Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

parasitology > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is an amoeba?

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

do amoebas require a host to live?

A

-no they can be free-living
-but benefit rom the interaction
-facultative parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the amoeba that most commonly infects dogs, cats, and humans?

A

entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the amoeba that most commonly infects reptiles?

A

entamoeba invadens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the species of amoeba that usually infects humans?

A

acanthamoeba spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the brain eating amoeba?

A

naegleria fowleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the amoebic life stages?

A
  1. trophozoites
    -amoeboid
    -motile
    -feeding/pathogenic
  2. cysts
    -round
    -non-motile
    -environmentally resistant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which amoebic life stage actively invades the tissue?

A

trophozoite stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

are both the cysts and trophozoites capable of being infectious/or if ingested in amoebic life stage?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the routes of infection for amoebas?

A

ingested (fecal-oral)
nasal mucosa (inhaled)
eye
skin abrasions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

where does the amoeba like to go once they are in the body

A

depends on where the infection starts
-intestinal
-extraintestinal: lung, liver, brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the highway to the brain?

A

the olfactory portal
-brain eating amoeba
-the amoeba can go through the cribriform plate and crawl through the nerve hole plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a concern for the mechanism of pathogenesis for amoebic infection in the brain?

A

the brain is in a fixed space so lots of pain, atrophy, and inflammation can overtime can cause detrimental effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do entamoeba invadens infect?

A

reptiles
-boas, colubrids, vipers, crotalids are most susceptible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common route of infection for entamoeba invadens?

A

fecal-oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is entamoeba invadens morphologically identical to and what is it specifically not transmissible to?

A

morphologically identical to E. histolytica
-not transmissible to mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why would you get extraintestintal signs of entamoeba invadens?

A

portal vein goes to the liver, causing necrosis in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the preferred route of infection for naegleria fowler?

A

through the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment for amoebic infections?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the life stages of ciliates?

A

trophozoites and cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is considered commensals in many large animals, but can rarely invade GI tract and cause disease?

A

ciliates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the causative agent of chagas disease?

A

trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the causative agent of dourine?

A

trypanosoma equiperdum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the causative agent of nagana?

A

trypanosoma brucei
T. congolense
T. vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the causative agent of surra?

A

trypanosoma evansi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the causative agent of canine leishmaniasis?

A

leishmania infantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is salivarian trypanosomes

A

transmitted by bite of vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is stercorarian trypanosomes

A

transmitted by feces of vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what species of trypanosomes transmit transplacentally?

A

T. cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how is nagana disease transmitted?

A

through bites of tsetse flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what animal does nagana disease affect?

A

domestic ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

acute nagana disease

A

high parasitemia with extensive hemorrhages of mucosa and serosal surfaces of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

chronic nagana disease

A

cattle become anemic and emaciated with signs of severe wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what tse-tse transmitted causes disease in horses, cattle, buffalo, sheep, and goats

A

T. vivax South America

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what disease is caused by a non-tsetse vectored trypanosome

A

surra disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what animals does surra disease infect?

A

domestic animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the vectors for surra disease?

A

tabard flies
vampire bats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the clinical signs of surra disease

A

-no pathognomonic signs Orr macroscopic lesions
-in horses fever, weight loss, lethargy, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does transmission occur in dourine disease?

A

through direct sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is a distinct sign in the acute stage of dourine disease?

A

edematous patches (silver dollar plaques)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

chronic stage of dourine

A

emaciation
paresis
intermittent fever
death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

clinical diagnosis of nagana disease

A

blood smear
serological test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

clinical diagnosis of surra disease

A

blood smear
PCR
serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

clinical diagnosis of dourine

A

clinical signs
serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

how to prevent dourine disease?

A

they need to be quarantines and tested by serology when new animals being introduced into herd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is American trypanosomiasis

A

chagas disease
caused by T. cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are reservoir hosts for American trypanosomiasis

A

opossums, armadillos, rodents, cats, pigs, raccoons, monkeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

routes of infection for chugs disease?

A

vector borne
triatomine (kissing) bug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where is canine chagas disease increasingly reported?

A

southern US, Texas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the at risk populations for chagas disease?

