Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Antibiotics that weaken the peptidoglycan cell wall make a bacterium more prone to

A

Osmotic lysis

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2
Q

Many bacteria adapt to adverse environmental conditions by modifying the composition of their cell membranes. For example, the membranes of bacteria subjected to heat stress often contain high levels of which of these compounds?

A

Saturated fatty acids

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3
Q

Active transport is required for bacterial cells to

A

Transport solutes against their concentration gradient

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4
Q

Tetracycline is an antibiotic that works by binding to the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosomes, thus inhibiting protein synthesis. This drug is able to cross the cell membrane because

A

As a weak base, it can cross the membrane in its uncharged form

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5
Q

A- Bond hydrolyzed by lysozyme.
B- N-acetylglucosamine
C- Penicillin inactivates the enzyme that generates this bond.
D- This amino acid is not found in proteins.
E- Vancomycin prevents crosslinking by inhibiting this process.
F- N-acetylmuramic acid

A

BFDECA

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6
Q

Cells of a normally rod-shaped bacterium (e.g., Bacillus subtilis) that have completely lost the ability to produce the MreB protein would mostly likely be

A

Coccoid shaped

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7
Q

Bacteria exposed to quinolone-type antibiotics rapidly become unable to

A

Carry out normal gene expression, condense and package their chromosomes, replicate their DNA

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8
Q

Order the following events as they occur from beginning to end during DNA replication in a dividing cell.

A- Replisomes synthesize daughter chromosomes bidirectionally
B- Daughter cells separate
C- Terminator site is replicated
D- DNA @ origin unzips and replication forks form
E- Septum forms

A
  1. DNA @ origin unzips and replication forks form
  2. Replisomes synthesize daughter chromosomes bidirectionally
  3. Terminator site is replicated
  4. Septum forms
  5. Daughter cells separate
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9
Q

Which of the following is true of the newly synthesized daughter chromosomes?

A

Each chromosome contains one parental and one newly synthesized DNA strand.

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10
Q

The cell envelope of a Gram-negative cell, such as Escherichia coli or Vibrio cholerae, contains which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

A. an inner cytoplasmic membrane
B. porins
C. a thick peptidoglycan cell wall
D. a thin peptidoglycan cell wall
E. an outer membrane

A

ABDE

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11
Q

The outbreak was caused by the now infamous E. coli strain O157:H7. The “O” in this designation refers to an antigen on which of the following molecules?

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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12
Q

How does ToxR respond to pH and temperatures characteristic of the human gut environment?

A

Binding to the promoters of genes involved in virulence

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13
Q

Engineering principles employed by synthetic biologists include all except which of the following?

A

DNA sequences encoding random peptides

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14
Q

You want to develop a similar system that can respond to carbon monoxide. What gates and switches would you need to ensure the E. coli only fluoresce in the presence of CO?

A

A toggle switch to turn the gfp gene on or off and two NOT gates to repress or allow fluorescence depending on environment

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15
Q

Label the four specified parts of the genetic toggle switch.

A Neither repressor 1 nor GFP is made. No fluorescence.
B Repressor 2 inhibits transcription from promoter 2.
C Repressor 1 inhibits transcription from promoter 1.
D Repressor 2 is not made. GFP will fluoresce.

A

BCAD

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16
Q

BioBricks is a term used to describe which of the following?

A

Connectible pieces of DNA

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17
Q

What function does the targeted endonuclease Cas9 from Streptococcus pyogenes perform in the CRISPR-Cas9 system?

A

Breaking the double-stranded target DNA

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18
Q

First, CRISPR-Cas9 is used to target and remove the mutant gene. Second, naturally occurring repair enzymes will add the wild-type gene into the gap left from the site where the mutant gene was removed. Which of these bacterial repair mechanisms would most likely be responsible for repairing the DNA when used to edit bacterial genes?

A

RecA recombination repair

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19
Q

The CRISPR system

A

Is a type of immunity that directs degradation of foreign DNA upon repeat exposure.

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20
Q

Why do so many upstream regulatory elements have inverted repeats?

A

Many regulatory elements form dimers where each binds a repeat site and binding can cause a conformational change

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21
Q

Describe similarities and differences of regulation by activators vs repressors

A

Both- Bind at or near the promoter and encourage or prevent RNAP binding.

Repression- Binds operator to prevent transcription. If a repressor binds an operator, an inducer must bind to release the repressor (induction). Without a corepressor, the repressor binds weakly, releasing the corepressor releases repressor (derepression)

Activation- Transcription is stimulated by contacting the RNAP at a promoter. Without the inducer, the activator binds weakly, releasing the inducer releases the activator.

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22
Q

Why is there a biphasic growth curve if both glucose and lactose are present in the media?

A

There is a growth delay after glucose is gone while the lac operon is being expressed.

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23
Q

How does regulation of a catabolic pathway compare to that of an anabolic pathway?

A

Catabolic- Ligand binding would activate the pathway because the enzyme is induced when the substrate is present.
Anabolic- Ligand binding would repress the pathway because a product doesn’t need to be made if it’s present.

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24
Q

Describe the different types of regulation that occur at the trp operon.

A

The repressor only binds if tryptophan binds it. If there is high trp-tRNA, the P-independent terminator will form.

