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Flashcards in Exam 2 Deck (133)
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1
Q

From the cognitive perspective, this involves the encoding, storage, and retrieval of information. Neuroscientists are more likely to define this as learning-induced changes in the activity of neurons.

A

Memory

2
Q

The memory process of “translating” sensory impressions into meaningful perceptions that may then be stored as memory.

A

Encoding

3
Q

The memory process whereby meaningful perceptions are retained as memory.

A

Storage

4
Q

Recognizing or recalling something from long-term memory.

A

Retrieval

5
Q

The traditional devised by Richard Atkinson and Richard Shiffrin. Views memory as consisting of three stages of stores: sensory memory, short-term memory (STM), and long-term memory (LTM).

A

Modal Model of Memory

6
Q

The memory stage that very briefly stores large amounts of fleeting sensory impression is comprised of iconic store (visual) and echoic store (auditory).

A

Sensory Memory

7
Q

A memory store used for attending to information in the short term is limited in the length of time the memory can remain active—long longer than about 20 seconds. It is also limited in the amount of information that can be stored. No more than about four to five items of chunks of information is one component of the modal model of memory.

A

Short-Term Memory

8
Q

Actively repeating or thinking about information so that it remains in short-term memory.

A

Maintenance Rehearsal

9
Q

The amount of information that can be held in a memory store at any one time. The capacity of short-term memory averages four to five items or chunks of information.

A

Memory Span

10
Q

Individual items that are grouped together in memory because they are meaningfully associated with one another (but only weakly related or unrelated to items in other chunks.

A

Chunk

11
Q

The deepest level of encoding of information—a theoretically limited memory store that contains memories for facts, autobiographical events, and learned skills is a component of the modal model of memory.

A

Long-Term Memory (LTM)

12
Q

Memory encoding according to the sound of the stimulus being encoded.

A

Acoustic Encoding

13
Q

Memory encoding according to the visual appearance of the stimulus.

A

Visual Encoding

14
Q

Memory encoding according tot he meaning of the stimulus.

A

Semantic Encoding

15
Q

Mentally encoding information into long-term memory in a way that is personally meaningful and associates the new information with information that already exists in the long-term memory.

A

Elaborative Rehearsal

16
Q

Any hint or association that helps one retrieve a long-term memory.

A

Retrieval Cue

17
Q

When retrieval of a memory is enhanced in contexts that were similar to the one that existed when the memory was encoded.

A

Context-Dependent Memory

18
Q

When retrieval of a memory is enhanced by internal states such as mood or drug effects that were present when the memory was encoded.

A

State-Dependent Memory

19
Q

Defined in different ways by different theorists, and is often used synonymously for (or in place of) short-term memory. As used here, the term describes “what happens” in short-term memory when information is manipulated or processed “online.”

A

Working Memory

20
Q

Conscious memories for personal experiences (episodic memory) or facts about the world (semantic memory).

A

Explicit Memory (Declarative Memory)

21
Q

Memories acquired through personal experience. Memories are one subtype of explicit (declarative) memory.

A

Episodic Memory

22
Q

Memory for facts one has learned, as opposed to personal experiences. Memory is one type of explicit (declarative) memory.

A

Semantic Memory

23
Q

A memory that affects how we behave without our conscious awareness of the memory itself.

A

Implicit Memory

24
Q

Implicit memory for skills involving motor coordination.

A

Procedural Memory

25
Q

When performance on a task improves as a result of previous implicit exposure.

A

Repetition Priming

26
Q

The model of memory originated by Fergis Craik and Robert Lockhart which denies the existence of distinct memory stages or stores. Instead, it proposes that the more deeply san item is processed, the more likely it is to be recalled.

A

Level of Processing Framework

27
Q

Memory of an event that did not actually occur. In some cases, blatantly inaccurate recollection of details of an event that did occur may also be considered this.

A

False Memory

28
Q

The “fading” of memories for long-term memory and describes what most people mean when they say “forgetting.”

A

Transience

29
Q

The term used to describe the fact adults do not have accurate, coherent memory for events of early childhood. Theorists currently propose that coherent memories are not retained for events prior to the fourth birthday.

A

Childhood Amnesia

30
Q

The discovery made by Hermann Ebbinghause that forgetting follows a pattern according to the passage of time, with most memory loss occurring rapidly, and the pace then slowing.

A

Forgetting Curve

31
Q

The notion, subscribed to by most memory researchers, that problems in retrieving memories results from the interference of one memory with another. There are two types of interference: proactive and retroactive.

