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Human Biology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the total number of bones in the human body?

A

206

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2
Q

which part of the body has the highest number of bones?

A

the hands and feet (28 in both hands and 28 in both feet)

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3
Q

how many axial bones are there?

A

80

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3
Q

how many appendicular bones are there?

A

126

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4
Q

what are the functions of bones?

A

support, protection, movement, storage (minerals, fats), hematopoiesis

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5
Q

what is hematopoiesis?

A

the formation of blood cellular components

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6
Q

what are the 4 bone shape classifications?

A

long, irregular, flat and short

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6
Q

describe long bones and give examples

A
  • not necessarily long, just longer than they are wide
  • ex: femur, all metacarpal and phalange bones
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7
Q

describe short bones and give examples

A
  • look like little cubes, about as wide as they are long
  • ex: tarsals (ankle bones) and carpals (wrist bones)
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7
Q

what are the two types of bone tissue?

A
  • compact bone
  • spongy bone
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7
Q

describe irregular bones and give examples

A
  • irregular in shape
  • vetebral bones, facial bones
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7
Q

describe flat bones and give examples

A
  • bones that are flat
  • ex: sternum, bones of the cranium
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7
Q

short and irregular bone structures are comparable to the structure of the ______ bone

A

long

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8
Q

what does compact bone look like when magnified?

A

like a bullseye

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9
Q

what does spongy bone look like when magnified?

A

honeycomb

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9
Q

a flat bone can be described as a “______ sandwich”

A

spongy bone

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10
Q

what is the trabeculae of spongy bone?

A

the delicate beams that give spongy bone its honeycomb-like appearance

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10
Q

what are the types of bone cells?

A
  • osteogenic cells
  • osteoblast
  • osteocyte
  • osteoclast
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11
Q

describe an osteogenic cell

A
  • stem cell
  • will divide to produce another stem cell and to create an osteoblast
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11
Q

describe an osteoblast

A

immature bone cell that builds bone matrix, contributing collagen to matrix

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12
Q

describe an osteocyte

A

mature bone cell (osteoblasts differentiate into osteocytes), job is to maintain the bone matrix

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13
Q

describe an osteoclast

A

multinucleate cell that degrades bone matrix, motile

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13
Q

______ fibers are responsible for bone’s strength and flexibility

A

collagen

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14
Q

the shaft of the bone is known as the _______

A

diaphysis

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14
Q

the epiphysis is made up of more ______ bone, whereas the diaphysis is made up of more ______ bone

A

spongy, compact

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14
Q

ends of bones are called _______

A

epiphyses

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15
Q

bone stem cells come from the ______ layer and an inner layer that’s called the ______

A

peritoneum, endosteum

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15
Q

what is the periosteum?

A

protective connective tissue covering around the entire outside of the bone except for the very ends

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15
Q

describe the epiphyseal line

A

the part of the long bone where growth occurs

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16
Q

______ cartilage is on the ends of bones and is specifically known as _____

A

hyaline, articular cartilage

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17
Q

what are the two sources of bone cells?

A

periosteum and endosteum

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17
Q

describe the medullary cavity (where is it, what is it lined by)

A
  • lined by: endosteum
  • filled with yellow bone marrow, where fat storage takes place (in adults)
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17
Q

in adults, spongy bone is full of ______

A

red bone marrow

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17
Q

describe the structure of the epiphysis of an adult long bone

A

articular cartilage > compact bone > spongy bone (red bone marrow) > endosteum lining inner portion

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18
Q

describe the structure of the diaphysis of an adult long bone

A

very thick compact bone > medullary cavity (yellow bone marrow) > spongy bone marrow on inside (lined with endosteum) > periosteum on outside, bone is highly vascularized

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18
Q

_______ fibers are responsible for adhering the periosteum to the bone

A

perforating

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19
Q

each ring of the compact bone is called a _______

A

lamella/lamellae

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19
Q

the _______ is the structural unit of the compact bone and is responsible for the bullseye look of the bone

A

osteon

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20
Q

describe the central canal of the compact bone

A
  • innervated
  • vascularized
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20
Q

_________ house the osteocytes

A

lacunae

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20
Q

___________ are tiny, hair-like canals into which the osteocyte processes move and allow for each lacuna to be connected and to connect to the central canal

A

canaliculi

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21
Q

what is ossification?

