EXAM 2 Flashcards
1
Q
which vertebra is the anticlerical?
A
T11
2
Q
what are the four landmarks for performing and epidural?
A
ilial wings
S1
Dorsal spinous process of L7
3
Q
which species tends to have shorter blockier vertebra?
A
dogs
4
Q
atlantoaxial sublimation usually occurs due to malformation or hypoplasia of which structure?
A
dens
5
Q
which extra ligaments appear on the thoracic vertebrae?
A
intercapital
6
Q
where in C1 does the dens articulate?
A
fovea
7
Q
what kind of movement does atlas allow?
A
rotation of the head
8
Q
where is dens located?
A
C2
9
Q
dens is also called?
A
odontoid process
10
Q
T/F C1-C2 has an intervertebral disk
A
F
11
Q
function of the dens
A
hold C1 and C2 together
12
Q
a hypoplastic dens can cause?
A
-atlantoaxial subluxation
-more movement in that AA joint, C2 can luxate since transverse ligament has nothing to hold onto
13
Q
fuction of transverse ligament
A
holds dens in place
14
Q
function of dorsal atlantoaxial ligament
A
keeps C1 and C2 in place
15
Q
what can occur if there was a tear in the dorsal atlantoaxial ligament?
A
the vertebrae can pop up and pinch the spinal cord, spine of C2 moves up and pinches
16
Q
spinal intumescence
A
concentration of lower motor neurons
17
Q
C6-T2
A
nerves of brachial plexus
18
Q
to do a cerebrospinal fluid collection (high tap) where are you going?
A
cerebellomedullary cistern (cranial to C1)
19
Q
what is an anatomical characteristic that makes C6 identifiable?
A
large transverse process
20
Q
what runs between rib heads from T2-T11?
A
intercapital ligaments
more support and stability for body
21
Q
why is the lumbar region of the vertebrae more prone to having issues?
A
no intercapital ligaments, not very protected or cushioned, the spinal cord is sitting in a very small space so if a disc slips into the intervertebral space can cause neuro deficits
22
Q
what is the goal of an epidural?
A
bathe the area surrounding the dura matter
23
Q
cauda equina syndrome (lumbosacral stenosis)
A
disc pushing up on the caudal equine (femoral nerve, sciatic, pudendal, pelvic, coccygeal)
L7-S1
24
Q
screw tail
A
malformation of one to several vertebrae in the tail
causes skin to form around that malformation and cause infection
25
intervertebral disc disease type 1
abnormal cartilage development can lead to nucleus pulpous to be dry and brittle and can pop through annulus fibrosis
26
IVDD type 2
disc squashed between adjacent vertebral bodies, causing annulus fibrosis to bulge upward
27
canine dental formula for deciduous teeth?
313/313= 14
28
canine dental formula for permanent teeth?
3141/3143= 21
29
what is total deciduous teeth count in canines?
28
30
how many permanent teeth do canines have?
42
31
what are the carnassial teeth and what are their function?
4th premolar on top
1st molar on lower
-shearing teeth
-frequently broken teeth
32
feline deciduous dental formula
313/312= 13
33
feline permanent teeth formula
3131/3121= 15
34
how many deciduous teeth do felines have?
26
35
how many permanent teeth do felines have?
30
36
carnassial teeth in felines
same as dog (4th PM and 1st M), even though they have less teeth than dogs they are still considered the same numbering
37
where do you go for a rostral maxillary block?
through the infraorbital foramen
38
what area does a block of the infraorbital foramen numb?
block feeling from the distal aspect of upper premolar 3 to the midline of the maxilla
39
where would you inject for a caudal maxillary block?
behind the last molar
40
if you wanted to block everything on the ipsilateral side when doing a dental, what block would you do?
caudal maxillary block
41
where do you inject for a rostral mandibular block?
middle mental foramen
42
what area does the mental block numb?
numbs tissue from the mandibular second to third pre-molar rostral to the midline
43
what structure blocks the mental foramen?
frenulum (part of lip that attaches right under the first premolar)
44
where do you inject for a caudal mandibular block?
inferior alveolar area
splash block
45
what area are you blocking when doing an inferior alveolar block?
affects the tissue from the third mandibular molar to the midline
46
what nerve innervates almost all the muscles of the larynx?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
47
what is a complication of a cricoarytenoid lateralization
things can get lodged in the airway
48
how do you test for enlarged thyroid gland?
thyroid slip test in cats
49
how many internal and external thyroid glands are there
2 external
2 internal
50
between what veins is the mandibular gland between?
maxillary and lingual facial vein
51
what is sialocete?