A

Interference Theory

32
Q

When an old memory interferes with the retrieval of a new memory.

A

Proactive Interference

33
Q

When a new memory interferes with the retrieval of an old memory.

A

Retroactive Interference

34
Q

Lapses of attention that result in a failure to recall information and can result from a failure to encode properly or lapse of attention/preoccupation at the moment of retrieval.

A

Absentmindedness

35
Q

When a memory has been been encoded properly and primed by a retrieval cue yet cannot be retrieved.

A

Blocking

36
Q

A type of blocking where there is a powerful sensation that a work or name is remembered but somehow is out of reach.

A

Tip-of-the-Tongue Phenomenon (TOT)

37
Q

When a memory is attributed to a source other than its actual origin.

A

Misattribution

38
Q

A type of misattribution where a memory originates in suggestion made to a person by someone else.

A

Suggestibility

39
Q

When a person exposed to incorrect information about an event they have experienced later recall the event in a distorted manner by incorporating the false information.

A

Misinformation Effect

40
Q

A vivid false memory replete with rich detail and emotional content.

A

Rich False Memory

41
Q

When an unpleasant memory intrudes upon a person’s thoughts against his or her will.

A

Persistence

42
Q

The tendency to recall past events in a way that enhances one’s current view of oneself.

A

Egocentric Bias

43
Q

A systematic distortion in perception, cognition, or memory as a result of some aspect of one’s current psychology.

A

Bias

44
Q

The tendency to recall one’s past attitudes, feelings, and beliefs in a way that brings them in line with one’s current attitudes, feelings, and beliefs.

A

Consistency Bias

45
Q

A concept hypothesized by Robert J. Sternberg to describe the ability to come up with efficient solutions to everyday problems.

A

Practical Intelligence

46
Q

A way of referring to a person’s underlying general capacity to process complex information—to perform well on a variety of mental tasks. Initially hypothesized by Charles Spearman.

A

General Intelligence (g)

47
Q

The first version of the IQ test created by Alfred Binet. The purpose of the test was to predict academic performance so that children of deficient ability could be identified and placed in special remedial programs. The test has been revised four times over its 100-year history.

A

Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

48
Q

A standardized test of intelligence designed by David G. Wechsler. This was the first test to extend the IW to include testing of adults.

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-III)

49
Q

Charles Spearman’s idea that you can take a person’s score on any test of mental ability and use it in a general way to predict his or her score on a test of any other mental ability.

A

Theorem of the Indifference of the Indicator

50
Q

Objective measurement of a psychological attribute (such as intelligence or personality) using standardized tests.

A

Psychometric

51
Q

A statistical measure of performance on intelligence tests based upon comparisons of a person’s score with the average scores of others of his or her age. Was originally conceived as a measure of children’s performance. When tests began to be administered to adults, new computational formulas had to be devised.

A

IQ (Intelligence Quotient)

52
Q

A standardized test of intelligence for children devised by David G. Wechsler.

A

Wechsler Intelligence Scale For Children (WISC-IV)

53
Q

A bell-shaped pattern of score reflecting predictable individual differences in scoring on standardized tests.

A

Normal Distribution

54
Q

Robert J. Sternberg’s theory that intelligence consists of three distinct types: analytic intelligence, creative intelligence, and practical intelligence.

A

Triarchic Theory of Successful Intelligence

55
Q

An empirically based theory of intelligence devised by John B. Carroll that blends the idea of g with Horn and Cattell’s Gf-Gc theory and the idea that intelligence includes multiple cognitive abilities.

A

Three-Stratum Theory

56
Q

Cattell and Horn’s term used to refer to largely innate analytic skills and abstract reasoning ability.

A

Fluid Intelligence (Gf)

57
Q

Cattell and Horn’s term used to refer to skills or knowledge one acquires as a result of exposure to education and culture—what one has learned.

A

Crystallized Intelligence (Gc)

58
Q

Mental states which cause people to engage in behavior directed toward achieving some goal or satisfying a need or desire (purposive behavior). They initiate actions, direct them toward the desired goal, and help the person sustain the necessary effort to attain the goal.

A

Motivation

59
Q

When a person experiences conflicting emotions or motivations—being “of two minds” about something.

A

Ambivalence

60
Q

An innate, automatic behavior tendency that will occur reliably in all normally developed members of a species in response to a releasing stimulus, or cue, from the environment. Because of past difficulties in identifying them, more often than not the term fixed-action pattern is used instead of the term.