A

working dogs
young
diseases moms
outdoor dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

acute chagas disease

A

fever, anorexia, lethargy, lymphadenopathy, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

latent chagas disease

A

no clinical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

chronic chagas disease

A

congestive heart failure
dilated cardiomyopahty
arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

diagnosis of chagas disease

A

serology
ECG findings
*have to find in acute phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

treatment of chagas disease

A

no effective drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

leishmania is a protozoan parasite that causes what disease?

A

leishmaniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what animal are the species that are most often affected by leishmaniasis

A

dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

vector/mode of transmission of leishmaniasis

A

sand flies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the most common cause of canine leishmaniasis

A

leishmania infantum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the main reservoir host for human visceral leishmaniasis caused by L. infantum?

A

dogs
zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

life cycle of leishmania infantum

A

sandfly takes blood meal from host
injects parasites (salvarian trans)
parasite goes into macrophage and develop and multiply in immune cells and macrophage
lyse then reinfect more macrophages
sandflies feed and develop inside, repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

cutaneous leishmaniasis manifests as

A

-manifests as alopecia, scaling, and/or ulceration but can be nodular or papular
-many dogs develop onychogryphosis (long claws)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

visceral leishmaniasis

A

cutaneous form
development of autoantibodies and circulating immune complexes (attack tissues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

diagnosis of canine leishmaniasis

A

microscopy (gold standard)
serology
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the life stages of Giardia and which one is the infective stage?

A

trophozoite
cyst (infective stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is a key characteristic of Giardia cysts

A

thick-walled cyst, infective stage shed in feces
contain 4 nuclei when mature

67
Q

giardia duodenalis is subdivided into 8 genetic assemblages to what?

A

identify the type of host

68
Q

what is the transmission of Giardia duodenalis

A

direct ingestion of fecal giardia cysts

69
Q

explain variant-specific surface protein

A

there is only one type of VSP found on trophozoite surface except during differentiation and switching
-VSP receptors will switch surface coat so immune response will not recognize

70
Q

where are the trophozoites found in when Giardia cysts are ingested in dogs and in cats?

A

-trophozoites are found from the duodenum (releasing two trophozoites in duodenum) to the ileum of dogs
-but predominant in the jejunum and ileum of cats

71
Q

what is the pre patent period for giardia for cats and dogs?

A

cats- 5-16 days
dogs- 4-12 days

72
Q

what is the structural difference between giardia trophozoites and cyst

A

-trophozoites have the piriform shape (tear drop) with the two nuceli

73
Q

where is giardia is most often observed?

A

in young animals, where illness is typically more severe and persistent

74
Q

what is a common/unique way to identify that a dog/cat has giardia based off symptoms?

A

-they have foul and greasy stool
-mucoid, malodorous, light colored stool that may contain fat

75
Q

what is the genus that causes giardiasis in birds?

A

giardia psittaci
psittacine birds, parrots

76
Q

in what species of bird does most clinical cases of giardiasis occur?

A

budgerigars and cockatiels (they have poor growth and high mortality)

77
Q

does giardia duodenalis have a zoonotic potential when infection originates in domestic animals?

A

yes
public health risk

78
Q

what is the best way to diagnose giardiasis?

A

*zinc sulfate floatation
-microscopic examination fresh
-fecal immunoassays
-fecal PCR

79
Q

what diagnostics detect motile trophozoites in giardia?

A

direct saline smear

80
Q

where are trichomonads usually found?

A

where there is very little oxygen, like GI and urogenital tract

81
Q

what are key structures in trichomonads?

A

axostyle
undulating membrane
anterior flagella

82
Q

is the wall of the trichomonads cyst thick or thin?

A

thin walled
-thick-walled cyst stage are absent from the life cycle

83
Q

what causes bovine trichomonosis, a venereal disease of cattle?

A

tritrichomonas foetus
(in the reproductive tract)

84
Q

what are the disease patterns of bovine trichomoniasis in males and females?

A

males: asymptomatic
females: infects the vagina, uterus, uterine tubes, it gets cleared by end of breeding season but can reoccur again

85
Q

what are the diagnostics of bovine trichomoniasis?

A

-trophozoites sample or culture
culture- InPouch

86
Q

treatment for bovine trichomoniasis

A

none are safe and effective
ipronidazole (but causes injury site abscessation)

87
Q

what causes feline trichomoniasis in cats?