A

the process by which the body makes bone

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22
Q

describe endochondral ossification

A

occurs during embryogenesis, bones are first made in a hyaline cartilage model

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22
Q

most of the bones in the body are made by ______ ossification

A

endochondral

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23
Q

what is an articulation?

A

the place of contact between two bones, bone and cartilage, and bone and teeth

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23
Q

immovable joints are known as

A

synarthroses

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24
Q

what is the range of motion of a joint?

A

none to extensive (some joints allow for no movement)

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24
Q

bones articulate at a _____

A

joint

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25
Q

joint _____ is inversely proportional to joint stability

A

mobility

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25
Q

the more mobile a joint, the _____ stable it is

A

less

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26
Q

slightly movable joints are known as

A

amphiarthroses

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26
Q

what is the least stable joint?

A

the shoulder joint

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26
Q

what is the most mobile/movable joint?

A

the shoulder joint

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27
Q

freely movable joints are known as

A

diarthroses

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27
Q

T / F : most joints are diarthroses

A

true!

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27
Q

describe fibrous joints

A
  • no joint cavity
  • joint material consists of dense regular connective tissue that joins tissue to bones
  • immovable to slightly movable
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28
Q

describe suture joints

A
  • found in skull
  • dense regular connective tissue
  • interlocking fibers
  • immovable
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28
Q

describe gomphosis joints

A
  • roots of teeth in sockets of mandible, maxillae
  • fibrous periodontal ligaments
  • immovable
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28
Q

describe cartilaginous joints

A
  • no joint cavity
  • joint material: cartilage joining bones
  • immovable to slightly movable
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29
Q

Gomphoses and suture joints are examples of

A

fibrous joints

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29
Q

describe synovial joints

A
  • joint cavity between bones
  • freely movable!
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29
Q

pubic symphysis and intervertebral discs are examples of

A

cartilaginous joints, specifically fibrocartilaginous joints

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30
Q

T / F : most joints of the body are synovial

A

true!

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30
Q

in order to have a significant amount of movement between bones, there must be ___________ present

A

a joint cavity

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30
Q

there are ____ different kinds of synovial joints

A

6

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31
Q

the knee joint is primarily what two bones?

A

femur and tibia

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31
Q

in synovial joints, the bones are joined and enclosed by _________

A

a joint capsule/joint cavity that is fluid filled

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32
Q

describe the articular capsule

A
  • the “sock” of the synovial joint
  • continuous with the periosteum, encloses articulating bone ends
  • has inner and outer portions
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32
Q

the more warmed up you are, the _____ the synovial fluid is

A

thinner

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33
Q

what is the inner portion of the articular capsule? describe it

A
  • the synovial membrane
  • produces synovial fluid (has lots of capillaries)
  • made out of loose areolar tissue
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34
Q

what is the outer portion of the articular capsule? describe it/its function

A

strengthens, made out of the same stuff as the periosteum

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35
Q

what is the synovial fluid? why is it important?

A
  • liquid within joint cavity
  • lubricates the joint, shock absorbs, nourishes
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36
Q

_________ is the thin hyaline cartilage responsible for reducing friction between bones

A

articular cartilage

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37
Q

what is the functions of ligaments at/in a joint?

A

to reinforce joint capsule

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38
Q

what is menisci? what is the function?

A
  • fibrocartilage
  • shock absorption
39
Q

what is a bursa? what is its function?

A
  • sac of synovial fluid where bone can rub up against soft tissue
  • provides cushioning, reduces friction
40
Q

what is a tendon sheath?

A

elongated bursa

41
Q

what are fat pads? what are their functions?

A
  • adipose tissue
  • provide cushioning
42
Q

what bones make up the shoulder joint? how do they fit together?

A
  • humerus and scapula
  • head of the humerus fits into the Glenoid cavity of the scapula
43
Q

what is the reinforcing cartilage in the shoulder joint?

A

labrum

44
Q

the _____ joint is the most complex joint in the body

A

knee

45
Q

_____ is always the medial bone in the lower leg and the _____ is always the lateral bone

A

tibia, fibula

46
Q

reinforcing ligaments on the outside of the knee joint are known as

A

collateral ligaments

47
Q

what are the two reinforcing ligaments in the middle of the knee joint?

