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Immunohematology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the best temp range for cold agglutinins to react?

A

0-4 degrees

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2
Q

3 examples of infections that may cause cold agglutinins to develop

A

mycoplasma pneumonia
primary a typical pneumonia
infectious mononucleosis

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3
Q

the process in which a hypersensitive animal is given several very small subcutaneous injections of Ag at closely spaced intervals and may then be able to tolerate an ordinarily shocking dose without severe reactions

A

desensitization

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4
Q

what is Grave’s disease?

A

Hyperthyroidism with increased T 3 and increased T4 or decreased/a scent TSH

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5
Q

in a hemagglutinations inhibition test agglutination occurs with no Ag is + or = test

A

agglutination = neg test

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6
Q

in a hemagglutinations inhibition test with no agglutination and a presence of Ag is a = or + test

A

no agglutination = pos test

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7
Q

Within which organ is it thought that potentially self-reactive lymphocytes are removed?

A

thymis

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8
Q

the Nichols strain of T. pallidum is used in what type of testing?

A

FTA-ABS

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9
Q

When do serum tests for syphilis usually become reactive?

A

between first and third week following appearance of primary lesion

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10
Q

In secondary syphilis would the serological test performed be =, +, or not perfomered at this stage?

A

test would be +

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11
Q

How long after syphilis treatment does it take for a test to become NR?

A

NR 12 months after treatment

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12
Q

The secondary stage of syphilis occurs how many weeks after the appearance of the primary chancre?

A

6-8 weeks after first chancre

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13
Q

3 pharmacologically active mediators of anapylaxis

A

histamine
tryptase
chimase
neutrophil/chemotactic factor

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14
Q

In the latent stage of syphilis it is usually noncontagious..T/F

A

T

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15
Q

P24 is a viral Ag that is the first to be detected in which potentially deadly virus?

A

HIV

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16
Q

3 means of transmission of HIV

A

body fluids
sexual activity
mother of fetus

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17
Q

needles that dispense Ag for the VDRL test mush be calibrated to TD how much?

A

1/60 mL

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18
Q

how often should a VDRL needle be QC’d?

A

each batch

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19
Q

T. pallidum crosses the placenta in which week of gestation?

A

18th week

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20
Q

What does the FTA-ABS test identify in the pts serum?

A

treponemal Ab

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21
Q

what does the flourescein labeled antihuman globulin do the interpreting the FTA-ABS test?

A

anti-human globulin makes the Ag-Ab reaction visible

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22
Q

What is “labeled” in the direct flourescent Ab test?

A

known Ab

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23
Q

The serum is inactivated to destroy complement in the VDRL or the RPR?

A

VDRL

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24
Q

A flat bottomed bottle is required for VDRL or RPR?

