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AWS/AWOAC Entrance Exam > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the aeromedical evacuation Standard?

A

One Hour

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2
Q

Army Air ambulance companies are what type of units?

A

Medical Companies

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3
Q

What is the timely and effective movement of the wounded, injured or ill on dedicated and properly marked platforms?

A

MEDVAC

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4
Q

What is an AXP?

A

Ambulance Exchange Point- Point where patient is transferred from one ambulance to another enroute to MTF

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5
Q

What is a MIST report, and when should it be sent?

A

Mechanism of injury, Injury type, Signs, Treatment, ASAP after 9-Line

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6
Q

Who is responsible for providing guards on detainee patients?

A

Supported Commander

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7
Q

When should urgent requests for resupply of blood and Class VII be launched?

A

Same as any urgent/urgent surgical request without delay

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8
Q

Any movement of injured or ill between treatment facilities utilizing NON-Medical assets is known as what?

A

CASEVAC

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9
Q

Which aircraft need to be configured to support combat ops and securing litters or ambulatory patients?

A

Designated CASEVAC (Dedicated performs no other mission except CASEVAC)

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10
Q

What are the items of a 9-Line

A
  1. Location of pickup site.
  2. Radio, frequency, call sign and suffix.
  3. Number of patients by precedence.
  4. Special equipment required.
  5. Number of patients by type.
  6. Security of pickup site/Number and type of wound, injury or illness.
  7. Method of marking pickup site.
  8. Patient nationality and status.
  9. CBRN/Terrain.
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11
Q

Air Ambulance companies are limited to what missions?

A

Transporting sick, wounded, or injured persons. Transporting medical department personnel. Transporting supplies and equipment used in the care and treatment of the sick, wounded, or injured. Instructing personnel required to use air ambulances. Operating in support of humanitarian assistance missions.

Operating solely as dedicated evacuations platforms.

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12
Q

MEDVAC requests should be transmitted using what?

A

Secure communications for operational security

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13
Q

The most important element of an OPORD is what?

A

The Commander’s Intent.

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14
Q

Are company planners expected to execute MDMP or TLP?

A

TLP

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15
Q

Are brigade and battalion planners expected to execute MDMP or TLP?

A

MDMP Military decision-making process

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16
Q

Who can approve changes after the AMCM>

A

The AATF S-3, executive officer, or commander must approve changes after the AMCM

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17
Q

Who can approve changes after the AMB?

A

The AATFC must approve changes to the air assault mission after the air mission brief.

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18
Q

Can local Commanders deviate from the AV Branch SOP?

A

Yes, but must ensure the SOP clearly identifies where the deviation departs from the standard SOP.

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19
Q

What dictates a Mission Planning Cell size?

A

The mission size and time.

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20
Q

All graphics, symbology, and planning will be IAW what publications?

A

ADP 1-02 and the Aviation Handbook

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21
Q

How many times should planning products be checked to ensure accuracy?

A

Triple-checked

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22
Q

What are the mandatory items a mission packet must include?

A

COMM Card, TDH, EA/LZ/PZ Sketch (as applicable), FARP and HA sketch (if applicable), and IIMC

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23
Q

All video collected and produced by the S-2 will be treated as what type of material and handled as such?

A

Classified

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24
Q

What documents are required to be briefed at the AMB?

A

PZ/LZ cards, Air-movement cards, Commo Cards, RTE Cards, GTP, X-check. (AV Ops SOP, Figures 6-4 thru 6-8)

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25
What mission document keeps an A/A on a scheduled timeline?
X-Check
26
What are the 5 planning cells IAW the AV Handbook?
Threat/Enemy/WX, Friendly/Maneuver/Fires, Protection/Flight coordination/Contingencies, Sustainment, Command and Signal.
27
After completing initial mission analysis and planning, what should the Company Commander or AMC conduct that allows them to explain how they intend to accomplish their mission?
A Mission Back Brief
28
UAS Mission Planning will be initiated based on what?
The approved Intelligence Surveillance Reconnaissance (ISR) sync matrix or information collection matrix provided by the Brigade S-2
29
Who has the authority to dynamically re-task the mission based on unplanned higher-priority requirements?
Brigade Current OPS
30
What is the goal of Army Aviation field maintenance?
To support the operations and objectives of the maneuver commander.
31
Mission capable aircraft are the sum of what for purposes of reporting? what is the difference?
Fully Mission Capable and Partially Mission Capable
32
The aviation field maintenance MOE fall into what four categories?
Combat power measures, maintenance measures, technical supply measures, and core unit measures
33
Who is the first-line of defense in the prevention of accidents?
First-line supervisors
34
What are the two methods of sustainment in the positioning maintenance support concept?
line of effort/Hub and spoke
35
What is the most important step to P4T3?
Correctly identifying the problem
36
What is the goal of Army Aviation maintenance?
Provide maneuver commander freedom of action, extended operational reach, and prolonged endurance
37
What combat power measures provide tangible information to track and manage the readiness posture of a unit's aircraft?
OR/RTL rates, bank time, and recovery capabilities
38
What are the two levels of aviation maintenance?
Field and sustainment
39
What is the determining factor for if maintenance is considered field or sustainment?
Generally, if the work can be performed within the CAB, or if the work requires a national level provider.
40
In what publication would you find the steps to document in aircraft notebook, "evacuating an aircraft with a grounding X condition"?
DA PAM 738-751
41
Are one time evacuation missions (recovery missions) allowed more than one fuel stop in order to recover the aircraft?
Yes
42
Who in your chain of command can authorize evacuating an aircraft with grounding X condition?
The commander, a designated representative, or equal management supervisor in a DOD contract maintenance support activity.
43
Are aircraft on a one-time evacuation mission required to stop at the first maintenance facility that can support the maintenance repairs required?
Yes
44
You open your aircraft logbook for pre-flight and notice that there is a grounding X condition written-up on your aircraft. What does this indicate?
Fault, deficiency, or condition (Actual or potential) exists, making the aircraft, system, and or subsystem or associated equipment unsafe to operate and or fly
45
TM 1-1500-328-23 states leaders at all levels are required to ensure that Army policy and procedures for the detection and treatment of corrosion on aviation assets are followed, does this include Air Traffic Control (ATC) equipment?
Yes, it includes ATC equipment
46
Does a maintenance facility that can complete your repairs have to be an Army facility?
No
47
What is the maximum range and endurance of the RQ-7BV2?
125 km and 9 Hours
48
What is the maximum endurance of MQ-1C?
24 Hours and Extended Range 40 Hours
49
What is BLOS and which Army UAS has this Capability??
Beyond Line of Sight / MQ1-C Grey Eagle
50
When is reconnaissance performed?
Before, During, and After Operations
51
What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance?
GO DR DRE
52
What are the reconnaissance techniques?
Push and Pull
53
What are the reconnaissance management?
Cueing, Mixing, and Redundancy
54
What are the forms of reconnaissance?
Zone, Area, Route, Reconnaissance in Force, Special
55
What are the elements of the Commanders Reconnaissance Guidance?
Focus Tempo Engagement criteria and Disengagement criteria
56
What is inherent in all security operations?
Reconnaissance
57
What are the fundamentals of security?
MOPPP
58
What are the elements of the commander's security Guidance?
Focus Security Duration Engagement Criteria and Disengagement Criteria
59
What are the types of security operations?
Screen Guard Cover Area Security
60
IAW ATP 3-04.1 What should the Troop Threat Planning Cell do with the enemy SITTEMP?
Refine it and share this information with the rest of the planning cells.
61
This offensive operation does not require aviation planners to integrate closely with a ground maneuver unit and the AMC controls the maneuver and fires
Attack against enemy forces out of friendly contact
62
An offensive task that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes, and secures terrain, or both
Attack
63
An offensive control measure that designates a general location from which an attack company conducts the tactical task of attack by fire?
Attack by fire position
64
This type of attack method is employed to ensure that at least one company is in the battle at all times.
Continuous attack
65
This type of attack method exerts increased firepower on the enemy
Phased attack
66
Given sufficient planning time, primary, alternate, and supplemental firing positions may be planned for. True or false.
True
67
A __________ ___ _______ ___________ is an offensive control measure that designated the general position from which a unit conducts the tactical mission task of support by fire.
Support by Fire Position
67
The commander controls fires from the attacking element using two processes
Triggers and Fire Commands
68
Engagement area development (steps 1-3) is the responsibilty of:
Battalion Planners
69
Units perform a movement to contact when the ________ ________ is unclear or when the enemy force is successful in _________ ________ with friendly forces
Tactical situation breaking contact
70
A movement to contact decreases the odds of a meeting engagement (T or F)
False, increases
71
The forward security force may be organized into one of two forces, what are they?
Advance guard force Covering force
72
The more unknown the enemy situation, the larger this force may be:
Reserve Force
73
When does a movement to contact end?
A/C reaches the objective or limit of advance without enemy contact Upon contact with the enemy force
74
A movement to contact is typically slower than a zone reconnaissance? (T/ F) Why?
False Faster because it is enemy-focused
75
Movement to contact technique that parallels the characteristics of area security is:
Search and attack
76
Movement to contact technique that focuses on capturing or destroying enemy forces or contraband:
Cordon and search
77
Define Air Assault:
The movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing or tilt rotor aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.
78
The supported unit in an Air Assault Task Force is:
Ground (Manuever) Force
79
Who is responsible de-conflicting airspace and preventing fratricide of friendly aircraft?
The ADAM cell
80
True/False: Flight leads are responsible for selecting flight routes (primary and alternate) within the axis of advance, developing timing for the routes, and submitting route card data to the aviation staff for production of route navigation cards.
False: Flight leads are responsible for assisting
81
Which phase of the reverse planning sequence is the foundation for successful air assault?
Ground tactical plan
82
During which phase of the reverse planning sequence are rehearsals completed?
Staging plan
83
What is the AMB?
A "back brief" to the AATFC in which the AATFC will approve the plan.
84
What are the required documents at the AMB?
Air movement table Commo Card P/U diagram Landing zone diagram Operations sketch Route cards Execution checklist
85
What are considered essential to time constrained planning?
Unit SOPs, habitual relationships, combined training, familiarity with systems and the area of operations, and rehearsals
86
Im inbound to the PZ, what radio network do I contact PZ control on?
CAN
87
What is the Air Battle Net (ABN) reserved for?
The air battle net is a common network reserved for all aviation assets.

AWS/AWOAC Entrance Exam (5 decks)

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