A

Instinct

61
Q

A theory initially proposed by Clark Hull in 1943 which proposed that behavior is motivated primarily by the desire to reduce unpleasant conditions of arousal which have resulted from basic physiological needs.

A

Drive Theory

62
Q

The desire to reduce unpleasant arousal states resulting from basic psychological needs.

A

Drive

63
Q

Literally meaning “to stay the same,” the term is used to describe a steady regulated state where various physiological processes (e.g., water intake, blood sugar, body temperature) are maintained at appropriate levels.

A

Homeostasis

64
Q

A theory proposed in reaction to problems with drive theory, theory states that people seek to maintain an optimal level of arousal. this could mean reducing levels of arousal from unpleasantly high levels, as described in drive theory, but it could also mean increasing levels of arousal from unpleasantly low levels, as in states of boredom or excessive rest.

A

Optimal Arousal Theory

65
Q

Any rewarding condition that provides a motive for some behavior.

A

Incentives

66
Q

A category of motivation which compels a person to engage in a behavior is rewarding for its own sake, rather than providing some sort of additional external incentive or reward.

A

Intrinsic Motivation

67
Q

A category of motivation which compels a person to engage in a behavior for an external reward that the behavior might bring.

A

Extrinsic Motivation

68
Q

An internal state of tension that motivates a person to perform some action.

A

Need

69
Q

Mental forces which determine the form, direction, intensity, and persistence of each person’s work-related activities.

A

Work Motivation

70
Q

The study of psychology in the context of work.

A

Industrial and Organization Psychology (I/O Psychology)

71
Q

Relatively stable, enduring personal characteristics, attributes, and motives for behavior.

A

Traits

72
Q

Albert Bandura’s term to describe one’s core beliefs about ability to produce change or accomplish a specific task through one’s own effort. Although some people may be higher than others across many domains, perceived self-efficacy is not a trait in which a person can be globally high or low. It always refers to specific tasks, and a person high in perceived self-efficacy on one task can be quite low on another.

A

Perceived Self-Efficacy

73
Q

An important theory of work motivation devised by Edwin Locke and Gary Latham. According to this theory, work motivation and performance are enhanced when specific and difficult (but not impossible) goals are set. Setting specific and difficult goals directs attention toward appropriate activities to reach goals, increases effort to achieve goals, and increases persistence in working toward goals.

A

Goal-Setting Theory

74
Q

Martin Seligman describes strengths as those enduring qualities which result from a person having consistently made constructive life choices in specific areas. Are the choices one makes which lead to the development of universally valued virtues such as wisdom, courage, humanity, and justice. According to Seligman there are 24 principal human strengths.

A

Strengths

75
Q

Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi’s term to describe experiences when one is fully immersed in what one is doing—where there is a timeless, effortless focus on an activity from which one is not easily distracted. During this a person may lose track of time and experience little fatigue.

A

Flow

76
Q

A primarily homeostatic drive state turned on and off by physiological changes in the body and intended to satisfy needs for immediate energy and/or overall nutrition. Naturally leads to eating.

A

Hunger

77
Q

A desire to eat. Unlike hunger, which always results from a need for energy or overall nutrition,. This can result from any number of causes including, but not limited to, hunger. This is highly influenced or even controlled by psychological, social-environmental, or cultural factors.

A

Appetite

78
Q

Energy balance is maintained by taking in only as many calories as are expended overall in activity and the maintenance of bodily functions.

A

Energy Balance

79
Q

Sometimes referred to as weight set point, this is the fairly consistent body weight achieved over time by maintaining an energy balance.

A

Baseline Body Weight

80
Q

The speed with which food is transformed into energy.

A

Metabolic Rate

81
Q

Any of a number of complex conditions involving unhealthful patterns of eating or not eating. The most commonly diagnosed of medically recognizedare bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa. However, binge-eating disorder, which has not yet been accepted by the medical profession (but is likely to be in the future), is more common than anorexia and bulimia combined.

A

Eating Disorder

82
Q

An eating disorder usually characterized by a refusal to maintain normal body weight for one’s age and height, intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat; and a disturbed perception of one’s body weight or shape, exaggerated emphasis on body weight or shape when making self-evaluations, or a denial of the seriousness of one’s current low body weight. Sometimes one or more of these symptoms is not present, however.

A

Anorexia Nervosa

83
Q

An eating disorder usually characterized by recurrent episodes of binge-eating, where there is a sense of lack of control over the quantity of food eaten; behavior designed to compensate for binging, such as purging (forced vomiting), abuse of laxative, excessive exercise, or fasting; and self-evaluation that is unduly influenced by body shape and weight concerns.