A

tritriichomonas blagburni

88
Q

how is tritrichomonas balgburi transmitted

A

fecal-oral

89
Q

where is feline trichomoniasis most commonly found in the body?

A

colon, ileum

90
Q

what is the most common sign of feline trichomoniasis?

A

chronic diarrhea that may contain blood or mucus

91
Q

how to diagnose feline trichomoniasis?

A

-trophozoites in fecal sample or culture
-culture InPouch feline

92
Q

what is the treatment for feline trichomoniasis?

A

none currently approved by FDA
ronidazole (no approved in companion animal, banned food animals bc neurotoxic)

93
Q

what species does pentatrichomonas hominis infect, where in the body, and how is it transmitted?

A

-primates, canids, felids, rodents, swine
-large intestine
-fecal-oral transmission

94
Q

what causes canine trichomoniasis?

A

pentatrichomonas hominis

95
Q

how would you treat canine trichomoniasis?

A

metronidazole

96
Q

how would you diagnose canine trichomoniasis?

A

microscopy (preferred method)
culture
PCR

97
Q

what species does histomonas meleagridis affect and where does it infect?

A

infects avian ceca, can spread to the liver
galliform birds- severe diseases in domestic turkey and some wild species

98
Q

what are the two morphological forms of histomonas melegridis?

A

they are pleomorphic (variety of morphology)
-flagellated luminal form
-amoeboid tissue dwelling form

99
Q

how is histomonas meleagridis transmitted?

A

-cecal nematode Heterakis gallinarum; intermediate host/vector of H. meleagridis
-cloacal drinking, intake of fluids through cloaca

100
Q

how would you diagnose histomonas meleagridis (histomoniasis)?

A

gross pathology of ceca and liver
microscope exam
PCR

101
Q

what are the unique disease patterns for histomoniasis?

A

-necrotic lesions on cecal wall and surface of the liver
-cecal perforation and peritonitis
-blackhead

102
Q

what causes trichomoniasis and what species ?

A

-trichomonas gallinae
-columniform birds (pigeons and doves) the main hosts

103
Q

where does trichomonas gallinae infect? how is it transmitted?

A

-upper digestive tract (canker); liver, other organs
-infected crop milk

104
Q

what are the diagnostics of trichomoniasis?

A

gross pathology
microscopic exam
culture InPouch
PCR

105
Q

what are the causes of trichomoniasis in captive reptiles?

A

intestinal trichomonads are common in captive reptiles
may cause enteric disease

106
Q

what is special about the cryptosporidium lifecycle?

A

during fertilization they produce thick and thin walled oocysts
the thin walled ones cause auto-infection

107
Q

what is the gastrointestinal cryptosporidiosis disease cause?

A

gastroenteritis

108
Q

genus of cryptosporidium in ruminants

A

C. parvum

109
Q

genus of cryptosporidium in poultry

A

C. baileyi

110
Q

what genus is respiratory cryptosporidiosis seen in?

A

C. baileyi
avian hosts

111
Q

what does eimeria spp have the biggest impact on?

A

ruminants and poultry

112
Q

what is the predilection site for E. tenella

A

cecum

113
Q

what does the eimeria spp infect?

A

GI tract
enterocytes
cells within the lamina propria

114
Q

how is emieria spp transmitted?

A

fecal-orally

115
Q

what differs about the eimeria spp life cycle?

A

direct life cycle
the enteric lifecycle occurs inside the host and sporogony occurs outside of the host

116
Q

disease patterns for eimeria-induced coccidiosis

A

enteritis
diarrhea that may be bloody

117
Q

what are the cattle and poultry genus of eimeria spp

A

E. bovis
E. tenella

118
Q

how to diagnose eimeria-induced coccidiosis

A

fecal float (preferred method)

119
Q

what is the anticoccidial drug?

A

amprolium

120
Q

prevention for eimeria-induced coccidiosis?

A

vaccines
live for chickens, turkeys
nonliving for chickens

121
Q

how is cystoisospora spp transmitted?

A

fecal-oral

122
Q

basics of the lifecycle in cystoisospora spp

A

direct life cycle with fecal oral transmission + transmission via paratenic host

123
Q

where does the cystoisospora spp enteric and exogenous sporulation occur?