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25
What are the different ways that different sigma factors are regulated?
Can be masked, or unmasked by binding, temperature
26
What are some mechanisms by which RNA (e.g., secondary structure) can regulate function?
Trp operon transcription regulation, riboswicthes
27
What is a riboswitch?
Structure in mRNA that binds a specific substrate, which causes conformational changes to the 2' structure
28
For Table 10.3: propose a mechanism that could explain why that sRNA does what it does
sRNA inhibits mRNA degradation by blocking RNase from binding to the E site. sRNA inhibits translation by base pairing to a region of mRNA that overlaps the RBS.
29
Explain what Fig 7.29 is showing. (Your answer could include aspects of what a metagenomic study is, 16S rRNA amplicons, species vs OTU’s, gene ontology. You might discuss the relevance of comparing unique vs conserved features in different environments. Etc. The topics in this section of the book are broad, but I do want you to have a broad understanding, which you can demonstrate in your answer to this question.)
They used 16s rRNA amplicons to determine how many microbes were in the area but could not determine the genus, so they put them in operational taxonomic units. These show organisms with similar sequences and could be close relatives, but it isn't confirmed. Gene ontology predicts the functions of genes. This study also showed that microbes in an area can share genes among themselves to provide core functions for mutual benefit.
30
Compare a reductionist approach to a systems biology approach. What kind of approach is an “omics” approach?
Reductionists break larger systems into pieces and study how they are connected to explain the whole system. The systematic study looks at a full system that cannot be reconstructed after breaking it down. Omics look at the whole system.
31
Homolog
Two genes are related, orthologs and paralogs are homologs.
32
Ortholog
Genes that came from the same gene in their most recent ancestor. Almost always have the same function.
33
Paralog
Two genes in the same genome that are related in sequence and were formed by gene duplication
34
logic gates
Receive a signal and output a response. Receive regulatory protein at the promoter, which drives transcription and translation of a gene. A combination of them forms a switch. Can amplify, silence or broaden a signal.
35
toggle switches
2 repressors and 2 promoters, switch back and forth to turn a system on or off
36
oscillator switch
Feedback causes oscillations in signal response
37
engineered riboswitches
Prevention of transcription or translation downstream by binding ligands that change conformation to a terminator loop or block access to RBS
38
kill switches
Suicide program in organism after completing purpose.
39
Which envelope component is found only in gram-positive bacteria?
Techoic acids
40
If the adjacent tryptophan codons in the trp operon leader sequence are mutated to alanine codons, what is the predicted effect on trp operon regulation? A. Attenuation may occur in response to high alanine levels. B. Repression can no longer occur in response to low tryptophan levels. C. Repression can no longer occur in response to high tryptophan levels. D. Attenuation may occur in response to low alanine levels. E. Attenuation will no longer occur in response to high tryptophan levels.
AE
41
Two-component signal transduction system A: Operator B: Sensor kinase C: Gene D: Phosphatase E: Environmental signals F: RNA polymerase G: Response regulator
EFACDGB
42
How would removing the operator region from the E. coli tryptophan operon affect transcription of the trp genes?
Transcription of the operon would occur even if tryptophan were abundant.
43
Which of the following pairs make up a classic two-component signal transduction system?
Histidine kinase and response regulator
44
Transcription activates the cAMP-CRP complex A: alpha-NTD B: DNA C: cAMP-CRP D: alpha-CTD E: RNA polymerase
DCAEB
45
The amino acid tryptophan functions as a _______ in the control of the trp operon.
corepressor
46
Some bacteria, such as Salmonella, use a ________ to regulate the half-lives of sigma factors during different stages of growth.
protease
47
In E. coli, the sigma S regulon is important for cellular responses to which of the following?
A: oxidative stress B: nutrient depletion C: pH extremes
48
Your text describes circumstances that produce stem loops between regions 2 and 3 (a 2:3 stem loop) and regions 3 and 4 (a 3:4 stem loop) in the attenuator region of the trp operon. Alternatively, a 1:2 stem loop would be expected to form only in which of the following?
cells with decoupled transcription and translation
49
Which of the following elements must be present for attenuation of the trp operon to occur? Select all that apply.
Charged trp tRNA, ribosomes, RNA poly
50
Scientists define a process as being under circadian control if which of the following criteria are met?
A: After entrainment, the process is able to "free-run" in the absence of light cues. B. The process's clock is able to be “reset” by manipulation of the light/dark entrainment cycles. C: The process's periodicity is maintained despite slight variations in temperature.
51
Lac operon
Activation: Allolactose binds LacI to allow transcription Repression: LacI binds overlapping the promoter to block transcription
52
How is the trp operon activated and repressed?
Activation: When trp and tRNA are low Repression: Trp acts as a corepressor with the holorepressor, binding to the leader sequence
53
Why is the trp operon sensitive to tRNA presence?
tRNA impacts the RNA secondary structures of the leader sequence. If there's low trp tRNA, the ribosome stalls over 1, so 2 and 3 bind, and transcription continues. If 1 & 2 and 3 & 4 bind, transcription is terminated (rho independent terminator)
54
araC operon
Activation: When arabinose is present, the N-term arm of each monomer binds to the dimerization dimer. This dimer binds at araI with RNAP and allows transcription of araBAD. Repression: Without arabinose, the N-term arm binds its C-term arm. This dimer binds araI and forms a loop. RNAP doesn't interact, so there is no transcription.
55
When does the autoinducer do in quorum sensing?
Activates the genes once a certain cell density is reached.
56
Penicillin mechanism
Attach to penicillin-binding proteins and inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis. It isn't effective against biofilms because it interrupts the cell wall formation of growing cells, but cells in biofilms don't grow
57
Vancomycin mechanism
Binds to D-ala-D-ala, It isn't effective against biofilms because it interrupts the cell wall formation of growing cells, but cells in biofilms don't grow. Resistance occurs when D-ala-D-ala-lactate replaces vancomycin in cell wall.
58
Penicillin-binding proteins
Mediate formation of cross-bridges in peptidoglycan.
59
S layer
Found in both gram-positive and negative bacteria. Forms a protective layer of protein subunits.
60
Periplasm
Aqueous compartment between the inner and outer membranes
61
Murein lipoprotein
X-links to the outer membrane