A

the ACL and PCL

48
Q

describe a first degree sprain

A
  • a mild sprain where a few fibers of the ligament are partially torn
  • no loss of function
49
Q

describe a second degree sprain

A
  • a moderate sprain
  • partial tearing of ligament itself
50
Q

describe a third degree sprain

A
  • most severe
  • complete tear or rupture of ligament
  • can have loss of function of joint
51
Q

sprains are injuries to

A

ligaments

52
Q

sprains occur by

A

forcible twisting of a joint

53
Q

what are common joint pathologies?

A
  • sprains
  • strains
  • dislocation
  • tendonitis
  • bursitis
  • osteoarthritis
54
Q

strains are due to

A

overstretching muscles and/or tendons

54
Q

why can/do strains take a long time to heal?

A

tendons have very little vascularization, slowing down the healing process

55
Q

a _____ will often coincide with a dislocation injury

A

sprain

56
Q

what is a dislocation?

A

when bones move completely out of place

57
Q

what is tendonitis? what causes it?

A
  • inflammation of a tendon
  • caused by overuse of a tendon and repetitive movements
58
Q

what is bursitis? what causes it?

A
  • inflammation of the bursa sacs
  • caused by trauma to the bursa
59
Q

what is osteoarthritis? what is it caused by?

A
  • bone and joint inflammation
  • typically caused by degradation of cartilage that occurs naturally over time
60
Q

what are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A
  • planar joint
  • hinge joint
  • saddle joint
  • ball and socket joint
  • pivot joint
  • condyloid joint
61
Q

define flexion

A

to decrease the angle of joint

62
Q

define extension

A

to increase the angle of joint

63
Q

define rotation

A

movement around a longitudinal axis

64
Q

define medial rotation

A

anterior surface inward

65
Q

define lateral rotation

A

anterior surface outward

66
Q

moving the arm further behind your body is an example of

A

hyperextension

67
Q

define abduction

A

away from midline

68
Q

define adduction

A

towards midline

69
Q

define circumduction

A

the movement of a limb in a circular direction (cone-shaped)

70
Q

define pronation

A

forearm with palm posterior (down)

71
Q

define supination

A

forearm with palm anterior (up)

72
Q

define palmar flexion

A

hand at wrist (bending wrist downward)

73
Q

define plantar flexion

A

foot at ankle (pointing toe up or down)

74
Q

define inversion

A

sole of foot inward (standing on outside of feet)

75
Q

define eversion

A

sole of foot outward (standing on inside of feet)

76
Q

define protraction

A

jaw or shoulder girdle away from midline

77
Q

define retraction

A

return jaw and shoulder to midline

78
Q

define dorsiflexion

A

flexion of foot at ankle

78
Q

define opposition

A

thumb to fingers (“okay sign”)

79
Q

describe a non-axial joint (structure, function, examples and locations)

A
  • not capable of any kind of angular movements
  • example: plane joint
  • structure: flat surfaces
  • function: gliding
  • example location: intercarpal and intertarsal
80
Q

describe a uniaxial joint and give examples

A
  • only one axis
  • example: hinge joint and pivot joint
81
Q

describe a hinge joint (structure, function, examples)

A
  • uniaxial
  • structure: concave/convex surfaces
  • function: flexion and extension movements
  • examples: elbow and knee
82
Q

describe a pivot joint (structure, function, examples)

A
  • uniaxial
  • structure: rounded bone surface fits into a ringed surface
  • function: rotation movements
  • examples: atlantoaxial joint (C1 and C2), proximal radioulnar joint
83
Q

describe a biaxial joint and give examples

A
  • 2 planes of movement
  • ex: condyloid joint and saddle joint
84
Q

describe the condyloid joint (structure, function, examples)

A
  • biaxial
  • structure: oval convex bone surface fits into a concave surface of second bone
  • function: flexion/extension and abduction/adduction
  • examples: MCP joints 2-5 (knuckles); wrist movements
85
Q

describe the saddle joint (structure, function, examples)

A
  • biaxial
  • structure: bone surface resembles a saddle
  • function: flexion/extension and abduction/adduction
  • ex: 1st carpometacarpal (CMC) joint (thumb)
86
Q

describe a ball and socket joint (structure, function, examples)

A
  • multiaxial
  • structure: rounded head of one bone into cup-like depression of second bone
  • function: flexion/extension, abduction/adduction and rotation
  • ex: hip and shoulder
87
Q

define articulation

A

a location where two or more bones meet

88
Q

muscle cells are called muscle ____________, how does their structure command this name?