A

RPR

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25
A modified VDRL Ag is used in wht type of testing?
RPR- has addition of charcoal particles
26
synonyms for type B viral hepatitis
HBV Hep B serum hepatitis B viral hep
27
what is a chancre?
lesion that develops in primary syphilis
28
in order to properly perform the RPR test the rotator speed should be what?
100 rpm
29
why do you get false neg results with postzone reactions?
Ag exceeds the Ab quanity | no lattice forms
30
the Ab to tissue lipids
reagin
31
why would you get a false neg results with a prozone reaction?
Ab exceeds the Ag
32
optimal portions of Ag and Ab are reached. Stable lattice structures are formed and precipitate out.
zone of equivalence
33
What is tannic acid used for in serologic testing?
allows proteins to complex with RBCs as Ag carriers | converts hemolytic reactions to agglutination reactions
34
reaction caused by injection of theraputic foreign serum usually made from horse or cow.
serum sickness
35
Western blot test vs. ELISA test
ELISA is a screening test since it tests HIV 1&2 together | WB uses Ab to individual Ag for specific identification making it confirmatory
36
Why is cholesterol added to the Ag that is used in teh flocculation test for syphilis?
cholesterol is the absorption center for tissue lipids
37
substance that causes particles to coagulate to form a thickened mass.
agglutinin
38
Treating a pregnant woman does not cure the fetus T/F
F
39
congenital, primary and secondary syphilis are best treated by repeated doses of penicillin T/F
F
40
treatment does not alter any tissue damage that has already occured T/F
T
41
it is necessary to get repeated blood tests for 5 years following treatment T/F
F
42
tertiary syphilis cannot be treated T/F
F
43
loss of self tolerance results in what type of disease?
autoimmune
44
Ags that are closely related in structure that can cause false + results
cross reactivity
45
the presence of anti-double stranded DNA can distinguish RA from what other autoimmune disease?
SLE (lupus)
46
recent exposure to group A hemolytic strep can be detected when there are high or steadily increasing concentrations of what in a pts serum?
ASO (anit-streptolysin-O)
47
severe systemic allergic reaction that results when the organs involved are primarily blood vessels and smooth muscles of the circulatory system
anaphylaxis
48
transplant of tissue from one species to another
xenograft
49
what is xenograft aka?
heterograft
50
transplanting from one individual to a genetically indentical person of the same species is what?
homograft/allograft
51
hypersensitive reaction caused by direct contact of a substance to the skin
contact dermatitis
52
3 things that can cause contact dermatitis
metals drugs plants
53
which type of test is most often widely used to detect HIV?
ELISA for screening | WB for confirmatory
54
of Hep C, Hep G, and Hep B which is most virulent?
Hep C
55
Why is Hep C more dangerous than Hep B?
85% of cases convert to chronic hep versus 10% with Heb B
56
what is the first Ag to appear in the serum of a person infected with HBV?
Hep B surface Ag
57
how is Hep A trasmitted?
oral-fecal
58
type IV hypersensitivity is the only type that involves what?
T-cells
59
testing for the p24 Ag would be useful as a screening test for blood products T/F
F
60
how long does it take for an individual to develop HIV Ab after exposure to HIV
6-12 weeks
61
What antibody appears in the serum of individuals that have recovered from Hep B or who have recieved the Hep B vaccination?
Hep B surface Ab
62
which form of hep is responsible for the most post-transfusion reactions?
Hep C
63
If a patient has an immune response to his/her own IgG, they would most likely have a + or = RA test?
+
64
which set of Ag would be represented on a + WB
Gp41 | Gp120
65
Is the Ag in a precipitation reaction soulable or insoulable?
must be soluable
66
What does ANA stand for?
Antinuclear Ab
67
how is testing for ANA useful?
found in >95% of SLE pts.
68
what does HLA stand for?
human leukocyte Ag
69
Why is HLA important?
most important immunological barrier to the survivial of transplanted organs and tissues
70
which hep virus requires HBV infection?
Hep D
71
What is the primary mode of transmission for EBV and infectious mono?
intimate contact with salivary secrections from infected individual
72
what percentage of lymphs would you expect to see on a blood smear in EBV and infectious mono pts?
10% atypical | > 50% will be lymphs
73
which malignancy has been associated with EBV?
hodgkins lymphoma
74
which virus have most people been exposed to by their elderly years?
CMV
75
ex. of antiretroviral drug therapies
* nucleoside analouge reverse trhascriptase inhibitors * nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors * fusion inhibitors * protease inhibitors * coreceptor inhibitors
76
how do antiretroviral drug therapies work?
supress virus's replication
77
which cells are the main target ofr the HIV virus and why?
helper T-cells because the high # of CD4 Ag
78
a method used to determine the progression of the HIV virus and how is it done?
CD4 T-cell enumeration | flow cytometry
79
shingles is essentially a re-emergence of what virus?
chicken pox
80
regarding HIV trasmission, which specimens are not considered infectious unless visibly bloody?
saliva, sweat, tears, urine, feces, vomitus
81
in the HIV virus, what is reverse transcriptase responsible for doing?
produces complementary DNA from the viral RNA
82
the gene that codes the enzymes necessary for the HIV replication?
Pol gene
83
explain latency period of HIV infection
decrease in viremia symptoms subtle or abscent gradual determination of immune system
84
what is the median length of time the latency period in HIV can last?
10 years
85
symptoms of primary infection in HIV are similar to symptoms from what other virus?
mono
86
advantages of chemiluminescent assay
great sensitivity stable reagents and relatively nontoxic inexpensive fast turn around time
87
disadvantages of chemiluminescent assay
* false results possible from lack of precision in injection of the hydrogen peroxide * urine and plasma may cause quenching of the light emission
88
describe the methodolgy of turbidimetry
measure of the cloudiness of a solution. measures the reduction in light intensity due to reflection, absorption, or scatter
89
describe nephlometry
measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beas as it passes through a suspension.
90
Ab that is RF belongs to which Ig class?
IgM
91
what is the test anti-CCP
cyclic citrillunated peptides
92
what is the anit-CCP test used for?
lead marker for RA, much more specific than RF
93
what are the causitive agents for Hep.
radiation chemicals viruses disease processes
94
what does VDRL stand for?
venereal disease research laboratory
95
what does RPR stand for?
rapid plasma reagin

Immunohematology (5 decks)

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