Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

How does the nurse perform an abdominal assessment?

A

Inspection is followed by auscultation for bowel sounds before percussion and palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What would the nurse find upon inspection of the abdomen (5)?

A
  • abdomen should be flat and symmetric.
  • no scars, striae, or varicosity.
  • skin should be even toned, and the umbilicus should be midline with no noted hernias.
  • there should be no distention, visible pulsations, or peristaltic waves noted.
  • respirations should be even, and no evidence of the use of accessory muscles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How would the nurse perform auscultation of the abdomen (3)?

A
  • auscultate all 4 quadrants for bowel sounds.
  • recommend to start at the point of the ileocecal valve (slightly right and below the umbilicus;RLQ) and proceed clockwise (RLQ, LLQ, LUQ, RUQ).
  • listen to each quadrant for a full minute.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of percussion during an abdominal assessment (3)?

A
  • percuss all 4 quadrants, listening for tympany or dullness.
  • used to determine organ size and tenderness.
  • also detects any fluid, air, or masses in the abdominal cavity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of palpation during an abdominal assessment (2)?

A
  • light palpation in all 4 quadrants.
  • observe for nonverbal signs of pain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the 2 methods used to map the location of abdominal findings:

A

1) 4 Quadrants: RUQ, RLQ, LLQ, LUQ
2) 9 regions: R-hypochondriac, epigastric, L-hypochondriac, R-ight lumbar, umbilical, L-lumbar, R-inguinal, hypogastric, L-inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Identify the location of the major organs in the abdomen:

A

1) locations in quadrants
2) locations in regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

high-pitched gurgles or clicks that last from 1 to several seconds
- there are 5-30 gurgles per minute or one sound every 5-15 seconds in the average adult

A

bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

increased bowel sounds that occur with diarrhea and early intestinal obstruction

A

borborygmi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

decreased bowel sounds that occur with a dynamic ileus, peritonitis, and post-anesthesia
- occur more than 30 gurgles per minute.

A

hypoactive bowel sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vascular bowel sounds include (3):

A

1) Bruits
2) Venous hums
3) Friction rubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • swishing sounds that indicate turbulent blood flow resulting from constriction or dilation of a tortuous vessel.
  • in the hepatic area, indicate liver cancer or alcoholic hepatitis.
  • over the aorta or renal arteries indicate partial obstruction of the aorta or renal artery.
A

bruits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • soft-pitched humming noises with systolic and diastolic components.
  • they indicate partial obstruction of an artery and reduced blood flow to the organ (best heard in the epigastric region, near the liver & over the umbilicus).
A

venous hums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

grating sounds that increase with inspiration and occur with liver tumors, splenic infarction, or peritoneal inflammation (auscultate over liver & spleen)

A

friction rubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the purpose of the lymphatic system (4)?

A
  • approximately 80 lymph nodes are in the head & neck region, serving as part of the immune system.
  • the vessels filter potential pathogens from the body.
  • they drain fluid that has moved outside the circulation back into the vessels.
  • they drain fluid along a path in a chain and have a particular direction of flow; an enlarged node indicates inflammation that is “upstream” from it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the names & locations of the lymph nodes of the head and neck?

A
  • Preauricular
  • Posterior auricular
  • Occipital
  • Tonsillar
  • Posterior cervical
  • Submaxillary
  • Submental
  • Anterior or deep cervical chain
  • Supraclavicular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Very common in Pts older than 60yrs and steadily increases with age (older adults often lack classic S&S seen in younger Pts).
- has subtler onset in older adults and the typical S&S (cold intolerance, constipation, fatigue, weakness, reduced appetite, hair loss, dry skin) can easily be missed when attributed to aging or chronic disease.
- psychiatric symptoms (i.e., depression) can also be presenting symptoms in the older adult.
- more common in females assigned at birth, especially older females.
- consider that Pt has a thyroid difficulty when several symptoms are “clustered together”: metabolism is slow, hoarse/slow speech, cool/dry/coarse skin, bradycardia, delayed reflexes.