A
  • fibers
  • elongated and cylindrical
89
Q

what gives the muscle fiber a striated appearance?

A

alternating light (I) and dark (A) bands

90
Q

what is the unit of contraction in the muscle?

A

sarcomere

90
Q

why are A bands dark?

A

there are both actin and myosin filaments there/overlapping

91
Q

an entire sarcomere is the space from what to what?

A

Z disc to Z disc

92
Q

what is the thin filament of the sarcomere? the thick?

A
  • thin: actin
  • thick: myosin
93
Q

which filament looks like beads on a string?

A

actin

94
Q

what is associated with the thick filament?

A

myosin + ATPase

95
Q

what is associated with the thin filament?

A

actin + regulatory proteins

96
Q

what is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

stores and releases calcium ions

97
Q

_________ are the “go signal” for contraction

A

calcium ions

98
Q

describe a neuromuscular junction

A

place where motor neuron ending (axon terminals) interacts with a muscle fiber

99
Q

what neurotransmitter is involved in muscle contraction?

A

ACh

100
Q

in order for calcium ions to be released, what must first occur?

A

neurotransmitter release + action potential

101
Q

what determines the different amounts of force a whole muscle can contract with?

A

frequency of stimulation and number of muscle fibers

102
Q

what is the difference between muscle fiber and whole muscle stimulation?

A
  • muscle fiber is all or nothing contraction
  • whole muscle contraction has a graded response
103
Q

describe a muscle twitch

A

single stimulus, low tension/force

104
Q

describe tetanus

A

fused peaks, continuous stimuli, no relaxation

104
Q

T / F : muscles don’t always shorten when they contract but they do all generate tension

A

T

104
Q

define/describe isotonic contraction

A
  • the same tension
  • cross-bridge formation, actin slides, muscle shortens, load is moved
  • ex: squats, curls
104
Q

what is the more typical type of contraction?

A

isotonic

105
Q

define/describe isometric contraction

A
  • the same length
  • actin does not slide, but muscle tension is generated
  • muscle cannot overcome the load
  • ex: putting hands in front of you and pushing on a wall
106
Q

contrast origin and insertion in terms of mobility

A
  • origin: less movable, fixed bone
  • insertion: more movable bone
107
Q

is origin or insertion usually proximal? distal?

A
  • origin: proximal
  • insertion: distal
108
Q

define/describe prime mover

A

the muscle(s) contracting and accomplishing most of the movement

109
Q

define/describe synergist

A

muscle(s) contributing less to the movement

110
Q

define/describe antagonist

A

muscle(s) producing opposite movement

111
Q

when looking at the bicep region of the arm, what is the prime mover? synergist? antagonist?

A
  • prime mover: biceps brachialis
  • synergist: biceps brachii
  • antagonist: triceps brachii
112
Q

define/describe fixator

A

muscle(s) that keep other parts of the body stable so that movement can occur

113
Q

Rectus femoris is an example of a muscle named for its…

A

fiber direction (vertical) and attachment (femur)

114
Q

muscles are named based on…

A

action, shape, location of the bone or muscle, the attachments, fiber direction, muscle size and number of origins

115
Q

what is an example of a muscle named for its number of origins?

A

biceps brachii and/or triceps brachii

116
Q

describe the levels of organization of muscle from whole muscle to myofilaments

A
  • myofilaments make up the myofibrils
  • myofibrils within muscle fibers/myofibers
  • muscle cells/fibers bundle together to form fascicles
  • fascicles make up the thickness (bulk) of the muscle
117
Q

describe the microscopic anatomy of the muscle fiber

A
  • sarcolemma covering muscle fiber
  • muscle fiber made up of myofibrils (100s-1,000s)
  • myofibril made up of myofilaments
  • two possible myofilaments: actin and myosin
118
Q

describe the events that occur in the stimulation and contraction of skeletal muscle

A
  1. motor neuron sends ACh to ACh receptors on muscle fiber
  2. Na+ diffuses into the cell
  3. action potential spreads rapidly along the sarcolemma
  4. calcium ions released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  5. actin-myosin cross-bridge formation
  6. sliding of the actin filaments, muscle shortening/contraction
119
Q

what are the 3 pathways for ATP regeneration during muscle activity?

A
  • direct phosphorylation
  • aerobic pathway
  • anaerobic pathway
120
Q

describe direct phosphorylation (energy source, product, oxygen use, duration of energy provision)

A
  • energy source: CP
  • oxygen use: none
  • products: 1 ATP per CP, creatine
  • duration of energy provision: 15 seconds
121
Q

describe the aerobic pathway (energy source, product, oxygen use, duration of energy provision)

A
  • energy source: glucose, pyruvic acid, free fatty acids from adipose tissue, amino acids from protein catabolism
  • oxygen use: required
  • products: 32 ATP per glucose, CO2, H2O
  • duration: hours
122
Q

describe the anaerobic pathway (energy source, product, oxygen use, duration of energy provision)

A
  • energy source: glucose
  • oxygen use: none
  • products: 2 ATP per glucose, lactic acid
  • duration: 40 seconds or slightly more
123
Q

select all of the functions of skeletal muscle

  • generates heat
  • maintains posture
  • moves food along the gastrointestinal tract
  • stabilizes joints
  • transports blood
A
  • generates heat
  • maintains posture
  • stabilizes joints
124
Q

select all of the terms or phrases that characterize cardiac muscle

  • intercalated discs
  • cylindrical cells
  • involuntary
  • multinucleate
  • forms heart walls
  • striated
A
  • intercalated discs
  • involuntary
  • striated
  • forms heart walls
125
Q

which of the following refers to one neuron and all the skeletal muscle cells it stimulates?

  • synaptic cleft
  • muscle fiber
  • motor unit
  • neuromuscular junction
A

motor unit

126
Q

select all of the characteristics and examples of isometric contraction.

  • muscle tension increases
  • muscle lengthens
  • muscle shortens
  • no movement occurs
  • lifting a baby
  • holding a baby in one position
A
  • muscle tension increases
  • no movement occurs
  • holding a baby in one position
127
Q

select the anterior abdominal muscle.

  • rectus femoris
  • biceps brachii
  • external oblique
  • latissimus dorsi
A

external oblique

128
Q

which special movement turns the sole of the foot medially?

  • eversion
  • inversion
  • dorsiflexion
  • plantar flexion
A

inversion

129
Q

when comparing skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle, which of the following characteristics is unique to just one muscle type?

  • striated appearance
  • spindle-shaped cells
  • under involuntary control
  • uninucleate cells
A

spindle-shaped cells (unique to smooth muscle)

130
Q

cross bridges form when __________

A

myosin heads bind to actin molecules on the thin filaments

131
Q

which of the following is a chewing muscle?

  • platysma
  • orbicularis oris
  • masseter
  • zygomaticus
A

masseter

132
Q

select the true statement regarding skeletal muscle attachments.

  • the insertion is the immovable or less movable attachment.
  • the origin is the more movable attachment.
  • during contraction, the insertion moves toward the origin.
  • each muscle attaches to bone or another connective tissue at no fewer than three points.
A

during contraction, the insertion moves toward the origin

133
Q

the orbicularis oris has a _______ fascicular pattern

  • circular
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • fusiform
  • pennate
A

circular

134
Q

the pectoralis major has a ________ fascicular pattern

  • circular
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • fusiform
  • pennate
A

convergent

135
Q

the sartorius has a ________ fascicular pattern

  • circular
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • fusiform
  • pennate
A

parallel

136
Q

the biceps brachii has a _______ fascicular pattern

  • circular
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • fusiform
  • pennate
A

fusiform

137
Q

The rectus femoris has a _______ fascicular pattern

  • circular
  • parallel
  • convergent
  • fusiform
  • pennate
A

pennate

138
Q

in a skeletal muscle fiber, the sarcomere is a repetitive unit that consists of the entire region between the __________

A

z-discs

139
Q

a fascicle is wrapped by a layer of connective tissue called __________

A

perimysium

139
Q

when the biceps brachii acts as the __________ to flex the forearm, the triceps brachii on the opposite side of the humerus acts as the __________ by opposing this movement

A

prime mover, antagonist

140
Q

the movement of a limb toward the midline of the body along the frontal plane is known as __________

A

adduction

141
Q

the plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the __________

A

sarcolemma

Human Biology (5 decks)

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