
Q

Top rails for guardrails are must be ____

A

39 to 45 inches high.

Midrails, screens, or mesh are required

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89
Q

Guardrails should be _____ ______ and No opening can be wider than __ inches

A

fully closed

19

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90
Q

Top rails for guardrails must handle a ___ _____force to the outward or downward direction

A

200 pound

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91
Q

Guardrail mid rails must handle force of

A

150 lbs

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92
Q

Cables must be at least ____ diameter & flagged every ____ with high-visibility material

A

¼ inch

6 feet

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93
Q

When load is applied, the cable guardrail shall not deflect to a height less than

A

39 inches

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94
Q

Install nets close to the working surface, but no more than

A

30 feet below

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95
Q

What is Net Maintenance?

A

Inspect regularly for net damage

Inspect after any incident that could harm the net

Remove damaged nets from service

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96
Q

Drop testing or certification is required for

A

Net Testing

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97
Q

Hole Covers requirements?

A

Use sturdy material to cover the hole

Secure the cover

Mark with “Hole” or “Cover”

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98
Q

What are some Protective Methods Allowed in Specific Situations?

A

Controlled access zones (CAZ)

Warning lines

Safety monitors

Fall protection plans

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99
Q

How is infeasibility handled?

A

Impossible to do the work with conventional fall protection (guardrails, safety nets or PFAS)

Standard presumes feasibility

Employer has the burden of proving infeasibility

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100
Q

How can Controlled Access Zones (CAZ) be used?

A
  • May be used as part of a fall protection plan for
  • -Leading edge work
  • -Precast operations
  • -Residential construction
  • May be used as part of a fall protection alternative withouta fall protection plan for
  • -Overhand bricklaying operations
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101
Q

What is necessary for Leading Edge Work?

A

Conventional fall protection

If infeasible or greater hazard, use a fall protection plan

Controlled access zone is part of a fall protection plan

Safety monitor is part of thefall protection

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102
Q

Control lines must be between

A

6 and 25 feet from edge

  • Except when erecting precast (will discuss shortly)
  • Except when used in overhand brick laying (will discuss shortly)
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103
Q

Control line must:

A

Have a 200 pound breaking strength
Be between 39 and 45 inches high
Be flagged or marked at least every six feet

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104
Q

As part of a fall protection plan, CAZ required in areas where conventional fall protection is infeasible:

A
  • Setting and bracing roof trusses and rafters
  • Installing floor sheathing and joists
  • Roof sheathing operations
  • Erecting exterior walls
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105
Q

For Low Slope Roofing OSHA allows:

A
  • Conventional fall protection
  • Warning lines and guardrails
  • Warning lines and safety nets
  • Warning lines and personal fall arrest system
  • Warning lines and safety monitor
  • On roofs 50-feet wide or less, a safety monitor alone
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106
Q

Warning Line Systems should have:

A

Ropes, wires, or chains

34” to 39” high

Flagged every 6’

16-pound tipover strength

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107
Q

Roofing Warning Line Requirements state:

A
  • Must extend around all sides of the work area 6’ or more from roof edge
  • Workers outside warning lines protected with conventional fall protection or safety monitor
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108
Q

Parapets must be at least __ high orfall protection must be provided

A

39”

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109
Q

Safety Monitoring Systems require:

A

Competent person

Be on the same surface close enough to see and communicate

Have no other responsibilities

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110
Q

Fall Protection Plans ______

A

Only allowed for leading edge work, precast concrete work, or residential construction

Demonstrate that it is infeasible or creates a greater hazard to use conventional fall protection

Must develop and follow a fall protection plan

Plan must be kept at the site

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111
Q

What are Fall Protection Plan Elements?

A

1) Written specific to each site by a qualified person
2) Kept up to date, changes made by qualified person
3) Copy kept on site
4) Implemented by competent person
5) Document infeasibility of conventional fall protection
6) Discussion of alternative measures and why they cannot be used.(scaffolds, ladders, lifts etc.)
7) Identify locations – CAZ
8) Implement a safety monitor
9) Identify each covered employee
10) Reevaluate after fall or serious incident

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112
Q

What are the benefits for Prevention Through Design (PtD)?

A

-Concept of “designing out” health and safety risks during design and development

  • Reduce risk for the people who:
  • -Build the structure
  • -Live or work in the structure
  • -Maintain the structure
  • -Demolish the structure
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113
Q

What are Active Fall Protection Systems?

A

Personal Fall Arrest Systems (PFAS)

Positioning Device System (PDS)

Restraint Systems

Lifelines (Horizontal and Vertical)

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114
Q

What are the ABCs of Active Fall Protection?

A

Anchorages

Body holding device

Components

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115
Q

What is a Personal Fall Arrest System (PFAS)?

A

A system used to stop a fall in mid-air

Has an anchorage, body harness and deceleration device

May use connectors, lanyards, and lifelines

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116
Q

What is a Positioning Device System (PDS)?

A

Body belt or body harness system rigged to

Support worker on a vertical surface

Work with both hands free

Limit the fall to no more than 2 feet

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117
Q

What is a Restraint System?

A

Keeps the worker from reaching the edge

Combination of anchorage, anchorage connectors, lanyard and body support

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118
Q

What is a Horizontal Lifeline System (HLL)?

A

Uses a horizontal line supported on posts

Connect the worker with other components

Fall arrest or travel restraint

Installed under the supervision of a qualified person

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119
Q

What is a Vertical Lifeline System (VLL)?

A 
Vertical lifeline (a suspended flexible line) attached at top and bottom
fall arrestor slides on the line
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120
Q

What are Active Fall Protection Components?

A
  • Body Holding Device
  • Anchorages
  • Connectors
  • Lanyards
  • Lifelines
  • Deceleration Devices
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121
Q

What is Anchorage?

A

-Overhead I-beams
-Davit arms
-Concrete columns
-Form work
-Reinforcingbar(Rebar)
-Manufacturedanchorattachedto structure

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122
Q

What are PFAS Anchorage Strength requirements?

A

Can support at least 5,000 pounds for each employee
OR
Is designed, installed and used with a safety factor of at least two under the supervision of a qualified person

Must support at least 3,000 pounds
OR
Twice the potential impact load of an employee’s fall

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123
Q

What is Evaluating Anchorage?

A

When you are considering an anchorage, you need to look at several factors

Design and integrity of structure

The fall protection system

Weight of worker(s), tools, and materials

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124
Q

Large gate hooks ______ be used for connections to the body

A

SHALL NOT

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125
Q

For a compatible connection, the _____ of the anchorage connector should be greater than (>) the _____ of the connector

A

‘A’ dimension

‘B’ dimension

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126
Q

What is Improper Snaphook Use?

A

Do not attach directly:

  • To each other
  • To a horizontal lifeline
  • To webbing, rope or wire rope
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127
Q

What do Deceleration Devices do?

A

Any mechanism for fall arrest which:

dissipates a substantial amount of energy

 			OR

limits the energy imposed on an employee

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128
Q

What are the PFAS Specifications?

A
  • 1,800 pound maximum arresting force on the employee
  • Complete stop in 3.5 feet
  • Rigged so the employee cannot free fall more than 6 feet and cannot contact any lower level
  • Take twice the impact of an employee free falling a distance of 6 feet
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129
Q

What are Rescue Planning - OSHA requirements?

A

Provide for prompt rescue of employees in the event of a fall

	OR

Assure that employees are able to rescue themselves

Provide prompt rescue to fallen persons

Written rescue procedures for

  • -Self rescue
  • -Assisted rescue
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130
Q

Suspension trauma occurs when

A

blood flow is restricted by the harness leg straps

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131
Q

Onset of Orthostatic Intolerance:

A

After 5 minutes:

  • Straps impede blood return
  • Muscle venous pump fails
  • Blood becomes toxic and highly acidic

After 15 minutes:

  • Lightheadedness, dizziness, confusion, ‘pre-fainting’ symptoms can occur
  • Anxiety and onset of shock
  • Heart rate increases
  • Cardiac irritability

After 30 - 60 minutes:

  • Loss of vision
  • Blocked airway
  • Cardiac arrest or brain damage
  • Death can occur
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132
Q

While waiting:

DO NOT ______ OR _______

Also, ______ Harness Leg Straps

A

allow worker to lie flat

stand upright after rescue

loose

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133
Q

The ‘FALL’ Acronym:

A

Study on slide 189 Subpart M

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134
Q

What are adequate ground conditions for crane use?

A

Firm, drained
and graded

 Sufficient to
  support crane
  (in conjunction
  with blocking,
  mats, etc.)
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135
Q

Controlling Entity must ___ equipment user & operator of known underground hazards

A

Inform

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136
Q

What are the two options for crane ASSEMBLY / DISASSEMBLY?

A

Manufacturer procedures

or

Employer procedures
	(criteria requirements)
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137
Q

Crane OPERATOR QUALIFICATION / CERTIFICATION options?