A

enteric cycle happens inside of the gut and the exogenous sporulation happens ( poop)

124
Q

swine genus cystoisospora

A

C. suis

125
Q

dog genus cystoisospora

A

C. canis

126
Q

cat genus cystoisospora

A

C. felis
C. rivolta

127
Q

definitive host for toxoplasma gondii

A

felids

128
Q

how do the toxoplasma gondii definitive hosts get infected?

A

felid typically get infected by eating tissue cysts harbored by infected intermediate hosts

129
Q

where does the enteric cycle happen in toxoplasma gondaii

A

in the definitive host- felids
schizogeny, gametogeny in felid enterocytes then shed in feces

130
Q

where does sporogeny occur in toxoplasma gondii

A

in the external environment
occysts sporulate exogenously; infective to intermediate hosts and felids

131
Q

where does the extra-enteric cycle occur in toxoplasma gondii

A

happens in intermediate hosts
-develop in and rupture out of SI
tachyzoites explode causing acute toxoplasmosis, goes everywhere
*can also infect placenta and fetus

132
Q

what happens overtime in the intermediate hosts in toxoplasma gondii

A

overtime, tachyzoites form tissue cysts containing bradyzoites which is infective to both felids and *intermediate hosts

133
Q

tissue cyst phase toxoplasma gondii

A

chronic toxoplasmosis, life-long infection and can reactivated to acute toxoplasmosis

134
Q

can the extra-enteric cycle also occur in felids?

A

yes

135
Q

treatment for toxoplasmosis

A

acute signs- clindamycin, etc
chronic-there is no treatment that eliminates bradyzoites
life-long infection

136
Q

definitive host of neospora caninum

A

dogs

137
Q

intermediate host of neospora caninum

A

cattle, deer, and other mammals

138
Q

is neosporosis life-long

A

yes
tissue damage and inflammation is caused by tachyzoites and tissue cyst
can cross placenta

139
Q

neosporosis in dogs

A

subclinical infection typical
hindlimb paralysis if disease occurs

140
Q

neosporosis in cattle

A

major cause of abortion
transplacental transmission, fetus autolyzed

141
Q

treatment for neosporosis

A

dogs: clindamycin
cattle: no treatment

142
Q

definitive host for sarcocystics spp

A

-carnivorous and omnivorous mammals
-ingestion of tissue cysts (sarcocysts) in striated muscle of infected intermediate hosts

143
Q

sarcocystis spp genus that various mammals serve as intermediate hosts

A

S. neurona

144
Q

enteric cycle in sarcocystis spp

A

enteric cycle –> oocysts (endogenous sporulation)–> sporocysts shed in feces

145
Q

when intermediate hosts of sarcocystis spp ingest sporocysts, the extra enteric cycle occurs

A

just a fact

146
Q

what causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) and what is the definitive host?

A

S. neurona
opossums are definitive host

147
Q

dignosis for sarcocystosis

A

serologic test
for EPM common to test CSF for antibodies

148
Q

piroplasmids are obligate _____ parasites

A

intracellular

149
Q

who are the intermediate hosts of piroplasmids

A

mammals, birds

150
Q

life cycle of prioplasmids

A

tick - gametogeny, fertilization and sporogeny
vertebrae- schizogeny

151
Q

definitive host of piroplasmids

A

ticks

152
Q

what species causes canine babesiosis

A

B. canis
B. gibsoni

153
Q

what species causes bovine babesiosis

A

B. bigemina
B. bovis

154
Q

why is babesiosis diagnosis ID of piroplasms not the best option

A

because parasitemia (content of parasites) are low in the blood

155
Q

what species causes equine theileriosis

A

T. equi

156
Q

what species causes bovine theileriosis

A

T. parva

157
Q

main vector of cytauxzoon felis

A

amyblyomma americanum

158
Q

definitive host of haemosporids

A

biting flies

159
Q

intermediate host of haemosporids

A

tetrapod

160
Q

what species cause plasmidiosis in poultry

A

P. gallinaceum
P. relictum

161
Q

what leeucocytozoon spp cause disease ini domestic and wild birds

A

L. simondi
L. smithi

162
Q

what haaemoproteus spp are associated with clinical disease in birds

A

H. lophortyx
H. meleagridis

163
Q
A

parasitology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions