Exam 2 Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
VEAL CHOP (what is it)
A
mnemonic is a crucial tool used by healthcare professionals, particularly nurses and obstetricians, to interpret and manage fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns during labor and delivery.
2
Q
VEAL CHOP (what does it stand for)
A
V - variable decelerations
E - Early decelerations
A - Accelerations
L - Late decelerations
C - Cord Compression
H - Head compression
O - Okay (normal fetal good)
P - Placental Insufficiency
3
Q
gestational hypertension starts after __
A
first 20 weeks
4
Q
Gold standard determiner of preeclampsia
A
proteinuria
5
Q
preeclampsia vs eclampsia
A
pree has no seizures
eclampsia has seizures
6
Q
malpresentation examples
A
breach
brow
transverse
shoulder
face
7
Q
classical c section patients will always have _____
A
always have c sections
8
Q
during labor patients can have all or any ______
A
narcotics
9
Q
if fetal heart rate is low, the patient cannot have ______
A
narcotics
10
Q
if the patient is entering transition labor 8 cm or more, patient cannot have ______
A
narcotics
11
Q
epidurals can cause _____ after they wear off
A
hypo tension
12
Q
epidurals can cause ______ in the fetal heart rate
A
late decelerations
13
Q
what is an amniotomy
A
artificial rupture of membranes
14
Q
what is used to do an amniotomy
A
amniotic hook
15
Q
most favorable type of cervix
A
gynecoid
16
Q
what is DES
A
sterile vaginal exam
17
Q
IUPC
A
intrauterine pressure catheder
18
Q
What is an IUPC used for
A
measures intrauterine pressure accurately
19
Q
What is DES done for
A
sterile vaginal exam done to check dilation and effacement and engagement
20
Q
what characterizes a 4th degree perineal laceration
A
laceration extends through the perineal body, the external and internal anal sphincter muscles, and the rectal mucosa
21
Q
what is cephalopelvic disproportion
A
mismatch between the size of fetal head and the maternal pelvis, making vaginal delivery difficult or impossible.
inability of the fetal head to pass through the pelvis due to either’s shape.
22
Q
fetus engages when
A
in stage 0
23
Q
interventions for prolapsed cord
A
push up on the cervix and fetal head
change patient to knee chest position and Trendelenburg position
24
Q
in a prolapsed cord _____ is impossible
A
vaginal delivery is impossible with a prolapsed cord
25
if a baby is transverse, then a ______ must happen
c section must happen with transverse
26
chorioamnionitis
an infection of placental tissues and amniotic fluid which can infect the mother and fetus, this can result from premature rupture of membranes
27
oligohydramnios is
reduced amniotic fluid volume can lead to orthopedic complications in the baby, such as club foot, hip dysplasia, and major joint contractures
28
breach still has possibility for ____
vaginal delivery
29
normal time for membranes to rupture
during labor
30
placenta previa is
when the placenta is abnormally located outside the uterus or at the lower part of the uterus covering the cervix.
31
number one placenta previa intervention
keep hands out of the vagina
32
placenta previa patients have to go for ______
c sections
33
______ can detect placenta previa
ultrasound
34
placenta abruptio is
placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely
35
when would you not see bleeding with placenta abruptio
when blood is trapped behind the placenta (partial abruption)
36
what would you see that can indicate possible placenta abruption
late decelerations
37
key indicator of placental abruption
firm uterus
38
hydramnios is
too much amniotic fluid around the baby
39
hydraminios is common in _____ mothers
diabetic
40
which patients get beta methasone injection
labor prior to 34 weeks
41
when do mothers get group beta strep IV antibiotics
around labor
42
terbutiline is
given to mothers to dilate blood vessels to the fetus and stop contractions
43
COAT stands for
C - color
O - odor
A - amount
T - Time
44
what does an early deceleration look like on the strip
gradual decent and fetal heart rate descend at the same time and are mirrored U shapes
45
late deceleration looks like on the strip
contraction rises before the fetal heart rate lowers
46
HEELP syndrome
hemolysis
elevated liver enzymes
low platelets
47
molar pregnancy
gestational trophoblastic disease
48
gestational trophoblastic disease precaution
patient cannot get pregnant again for 1 year
49
recurrent abortion is
loss of two or more pregnancies before 20 weeks gestation
50
septic abortion is
infection of the uterus resulting in miscarriage
51
complete abortion is
spontaneous abortion where all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus
52
missed abortion is
where the embryo or fetus dies but is not expelled from the uterus in which all other contraceptive components are retained
53
what is it called when the placenta does not come out in the 3rd state
retained placenta
54
how long to wait for a retained placenta
30 minutes
55
parts that come out after labor
placenta, amniotic sac, fetus, umbilical cord
56
what is an accreta
when the placenta is retained and grows into the uterine wall not being able to detach from the uterus
57
complication which occurs from an accreta
severe uterine bleeding
58
what is an increda
when the placenta goes into an accreta but is more deep into the uterine muscle
59
what is a percreda
the most severe form of accreta where the placenta moves permanently into and out of the uterus penetrating into other organ systems such as the bladder
60
what is the intervention for accreta and increda?