A 
OPTION 1:  
   Accredited testing organization
OPTION 2:  
	Audited employer program
OPTION 3:  
	U.S. military
OPTION 4:  
	State/local gov’t license
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138
Q

Signal Types for crane use?

A
  • Hand, voice, audible or “new”

- Only time an operator can use a cell phone while lifting (but must be hands free)

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139
Q

Signal person requirements?

A

Point of operation not in full view of operator

View of direction of travel is obstructed

Site-specific safety concerns

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140
Q

Signal person Qualification Requirements:

A

Know & understand signals

Competent in using signals

Basic understanding of crane operation

Verbal or written test plus practical test

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141
Q

______ and ______ cause many injuries and fatalities among construction workers

A

Stairways

Ladders

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142
Q

About half the injuries caused by slips, trips and falls from ladders and stairways require

A

time off the job

143
Q

There must be a stairway or ladder at points of access where there is an elevation break of _______

A

19 inches or more

144
Q

Rails must be able to withstand a force of

A

200 pounds

145
Q

Stairways with _________ must be equipped with at least one handrail

A

four or more risers, or higher than 30 inches

146
Q

Stairways with four or more risers or more than 30 inches high must also have

A

a stairrail along each unprotected side or edge

147
Q

Stairs should be installed between ___ and ___ degrees.

A

30

50

148
Q

Stairs must have uniform _____ and _____, with less than a ____ variation.

A

riser height
tread depth
1/4-inch

149
Q

Only use pan stairs if filled with

A

filler material at least to the top edge of each pan

150
Q

Stairways landings must be at least

A

30 inches deep and 22 inches wide at every 12 feet or less of vertical rise

151
Q

Unprotected sides of landings must have standard _____ guardrail systems

A

42 inch

152
Q

Where doors or gates open directly on a stairway, provide a platform that extends at least _____ beyond the swing of the door

A

20 inches

153
Q

Keep the area around the ____ and _____ of a ladder clear

A

top

bottom

154
Q

Ensure rungs, cleats, and steps are _____ and ________

A

level

uniformly spaced

155
Q

For ladders, Ensure rungs are spaced __ to __ inches apart

A

10 to 14

156
Q

What are the ladder don’ts?

A

Tie ladders together to make longer sections, unless designed for such use

Use single rail ladders

Load ladders beyond the maximum load for which they were built, nor beyond the manufacturer’s rated capacity

157
Q

Why do we secure ladders?

A

to prevent accidental movement due to workplace activity

158
Q

Portable ladders must:

A

Be inspected before use for cracks, dents, and missing rungs

Designed or treat rungs to minimize slipping

Side rails – at least 11 1/2 inches apart

Must support 4 times the maximum load

159
Q

When should a double-cleated ladder be used?

A
  • when ladders are the only way to enter or exit a working area with 25 or more employees
  • when a ladder will serve simultaneous two-way traffic
160
Q

What should not be used on wood ladders?

A

paint and opaque covering (like varnish) on a wood ladder

161
Q

For non-self supporting ladders, Position at an angle where the horizontal distance from the top support to the foot of the ladder is ___ the working length of the ladder

A

1/4

162
Q

When using a portable ladder for access to an upper landing surface, the side rails must extend at least _____ above the upper landing surface

A

3 feet

163
Q

Equip a fixed ladder 24 feet or longer with either a:

A
  • Ladder safety device
  • Self-retracting lifelines with rest platforms every 150 feet or less
  • Cage or well, and multiple ladder sections, each section not exceeding 50 feet
164
Q

If using ladders where the employee or the ladder could contact exposed energized electrical equipment, they must have

A

nonconductive siderails such as wood or fiberglass

165
Q

Do not use the _________ as a step

A

top or top step of a stepladder

166
Q

A competent person must inspect ladders for

A

visible defects, like broken or missing rungs

167
Q

If a defective ladder is found, immediately

A

mark it defective or tag it “Do Not Use”

168
Q

How should one properly climb a ladder?

A

Face the ladder when going up or down

Use at least one hand to grab the ladder when going up or down

Do not carry any object or load that could cause you to lose balance

169
Q

Always use the ________ _______ for the job

A

correct ladder

170
Q

Never ______ a ladder

A

overload

171
Q

Employees must train you in proper use of a ____

A

ladder

172
Q

Maximum allowable slope for stable rock?

A

Vertical (90 degrees)

173
Q

Maximum allowable slope for Type A (2) soil?

A

3/4 : 1 (53 degrees)

174
Q

Maximum allowable slope for Type B soil?

A

1 : 1 (45 degrees)

175
Q

Maximum allowable slope for Type C soil?

A

1 1/2 : 1 (34 degrees)

176
Q

Spoil piles need to be at a minimum of ___ _____ from the excavation hole

A

2 feet

177
Q

What depth of an excavation is protection required?

A

5 feet or more

178
Q

What is the maximum allowable distance to closest egress point within a trench?

A

25 feet

179
Q

At what depth is a ladder or steps required for trench access or egress?

A

4 feet

180
Q

Ladder must extend at least ___ ____ above their surface.

A

3 feet

for excavation, 3 feet above top of trench

181
Q

Fall protection is required at ____ feet

A

6

182
Q

What does I x R measure?

A

V : Voltage

183
Q

How is Power measured?

A

V x I

184
Q

What is the minimum voltage that can cause ventricle fibrillation?

A

75 mA

185
Q

What is Table K-1 in Subpart K?

A

Working Clearances

186
Q

What is the minimal working clearance (normal voltage to ground)?

A

3 ft^2

187
Q

What is the minimum front working clearance with electricity?

A

3 ft

188
Q

When using distance as a guard against 50 volts or more, what is the minimum elevation?

A

8 ft

189
Q

Does electrical equipment need to be thrown out if it is broken?

A

No, a qualified electrician may be able to fix it

190
Q

How far must a ladder extend beyond a surface?

A

3 ft

191
Q

What is the distance in which employees must be protected against a fall in construction?

A

6 ft

192
Q

A hole means a gap or void _____ inches or more in its least dimension

A

2 inches

193
Q

An opening means a gap or void ____ inches or more high

A

30 inches

194
Q

The top rail of a guardrail must be a minimum of ___ inches

A

39

195
Q

What is the optimal heigh in inches for the top rail of a guard rail to be?

A

42 inches

42 +/- 3

196
Q

What is the maximum free fall distance allowed?

A

6 feet

197
Q

The top rail must be able to withstand how much force?

A

200 lbs

198
Q

The mid-rail must be able to withstand how much force?

A

150 lbs

199
Q

The anchorage point for RESTRAINT must be able to withstand 2x the intended load or a force of ____ lbs

A

3000 lbs

200
Q

The anchorage point for ARREST must be able to withstand 2x the intended load or a force of ____ lbs

A

5000 lbs

201
Q

What is the minimum distance that excavated materials, tools, and other supplies be kept back from an excavation’s edge?

A

2 feet

202
Q

At what depth must a ladder, ramp, steps, or runway be present for quick worker exit in an excavation?

A

4 feet

203
Q

Unless work is being done in stable rock, at what minimum depth is protective system required in a trench?

A

5 feet

204
Q

What is the maximum distance a worker can travel to a degree point in a trench?

A

25 feet

205
Q

What are the routes of entry for health hazards?

A

Ingestion
Injection
Absorption
Inhalation

206
Q

What role does a competent person NOT play in scaffold work?

A

design

207
Q

Who is in charge of design for scaffolds?

A

A qualified person (such as an engineer)

208
Q

What’s the max exposure to noise for 8 hours?

A

90 dB

209
Q

What is PFAS?

A

Personal Fall Arrest System

210
Q

What is V ?

A

Voltage

211
Q

What is I ?

A

Current

212
Q

What is R ?

A

Resistance

213
Q

What is P ?

A

Power

214
Q

V =

A

I x R

215
Q

P =

A

V x I

216
Q

How can electricity cause harm?

A
  • Shock
  • Burns
  • Falls due to contact with electricity
  • Electrocution (death)
217
Q

What is Ohm’s Law?

A

used to describe the mathematical relationship between voltage, current, and resistance

218
Q

What is the ventricular fibrillation threshold?

A

100 mA

219
Q

Ventricular fibrillation will cause death in a few minutes unless

A

defibrillator is used

220
Q

What are the primary causes of electrocution?

A
  • Contact with overhead powerline
  • Contact with live circuits in panels
  • Poorly maintained cords and tools
  • Lightning strikes
221
Q

What is the best way to avoid electrical harm?

A

Eliminate the hazards

222
Q

When it comes to electricity, one must have ______ protection on construction sites

A

“open neutral”

223
Q

Electrical protection must be provided against:

A
  • Ground faults, the most common form of electrical shock hazard
  • Fires
  • Overheating
  • Destruction of insulation on wiring
224
Q

What is a GFCI’s?

A

Ground Fault Circuit Interrupters

225
Q

How do GFCI’s work?

A

Fast-acting circuit breaker sense small imbalances in the circuit caused by the current leakage and shuts off the electricity

226
Q

What are the three NEC classifications?

A

1) Class (material type)
2) Group (material properties)
3) Division (likelihood of hazardous atmosphere)

227
Q

What is a class I NEC?

A

Flammable and Combustible liquids and flammable gases

228
Q

What is a class II NEC?

A

Combustible dust

229
Q

What is a class III NEC?

A

Ignitable fibers or flyings

230
Q

What is a division 1 for NEC?

A

hazard generally exists during normal conditions

231
Q

What is a division 2 for NEC?

A

hazard generally exists only during abnormal conditions

232
Q

a letter designation (A-G) indicating the type of gas or dust we are dealing with

A

Group

233
Q

What are the main ignition sources?

A

Arcs and Sparks
Open Flames
Hot Surfaces

234
Q

What examples of arcs and sparks?

A 
Power sources
Static electricity
Lightning
Mechanical sparks
Light-alloy enclosures
235
Q

What examples of open flames?

A

Welding and cutting

Ovens and furnaces

236
Q

What are some other sources of ignition?

A 
Electromagnetic waves
Laser
Radiation
Chemical reactions
Stray currents
237
Q

Class I equipment shall not have any exposed surface that operates at a temperature in excess of ____ of the ignition temperature of the specific gas or vapor

A

80%

238
Q

The ignition temperature of the methane is

A

1112 degrees F

239
Q

The maximum temperature of any exposed surface cannot exceed _______ for class I equipment

A

890 degrees F

240
Q

All electrical systems should have a ______ so that all branches of the circuit are properly protected

A

short circuit evaluation

241
Q

Do not use electrical equipment unless it has

A
  • manufacturer’s name
  • trademark
  • descriptive marking
242
Q

Guard electric equipment operating at ______ accessible only by qualified persons

A

50 volts or more

243
Q

An assured equipment grounding conductor program should contain:

A

(A) Written description of program
(B) Competent person
(C) Inspect all cord sets before use daily

244
Q

Inspect insulating equipment:

A
  • prior to each day’s work

- immediately after any incident

245
Q

Unqualified Person:

A
  • know safe work distances

- recognize dangers of exposed energized parts

246
Q

Qualified Person:

A
  • know safety related work practices

- know step by step requirements necessary to provide protection

247
Q

Unless identified for use in the operating environment, no conductors or equipment shall be located:

A

-in damp or wet locations
=where exposed to gases, fume, vapors, liquids, or other agents having a deteriorating effect on the conductors or equipment
-where exposed to excessive temperatures

248
Q

What are some electrical hazards?

A
  • Electrical shock
  • Arc flash
  • Arc blast
249
Q

Arc Flash occurs when _____

A

electric current passes through air between ungrounded conductors or between ungrounded conductors and grounded conductors, the temperatures can reach 35,000 degrees Fahrenheit

250
Q

Burns skin directly and ignite clothing causing secondary burns

A

Arc Flash

251
Q

Arc flashes can cause _____ if flammable substances are present, and can create dangerous vapors

A

explosion

252
Q

Every year over _____ people are admitted to burn centers with severe arc flash burns (NFPA)

A

2000

253
Q

Hazards Associated with Arc Flash are:

A
  • Heat (35,000 ºF)
  • -Burns
  • -Ignition of Materials
  • -Molten metal
  • -Copper vapor
  • Second Degree Burn Threshold :
  • -80 ºC / 175 ºF (0.1 sec), 2nd degree burn
  • Third Degree Burn Threshold:
  • -96 ºC / 205 ºF (0.1 sec), 3rd degree burn
  • Intense Light
  • -Damage eyes – cataracts
254
Q

What is an Arc Blast?

A

Extreme temperatures of the electrical arc cause explosive expansion of both the surrounding air and the metal in the arc’s path

255
Q

The sudden expansion of an arc blast creates

A
  • Extremely high air pressures
  • Loud sound
  • Shrapnel and molten metal that fly at speeds exceeding 700 mph
256
Q

What effects do Arc Blasts have on the body?

A
  • Pressure can knock you off your feet and collapse your lungs
  • The sound (as loud as 160 dB) can rupture ear drums
  • Flying material and molten metal can burn you and penetrate deep into your body
257
Q

_______ is red and sensitive to touch. There is minimal skin damage and only the skin surface is involved

A

First Degree Burn

258
Q

_______ involves the first and second layers of skin. The skin reddens intensely and blisters develop. Severe pain and swelling occur and chance for infection is present

A

Second Degree Burn

259
Q

_______ causes charring of skin and coagulation of blood vessels just below the skin surface. All three layers of skin are affected. Extensive scarring usually results

A

Third Degree Burn

260
Q

Elements of Safe Electrical Work Practices

A
  • Safety principles
  • Program controls
  • Rules for working on or near live parts
  • A hazard evaluation procedure
  • -Used to calculate the risks before you begin work on or near live parts operating at 50 volts or more
  • Job briefing requirements
  • Job briefing checklists
261
Q

Equipment is ____ and _____ be energized

A

not

cannot

262
Q

Circuit or part to be worked on or near is:

A
  • Disconnected from energized parts
  • Locked and/or tagged so it can’t be energized unexpectedly
  • Tested to make sure there is no voltage
  • Grounded if necessary
263
Q

an assessment performed by your employer to determine the voltage, boundary requirements, and personal protective gear needed to prevent electrical shocks; determine approach boundaries

A

Shock Hazard Analysis

264
Q

determines the risk of arc flash, sets a flash protection boundary based on incidence energy, and list required PPE and other safety measures

A

Flash Hazard Analysis

265
Q

What is a Flash Protection Boundary?

A

The distance from exposed live parts within which you can get a second degree burn if an arc flash occurs

266
Q

In most systems of 600 volts or less, the Flash Protection Boundary is

A

four feet

267
Q

A mathematical formula is used to

A

calculate the boundary at higher voltages and for various fault currents and clearing times

268
Q

Personal Protective Equipment, PPE, for the arc flash is

A

the last line of defense

269
Q

Third party qualified evaluator

A

Documentation - Yes

Portable - Yes

270
Q

Employer qualified evaluator

A

Documentation - Yes

Portable - Yes

271
Q

Operations procedures must be developed by a qualified person

A

when the manufacturer’s procedures are unavailable

272
Q

Procedures related to the capacity of the equipment must be developed by a __________ (familiar with the equipment) when the manufacturer’s procedures are unavailable

A

registered professional engineer

273
Q

When workers must be in the fall zone to handle a load, the load must be rigged by

A

a qualified rigger

274
Q

OPERATOR QUALIFICATION / CERTIFICATION Options:

A

1) Accredited testing organization
2) Audited employer program
3) U.S. military
4) State/local license

275
Q

What are the types of crane inspections?

A
  • Modified or repaired/adjusted
  • Post-assembly
  • Shift
  • Monthly
  • Annual
276
Q

Modified or repaired/adjusted

A

Qualified person

277
Q

Post-assembly

A

Qualified person

278
Q

Shift

A

Competent person

279
Q

Monthly

A

Competent person

280
Q

Annual

A

Qualified person

281
Q

What is total fall distance?

A

18.5

282
Q

What are the factors that go into the 18.5 requirement?

A

6 feet: height of worker
6 feet: free fall lanyard
3.5 feet: deceleration distance
3 feet: clearance

283
Q

What is the difference between a Personal Fall Arrest System and a Personal Fall Restraint System?

A

A personal fall arrest system keeps the worker from hitting the ground and getting injured or dying at the result of a fall while a personal fall restraint system keeps the worker form even entering the fall zone and prevents the fall from occurring

284
Q

What is the difference between an excavation and trench?

A

OSHA defines an excavation as any man-made cut, cavity, trench, or depression in the Earth’s surface formed by earth removal. A trench is defined as a specific type of excavation, a human-made narrow surface cavity that is deeper than it is wide and is less than 15 feet wide

285
Q

What is the role of competent person for excavations?

A
  • Required training and knowledge
  • -Soil classification
  • -Use of protective systems
  • -OSHA’s requirements for excavation
  • Able to identify hazards and have the authority to eliminate hazards
286
Q

When must inspections must be made for excavation work?

A
  1. Before work begins.
  2. After rainstorms, high winds, or other occurrences that may increase hazards.
  3. When it can reasonably anticipated that a worker will be exposed to hazard(s).
287
Q

What is the greatest hazard for excavations?

A

Cave-ins pose the greatest risk and are much more likely than other excavation related accidents to result in worker fatalities

288
Q

One cubic foot of soil weighs between

A

90-130 lbs

289
Q

Never enter an unprotected trench that is ____ in depth

A

5 or more feet

290
Q

The competent person must first choose and implement

A

a protective system

291
Q

Even excavations less than 5 feet deep need to be _____ by the competent person

A

deemed safe

292
Q

What are types of Protective Systems for excavations?

A
  • Support/shoring systems
  • Sloping and benching
  • Shielding systems (trench boxes)
293
Q

if designed and installed correctly, prevents movement of the excavated wall

A

Shoring

294
Q

removes the risk of cave-ins by sloping the soil of the trench back from the trench bottom

A

Sloping

295
Q

are designed to protect workers from the forces of a cave-in

A

Trench shields and boxes

296
Q

Structures become unstable when

A

earth next to them is removed

297
Q

Before starting work, the OSHA standard requires your employer to do the following:

A
  • Determine the approximate location of utility installations—sewer, telephone, fuel, electric, and water lines; or any other underground installations
  • Contact the utility companies or owners involved to inform them of the proposed work within established or customary local response times
  • Ask the utility companies or owners to find the exact location of underground installations. If they cannot respond within 24 hours (unless the period required by state or local law is longer) or cannot find the exact location of the utility installations, you may proceed with caution.
298
Q

What is a spoil pile?

A

excavated or other materials or equipment that could pose a hazard by falling or rolling into excavations near the edge of the excavation

299
Q

When mobile equipment is operated adjacent to an excavation;

A

the operator must have a clear and direct view of the edge of the excavation, or… A warning system shall be utilized such as barricades, hand or mechanical signals, or stop logs. If possible, the grade should be away from the excavation

300
Q

Employees exposed to public vehicular traffic shall be provided with, and shall wear

A

warning vests or other suitable garments marked with or made of reflectorized or high-visibility material

301
Q

A competent person must test any excavation deeper than ______ or where an __________ or could reasonably be expected, such as a landfill or where hazardous substances are stored nearby, before an employee enters it

A 
4 feet (1.22 meters) 
oxygen deficiency or a hazardous atmosphere is present
302
Q

Water changes everything and

A

makes soil less stable

303
Q

What degrees of access/egress should ramps be used?

A

0 - 20 degrees

304
Q

What degrees of access/egress should stairs be used?

A

30 - 50 degrees

305
Q

What degrees of access/egress should ladders be used for substandard use?

A

60 - 75 degrees

306
Q

What degrees of access/egress should ladders be used for preferred use?

A

75 - 90 degrees

307
Q

_____ must be worn in excavations because of overhead hazards

A

Hard hats

308
Q

During excavations, employers must:

A
  • preplan the work and use the one-call system to identify underground utilities
  • protect you from cave-ins and other excavation-related hazards
  • inspect the excavation at least daily and throughout the shift as needed
  • take prompt corrective action when a hazard is identified
  • respond to and correct hazards pointed out by you, the worker
  • make sure a ladder is within 25’ of your work area when deeper than 4’
  • keep excavated dirt, rocks and other materials back 2’ from the excavation’s edge
  • Test and monitor the air within the trench in areas suspect to atmospheric hazards
309
Q

If a trench box or shoring is used, never

A

leave its protection while in the trench

310
Q

What is the minimum distance that excavated materials, tools, and other supplies be kept back from the excavation’s edge?

A

2 feet

311
Q

At what depth must a ladder, ramp, steps, or runway be present for quick worker exit:

A

4 feet

312
Q

What is the greatest hazard facing a worker while working in a trench:

A

cave-ins

313
Q

Unless made in entirely stable rock, at what depth is a protective system required for a trench:

A

Any depth if the competent person says so
and
5 feet deep and greater

314
Q

Almost _____ scaffold related injuries annually

A

10,000

315
Q

Over __ scaffold-related fatalities annually

A

75

316
Q

Trigger height for fall protection for scaffolds is

A

10 feet

317
Q

What is guardrail height when primary its the primary fall protection?

A

38 inches

318
Q

__ inch when guardrails required and fall arrest used (e.g.: suspended scaffolds)

A

36

319
Q

________ determines Fall Protection feasibility for erectors and dismantlers

A

Competent Person

320
Q

Scaffold Competent Person must have:

A

Knowledge of structural integrity
Maintenance of scaffolds
Effects of potential hazards
Knowledge of standard

321
Q

General RequirementsFor All Scaffolds

A
  • support own weight and 4 X the maximum intended load.
  • suspension rope & hardware, 6 X the maximum intended load.
  • stall load of scaffold hoist not to exceed 3 times its rated load.
  • designed by a qualified person and built and loaded to design
322
Q

Scaffold platform construction requirements

A
  • Platforms fully planked or decked
  • -no more than 1” gaps
  • -maximum openings of 9½”
  • -scaffold platforms and walkways 18” wide
  • -ladder jack, top plate bracket, roof bracket, and pump jack scaffold at least 12” wide
  • -guardrails and/or personal fall arrest systems for platforms and runways not 18” wide
323
Q

Two of the most common scaffold violations:

A

No guardrails

Safe access not provided

324
Q

Scaffold access requirements

A
  • Must have safe access
  • No access by cross braces
  • Bottom rung not more than 24” high
  • Rest platforms at 35’ intervals
  • Sets access requirements for erectors and dismantlers ( September 2, 1997)
  • Can use some end frames for access
325
Q

_____ can be used in lieu of guardrails on some scaffolds

A

PFAS

326
Q

Toe boards should be at edges of platforms because of

A

falling object protection

327
Q

Common Sources of Scaffolding Hazards

A
  • Bases
  • Bracing
  • Scaffolds Loads
  • Working Loads
328
Q

An aerial lift can be used to

A

work safely at elevations

329
Q

PPE is the ___ level of control

A

last

330
Q

Engineering Controls:

A
  • Physical changes to workplace
  • -Isolation
  • -Ventilation
  • -Equipment modification
331
Q

Administrative Controls:

A
  • Requires worker to do something
  • -Proper procedures
  • -Inspection and maintenance
  • -Housekeeping
  • -Supervision
  • -Regulated areas
  • -Limit exposure by time or distance
332
Q

Employers must ensure that their employees wear head protection if any of the following apply:

A
  • Objects might fall from above and strike them on the head
  • They might bump their heads against fixed objects, such as exposed pipes or beams
  • There is a possibility of accidental head contact with electrical hazards.”
333
Q

What are the classes of hard hats?

A

G,E,C

General
Electrical
Conductive

334
Q

Class G (General) Hardhats:

A

General service (e.g., building construction, shipbuilding, lumbering, and manufacturing)
Good impact protection
Limited voltage protection(proof-tested at 2,200 volts)

335
Q

Class E (Electrical) Hardhats:

A

Electrical work
Protect against falling objects
Protect against high-voltage shock/burns (proof-tested at 20,000 volts)

336
Q

Class C (Conductive) Hardhats:

A

Designed for comfort, offers limited protection
Protects heads that may bump against fixed objects
Does not protect against falling objects or electrical hazards

337
Q

Common Causes of Eye Injuries:

A
  • Dust
  • Flying particles
  • Harmful chemicals
  • Intense light
  • -Welding
  • -Lasers
338
Q

Safety Glasses protect against:

A

Flying particles from wood, metal, cement, plastics, or other materials

Airborne particulates such as ashes, dust, embers, sand blast, grit, paint, or other materials

339
Q

Goggles protect

A

eyes, eye sockets and facial area around eyes from impact, dust, & splashes

340
Q

Welding Shields:

A
  • Protect eyes from burns
  • -Infrared light
  • -intense radiant light
  • Protect face and eyes from
  • -flying sparks
  • -metal spatter slag
341
Q

Shields are for face protection, not

A

eye protection

342
Q

Exposure to over ____ can cause hearing loss

A

85 dB

343
Q

Hearing protection required at

A

90 dB

344
Q

Employers must provide hand protection when employees are exposed to hazards

A
  • Skin absorption of harmful substances
  • Severe cuts or lacerations
  • Severe abrasions
  • Punctures
  • Chemical and thermal burns
  • Harmful temperature extreme
345
Q

What are the different types of gloves?

A

Anti-vibration, leather palm, permeating resistant, heat resistant, cut resistant

346
Q

Causes of Foot Injuries:

A
  • Heavy objects
  • Sharp objects
  • Molten metal
  • Hot surfaces
  • Slippery or wet surfaces
  • Electrical hazards
347
Q

Causes of bodily injuries:

A
  • Intense heat
  • Splashes of hot metals or hot liquids
  • Impacts from tools, machinery, or materials
  • Sharp objects
  • Hazardous chemicals
  • Contact with potentially infectious materials
  • Radiation
348
Q

Employers must in terms of PPE:

A
  • Assess hazards
  • Select appropriate PPE and determine when to use
  • Provide some PPE at no cost to employee
  • Make sure that employee-owned PPE is adequate, properly maintained and sanitary
  • Train employees and enforce use of PPE
349
Q

Who is responsible for providing PPE?

A

The employer

350
Q

Safety controls must meet the following order of priority:

A

Substitution, engineering, administrative, and PPE

351
Q

Which type of hard hat would provide the most protection from electrical hazards?

A

Class E

352
Q

Who is responsible for providing specialized work footwear?

A

The employer

353
Q

Which of the following is considered approved eye protection?

A

Glasses meeting ANSI standard Z87

SAFM 470 (2 decks)

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