A

HYPOthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • May present as an emergency known as a “thyroid storm” or “thyroid crisis” with S&S of hypermetabolism in many systems.
  • more common in females assigned at birth.
  • females are more likely to have a goiter than males (greatest prevalence is in premenopausal people).
  • an overactive thyroid gland increases the metabolic rate: eyelid retraction, eyelid lag, fine-finger tremor, moist/warm skin, brisk reflexes, tachycardia.
A

HYPERthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

an autoimmune disorder that is an inflammation of the thyroid gland; can cause a goiter

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

thyroid nodules and adenomas, small, noncancerous growths (start in cell layer that lines inner surface of thyroid gland); may secrete thyroid hormone and may cause hyperthyroidism

A

thyroid tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

papillary thyroid cancer, follicular thyroid cancer, anaplastic thyroid cancer, and medullary thyroid cancer

A

thyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the responsibility of the tongue (4)?

A
  • manipulates solids & liquids in chewing and swallowing.
  • involved in speech production and taste.
  • anterior 2/3 of tongue surface contain taste buds (vallate papillae) which identify sweet, sour, salty, and bitter tastes.
  • one of the body’s most vascular muscles; its blood supply includes the lingual, exterior maxillary, and ascending pharyngeal arteries.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the responsibility of the nose (2)?

A
  • primary organ for smell.
  • air within the nasal roof stimulates the olfactory receptors of cranial nerve I (CN I).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the grading scale of tonsils:

A

1+: tonsil obstructs 0-25% to midline
2+: tonsil obstructs 25-50% to midline
3+: tonsil obstructs 50-75% to midline
4+: tonsil obstructs 75-100% to midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  • another name for the nasal septum
  • anterior midline wall, divides the oval nares (nostrils), which are openings that lead into the internal nose and are lined with skin and ciliated mucosa.
  • the ciliated mucosa beginning in the nose warms, filters, humidifies inspired air at nearly 100% humidity by the time it reaches the lungs.
A

columella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • also known as oral candidiasis, it is a fungal (yeast) infection that can grow in your mouth/throat
  • may develop white, raised, cottage cheese-like lesions on the tongue and cheeks.
  • can be seen in babies, toddlers, adults over 65, and people with weakened immune systems.
  • meds such as corticosteroids & antibiotics can cause this.
A

thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

decreases the angle between bones or brings bones together

A

flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bending the ankle so that the toes move toward the head

A

dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

moving the foot so that the toes move away from the head

A

plantar flexion

30
Q

increases the angle to a straight line or zero degrees

A

extension

31
Q

extension beyond the neutral position

A

hyperextension

32
Q

movement of a part away from the center of the body

A

abduction

33
Q

movement of a part toward the center of the body

A

adduction

34
Q

turning of the joint around a longitudinal axis

A

rotation

35
Q

rotating an extremity medially along its axis

A

internal rotation

36
Q

rotating an extremity laterally along its axis

A

external rotation

37
Q

turning the forearm so the palm is down

A

pronation

38
Q

turning the forearm so the palm is up

A

supination

39
Q

a circular motion that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction

A

circumduction

40
Q

turning the sole of the foot inward

A

inversion

41
Q

turning the sole of the foot outward

A

eversion

42
Q

moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground

A

protraction

43
Q

moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground

A

retraction

44
Q

moving a body part upward

A

elevation

45
Q

moving a body part downward

A

depression

46
Q

moving the thumb to touch the little finger

A

opposition

47
Q

Grading scale for muscle strength:

A
  • 5/5 (100%) = normal: complete ROM against gravity and full resistance.
  • 4/5 (75%) = good: complete ROM against gravity and moderate resistance.
  • 3/5 (50%) = fair: complete ROM against gravity.
  • 2/5 (25%) = poor: complete ROM with the joint supported; cannot perform ROM against gravity.
  • 1/5 (10%) = trace: muscle contraction detectable, but no movement of the joint.
  • 0/5 (0%) = zero: no visible muscle contraction.
48
Q

to remember cranial nerves in order

A
49
Q

to remember cranial nerve functions (S = sensory; M = motor; B = both)