provider does a DNC surgery
61
what is the only intervention for a percreda
hysterectomy
62
what are the TORCH infections
T - toxoplasmosis
O - Other agents
R - Rubella
C - Cytomegalovirus
H - Herpes simplex
63
two main reasons for early induction of labor
diabetes mellitus
pregnancy induced hypertension
64
amnioinfusion is
insertion of warm sterile water into uterine cavity through IUPC in order to cushion fetus and dilute meconium stained amniotic fluid
65
what is an amniocentesis
withdrawal of amniotic fluid with a needle to test for genetic abnormalities or birth defects
66
what is an amniotomy
when the membranes are artificially ruptured in order to induce labor
67
suction is applied to fetal head during a _______
vaccume assisted delivery
68
suction is a risk for ____
hematoma under the skin
69
suction can cause
cephalohematoma in the fetus
70
placenta previa always equals
c sections
71
FTP is
failure to progress
failure of the mother to progress in cervical dilation
72
biggest risk for c section
higher maternal morbidity and mortality
73
transverse incision is located
under the umbilicus near the hips
74
c section types that cannot have vaginal deliveries
classical (biggest incision)
75
under what two criteria can a patient who has a c section have a future vaginal delivery
c section must be a low transverse incision
patient can only have had one c section prior
76
shoulder dystocia is
when the baby's shoulder gets stuck behind the mother's pubic bone during vaginal delivery
77
anencephaly is
birth defect characterized by absence of major portions of the brain
78
_____ of total stillbirths occur between 20-28 weeks
half
79
antepartum period is when
pregnancy period before childbirth
80
first trimester weeks
weeks 1-12
81
second trimester weeks
weeks 13-28
82
third trimester weeks
weeks 29-40
83
most common pregnancy complications
PROM and PPROM
Placenta previa
Placenta abruption
Multiple gestation
Abnormal amniotic fluid volume
84
PPROM is
preterm premature rupture of membranes
85
preterm is anything before _______
37 weeks gestation
86
nonstress test involves
laying down with two belts around abdomen
one measures heart rate and the other contractions
monitoring for 20 - 40 minutes
pressing a button when fetal movement is felt
possible use of acoustic stimulation If the baby is inactive
87
preterm labor occurs between weeks ______
20-37
88
percentage of total live births that are preterm
11.6%
89
birth position is left when
baby is facing to the left
90
birth position is occiput when
top of the baby's head is facing downward
91
birth position is mentum when
baby's face is facing downward
92
birth position is sacrum when
baby's bottom is facing downward
93
birth position is transverse when
the baby is laying sideways not up or down
94
birth position is posterior when
baby is facing forward
95
birth position is anterior when
baby is facing backward
96
big risk factor for preterm labor
previous PTL&D - which is a post transplant lymph cell spiking disorder which shoots lymphoid cells through the roof
97
PKU is
phenylketonuria which is an inherited metabolic disorder where the body cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine.
98
position to get best uterine blood flow
left side lying
Bed rest with bathroom privileges
99
children under age of 1 who undergo chemotherapy
have an 80% chance of getting leukemia later in life
100
Fetal fibronectin (fFN) test is
Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein that plays an important role in pregnancy and can be used as a biomarker to assess the risk of preterm birth.
101
IUGR
intrauterine growth restriction
102
IUFD
intrauterine fetal demise
103
risks of IUFD
postpartum hemorrhage
psychological distress
infection
retained placenta
104
what are tocolytics
drugs used to suppress premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions, such as magnesium sulfate, nsaids, nifedipine, beta 2 agonists (terbutiline) and calcium channel blockers
105
HSV infecting the mother can be prevented from transmissing by
undergoing c section
106
what is chorioamnionitis
Chorioamnionitis is typically caused by polymicrobial infections, often involving bacteria from the mother's urinary or gastrointestinal tract.
Common pathogens include:
E. coli
Group B Streptococcus (GBS)
Ureaplasma
Mycoplasma hominis
107
normal fhr
110 to 160 bpm
108
latent phase contractions dilation
0 to 3 cm
109
active phase contractions dilation
4 to 7 cm
110
transition phase contractions dilation
8 to 10 cm
111
moderate fhr variability (which is normal) is what range
6 to 25 bpm
112
l to l.5 liters is
normal amount of amniotic fluid
113
polyhydramnios is ______ amount of fluid
more than 2 liters of amniotic fluid
114
T in COAT stands for
time the membranes were ruptured
115
premature rupture of membranes means
membrane was ruptured before labor started, not preemie
116
(substance abuse) opioids used during pregnancy can have a high risk of
preeclampsia
117
number one way in which HIV is transmitted to newborns
breastfeeding
118
______ can be used during pregnancy to help prevent HIV in newborns
antiretroviral therapy
119
it is required by Florida law that (HIV) _____
women be screened for HIV twice during 28-32 weeks gestation
120
what is a molar pregnancy
abnormal growth of placental tissues were no fetus developed and only weird placental tissues develop in place
121
sign of molar pregnancy
severe vaginal bleeding in the first trimester
122
IUFD is
intrauterine fetal death which refers to death of the fetus in utero after 20 weeks gestation weighing at least 500 grams
123
mild preeclampsia characteristics
Blood pressure of 140/90 or above
Protein in the urine
Swelling, particularly of hands,
arms, or face
May have no noticeable symptoms
Weight gain exceeding 2 pounds per week
124
severe preeclampsia characteristics
Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg or higher
More significant protein in the urine
Severe headaches
Vision changes (blurring, flashing lights, floaters)
Upper abdominal pain, especially in the right side
Nausea and vomiting
Difficulty breathing
Decreased urine output
Sudden swelling of face, hands, or feet
HELLP syndrome (liver and blood clotting problems)
125
at which gestational age is rhogam administered
28 weeks
126
classical c sections incision is also called
vertical incision