accumulation of saliva that has leaked from an injured salivary gland or salivary duct
52
cervical mucocele
swelling in the upper neck
53
sublingual mucocele (ranula)
swelling within the mouth, below alongside the tongue
54
pharyngeal mucocele
swelling in the pharynx
55
zygomatic mucocele
swelling in the cheek area or below eye (zygomatic gland)
56
when repairing the aural hematomas how would you place sutures?
since the blood supply runs vertically you would have to place sutures the same way of direction of the vasculature or would become necrotic
57
where can nasopharyngeal polys and cats grow out of?
grow out of middle ear (tympanic bula) either in the canal or in the inner ear and out in throat
58
if a dog came in with no blinking during menace response, does not notice or follow cotton ball, bumps into objects during maze what nerve could be damaged
CN II optic
59
if a dog came in with atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscle, a decreased jaw tone, dropped jaw and unable to close mouth with difficulty eating or chewing what nerve could be damaged?
CN V trigeminal
60
if a dog came in and presents with facial drooping on one side of the lips and ears, drooling from affected side, not able to blink/close eye what nerve might be damaged?
CN VII facial
61
if a dog came in with deafness, a head tilt, and nystagmus what nerve may be damaged?
CV VIII vestibulocochlea
62
how many openings are there through the diaphragm?
3
caval
esophageal
aortic
63
which ligaments unite the rings of the trachea?
annular ligament
64
which lung pattern would you expect to see air bronchograms?
alveolar
65
which two valves have papillary muscles?
mitral and tricuspi
66
where do you aim for a pericardiocentesis?
cardiac notch
4-6th intercostal spaces
67
on what aspect is the trachealis muscle located in the trachea?
dorsal aspect on the inside of the trachea
68
how would you want to take an x-ray to determine if a tracheal collapse is either in or out of the thoracic cavity how would you want to shoot each one?
intra-thoracic: on expiration is worse because thats where the pressure is greater
extra-thoracic: when breathing in
Clinical signs are worse on inspiration for extrathoracic
Worse on expiration for intrathoracic
69
what are the 4 grades of tracheal collapse
1) 25%
2) 50%
3) 75%
4)100%
lumen % size reduction
70
what is in the cranial, middle, dorsal, and caudal parts of the central compartment of the thoracic cavity
dorsal- contains trachea, esophagus, thymus, etc
middle- contains heart
dorsal- contains major pulmonary vessels, aorta, thoracic duct
caudal- contains aorta, thoracic duct, esophagus, vagal nerves
71
alveolar disease patterns
when air within alveoli is replaced with a denser (could be pus) with a denser material, increasing opacity
72
bronchial pattern pulmonary disease pattern
when bronchial wall thickness is increased by cellular or fluid infiltration (increased thickness)
73
interstitial pulmonary disease pattern
structured- nodular or mass lesions in the lung
unstructured- excess fluid, cellular growth, or infiltration into supporting interstitial framework of the lung
74
what are lobar signs in alveolar pattern pulmonary disease
sharp margin created when a lobe with increased opacity abuts a normally aerated lobe that has less opacity
75
describe bronchial pattern on the x-ray what are the white and black arrows pointing to
-white arrow is pointing to ring shadows (head on view) created by the x-ray beam hitting an abnormal bronchus
-black arrow pointing to the tram lines created by the x-ray beam hitting abnormal bronchus side-on
76
what type of pulmonary disease pattern is this?
interstitial pattern- structured
77
what type of pulmonary disease pattern is this?
interstitial pattern- unstrucutred
increase in background opacity of lung
78
what is a cardiac auscualtion
-push the olecranon up against the chest wall, typically puts you at the center of the heart
79
what intercostal space is the mitral valve at
5th
80
what intercostal space is the tricuspid valve at
4th
81
what major vessel separates the atrium from the ventricle
great coronary vein
82
what major vessel separates the left and right ventricle
left coronary artery
83
describe the layers of the pericardium
(outer to inner)
-fibrous: tough outer sac that contains the serous pericardium, small amount of fluid, and the heart
-parietal serous layer: covers the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium
-visceral serous layer: epicardium, attached firmly to heart muscle, except where fat or vessels intervene
84
what valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle
mitral valve
85
what valve separates right atrium and right ventricle
tricuspid valve
86
systole
when heart contracts and pumps blood from the chambers into the arteries
87
diastole
when heart relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood
88
what does each lung lobe have?
an artery, bronchus, and vein
89
what are the three categories of heart failure
1) myocardial failure/systolic dysfunction
2) valvar regurgitation or obstruction leading to volume overload
3) increased myocardial stiffness/diastolic dysfunction
90
what is happening in the x-ray, signs of coughing and labored breathing pressure on the diaphragm so can't expand much
-cant see detail in abdomen
-right sided heart failure which causes the back-up from the vena cava, the inferior vena cava coming from abdomen to the heart, which causes abdomen in fluid
91
what is happening in this x-ray
-fluid in the lungs, bright tissue up higher
-left sided heart failure
92
what is congestive heart failure
CHF refers to a state of diminished cardiac function that results in increased venous pressure and accumulation of edema fluid
93
pulmonary congestion
can lead to distended vessels CHF
94
what is wrong?
-pericardial effusion
-most common cause of neoplasia
-can cause cardiac tamponade (sac filled with fluid return, ventricle filling, cardiac output
-cardiogenic shock
95
why is thoracocentesis?
removal of fluid or air from the pleural space for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes
96
crus
attachment to vertebral column
97
peritoneopericadial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH)
-abnormal development of the transverse septum of the diaphragm
-congential communication between the pericardial and peritoneal spaces
98
what is your landmark for the right gutter?
descending duodenum
99
when retracting the descending duodenum medially what will you see?
right kidney and right adrenal gland under the caudate lobe, right over, right limb of pancreas
RIGHT IS TIGHT (right kidney sits higher than the left)
100
what is your landmark for the left gutter?
decending colon
101
when retracting the left gutters medially what would you see?
left kidney
left adrenal gland
left ovary
102
where does the uterus sit compared to the bladder in females?
the uterus sits dorsal to the bladder
103
trigone
the triangle shaped region at the base of the bladder where the two ureters drain into and where the proximal urethra begins
104
when is it easiest to feel the prostate gland
rectally in intact males
105
where is the branching coming from and attaching when supplying the colon, bladder, ureters, female/male repro parts?
branching off the aorta and attaching at the dorsal aspect of each organ
106
when performing a cystotomy where would you want to make an incision?
on the ventral area because the vascular are attached to the dorsal aspect
107
if an intact female is in dorsal recumbency where can the uterus be found?
underneath or dorsal to the bladder
108
what attaches the ovary to to the body wall?
suspensory ligament
109
what connects the ovary to the uterus?
proper ligament (this site can be used to place a hemostat to hold onto the ovary during a spay)
110
what is the broad ligament?
a peritoneum that helps support the uterus and ovaries and attaches the uterus to the body wall (filled with fat, lymphatics an d blood vessels)
111
what ligament of the uterus supports and anchors the uteru?
round ligament
112
what arteries need to be ligated during a spay?
uterine artery
113
female cystotomy
-place u-catheter before surgery
-midline celiotomy
-identifiy and exteriorize bladder packed off lap sponges
-staay sutures to help elevate bladder
114
male cystotomy
-suction
-can place u-cath introp
- incisons on ventral aspect of bladder to avoid blood vessels and ureters
-scoop out bladder stones and flush normograde and retrograde
115
normograde
normally from inside out
bladder out
116
retrograde
from outside in
117
what is the holding layer of the bladder?
submucosa
118
what is the most common stone type?
struvite
119
what is the preferred method of diagnosing pyometra and what are you looking for?
ultrasound
anechoic fluid filled structures dorsal to the bladder
120
around what time does pymoetra typically present itself?
2-4 months after estrus
121
rectal exam
anal glands
stool consistency
anal tone
prostate
urethra
sub lumbar lymph nodes
lumbosacral pain
122
abdominocentesis
drawing fluid from the abdomen (acites)
123
sites to do abdominocentesis
-on linea alaba, caudal to umbilicus
-4 quadrant, 4 points around the umbilicus
124
what is 5
dens
125
what is 2, 4, and 6
2- atlantoaxial joint
4- dens (it passes the AA joint space)
6- intervertebral disc between C2 and C3
126
what's wrong?
AA subluxation
no dens (hypoplastic dens)
causes weakness of ligaments, which his causing the subluxation
127
what is 6
anticlinal vertebra T11
128
what is indicated by the black arrow?
block vertebra
dorsal articular process joint, meaning incomplete fusion has occurred
129
what is wrong
intrathoracic tracheal collapse
130
when do the canine deciduous incisors erupt?
4-6 weeks
131
when do the canine deciduous canines erupt?
5-6 weeks
132
when do the canine deciduous premolars erupt?
6 weeks
133
when do the canine molars erupt?
5-7 months
134
when do the canine permanent incisors erupt?
3-5 months
135
when do the canine permanent canines erupt?
4-6 months
136
when do the canine permanent premolars erupt?
4-5 months
137
when do the feline deciduous incisors erupt?
3-4 weeks
138
when do the feline deciduous canines erupt?
3-4 weeks
139
when do the feline deciduous premolar erupt?
6 weeks
140
when do the feline molars erupt?
5-6 months
141
when do the feline permanent incisors erupt?
3.5-5.5 months
142
when do the feline permanent canines erupt?
5.5-6.6 months
143
when do the feline permanent premolars erupt?
4-5 months