A

Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter More

50
Q

S&S of Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) [5]

A
  • sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body.
  • sudden confusion, trouble speaking, or difficulty understanding speech.
  • sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes.
  • sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance, or lack of coordination.
  • severe headache with no known cause.
51
Q

Grading Scale of Reflexes

A

4+: very brisk, hyperactive responses
3+: brisker than average
2+: average, normal
1+: diminished, low normal
0: no response

52
Q
  • used to assess LOC
  • scores eye opening, verbal response, and motor function
A

Glasgow coma scale

53
Q

What is assessed with level of consciousness (LOC)?

A
  • People visibly express through the degree of response to stimulus, with the highest level being spontaneous alertness
  • eye opening response
  • best verbal response
  • best motor response
54
Q

(1) enter room and observe normal arousal

A

spontaneous

55
Q

(2) state Pts name; ask them to open eyes

A

normal voice

56
Q

(3) use loud voice as no response to normal voice

A

loud voice

57
Q

(4) touch Pt’s shoulder or arm lightly

A

tactile (touch)

58
Q

(5) apply nail bed pressure to elicit pain response, telling Pt that you will be applying pressure

A

noxious stimulation (pain)

59
Q

Pt appreciates the environment and responds quickly to stimuli

A

alert wakefulness

60
Q
  • Pt is disoriented to time, place, or person
  • has shortened attention span
  • shows poor memory
  • has difficulty following commands
A

confusion

61
Q
  • Pt responds to stimuli appropriately but with delay & slowness
  • may respond to some, but not all (also described as lethargy or obtunded state)
A

drowsiness

62
Q

Pt is unresponsive and can be aroused only briefly by vigorous, repeated stimulation

A

stupor

63
Q

Pt is unresponsive and generally cannot be aroused

A

coma

64
Q

What is the difference between sensory & motor innervation?

A
  • Sensory = involves the senses such as smell, hearing, & touch
  • Motor = involves movement & function of muscles or glands
65
Q

Consists of 3 components of the brain (cerebrum, cerebellum, & brainstem) as well as the spinal cord.
- protected by the blood-brain barrier, skull, and vertebrae.

A

Central Nervous System (CNS)

66
Q
  • left hemisphere has more control over language & analytical abilities, including math & logic
  • right hemisphere is more involved with visual-spatial skills, emotion, intuition, and musical & artistic abilities
  • part of CNS
  • cerebral cortex, which forms outside of this, contributes to motor and sensory function, intellect, and language.
A

cerebrum

67
Q
  • afferent (sensory) stimuli travel through this to the cerebral cortex
  • efferent (motor) fibers leave the cortex to pass through this and the spinal cord.
  • part of CNS
A

brainstem

68
Q
  • under the occipital lobe in the posterior part of the brain
  • part of CNS
  • coordinates voluntary movement, posture, and muscle tone and maintains special orientation & equilibrium
A

cerebellum

69
Q
  • includes all of the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord
  • relays messages to the rest of the body
  • not protected by the blood-brain barrier or vertebrae, making it vulnerable to injury
A

Peripheral (Somatic) Nervous System (PNS)

70
Q
  • maintains involuntary functions of cardiac & smooth muscles and glands
  • has 2 components: (1) sympathetic [fight-or-flight] & (2) parasympathetic [rest & digest].
  • can both sense changes and make changes based on input
  • to regulate HR and BP, receives input from chemoreceptors & baroreceptors
  • based on input, sympathetic secretes epinephrine to increase BP, HR, & contractility whereas parasympathetic secretes acetylcholine to reduce HR and force of contraction.
  • 2 systems work in opposite ways to provide balance to the body’s overall function
A

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

71
Q

Risk factors for malnutrition include:

A

1) main cause in U.S. are poverty, alcoholism, hospitalization, aging, and eating disorders
2) others are poor dentition, chronic illness, multiple meds, social isolation, severe burns, and lack of knowledge