A

Bulimia Nervosa

84
Q

A term sometimes used to describe the vast transformations being experienced by developing nations in response to globalization. These transformations occur in economy, social structure, food abundance and variety, technology, birth and death rates, relations between the sexes, urbanization, and so forth.

A

Culture of Modernization

85
Q

Refers to a pathological level of fatness. Is not the same as overweight, a lesser degree of heaviness that may or may not cause health problems. This and overweight are defined in practice somewhat differently in different contexts.

A

Obese

86
Q

The innate human motivation to interact with other humans.

A

Social Motivation

87
Q

The need to mingle with other people in the same space. Affiliation does not necessarily imply that strong relationships form (although they may), only that one is near other people.

A

Need to Affiliate

88
Q

An innate need hypothesized by Roy Baumeister and Mark Leary. According to Baumeister and Leary, for belonging needs to be met, a person must experience frequent, primarily positive interactions with a least a few other people. These interactions must take place in the context of stable, enduring relationships where there is concern for one another’s welfare.

A

Need to Belong

89
Q

An overwhelmingly unpleasant feeling which results when there is a discrepancy between one’s perceptions of the interpersonal relationships one has and the relationships one wishes to have. This does not arise from any particular situation, and one may be alone and never feel lonely. This results from a person’s interpretation of the meaning of being alone or isolated from specific others.

A

Loneliness

90
Q

Interpersonal relationships, or moments within relationships, characterized by warmth, closeness, and mutual support and communication. This is frequently present in relationships of belonging, and some researchers characterized intimacy as a need and motivator in itself.

A

Intimacy

91
Q

The general term used when a person carries out an act intended to harm another in some way. However, for an act to constitute aggression, the aggressor must believe that the act is harmful, and the target of aggression must be motivated to avoid the behavior.

A

Human Aggression

92
Q

A type of aggression which has an ultimate purpose other than causing harm to the victim. Ultimate aggression is often (but not always) planned, and is not necessarily accompanied by an emotion such as anger, although it may be. This is in contrast to hostile aggression, where the ultimate purpose is harming the victim.

A

Instrumental Aggression

93
Q

A type of aggression where the ultimate purpose is harming the victim. This is generally accompanied by emotion, such as anger and is often (but not always) impulsive. this is in contrast to instrumental aggression, where the aggressor has an ultimate purpose other than harming the victim.

A

Hostile Aggression

94
Q

Leonard Berkowitz’s revision of an earlier theory which stated that all aggression is in response to the frustration of a goal. According to the reformulated theory, frustration is only one of many types of unpleasant events that could lead to aggression. The theory holds that aggression occurs when an unpleasant event (e.g. provocation by another person, extreme noise) may trigger feeling, images, and memories associated with the physiological changes that ordinarily accompany threat and danger.

A

Reformulated Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis

95
Q

Craig Anderson and Brad Bushman’s theory of aggression which holds that whether aggression does or does not occur in any interaction is dependent upon a complex interaction between four factors: personal characteristics; characteristics of the situation; emotions, thoughts, and biological arousal levels; and decision-making processes.

A

General Aggression Model (GAM)

96
Q

The need to be effective in one’s life—to be able to perform some action of task successfully.

A

Competence Motivation

97
Q

The distinction between motivations to seek positive experiences and motivations to avoid negative experiences.

A

Approach-Avoidance

98
Q

An aspect of competence motivation which describes the motivation to attain and to accomplish. A person generally measures his or her attainments and accomplishments in relation to those of others, so the achievement motivation involves comparing oneself to others.

A

Achievement Motivation

99
Q

A psychological state consisting of subjective experience or feeling, physiological changes, and behavioral responses. Emotions tend to be intense, attributable to a potentially identifiable cause, and relatively short-lived.

A

Emotion

100
Q

A feeling state that is typically less intense than an emotion, but which may not be attributable to specific causes.

A

Mood

101
Q

A general feeling state which provides the “raw material” from which emotions and moods are created. This differs along two dimensions: valence (positive-negative) and activation or arousal (high-low).

A

Affect

102
Q

The ability of identify, manage, and express one’s emotions constructively and to empathize with the emotions of others.

A

Emotional Intelligence

103
Q

Universal, innate, distinct emotions from which a vast number of other emotions may be derived. Characteristic facial expressions and/or body language are generally associated with basic emotions. Psychologists are not in agreement as to the number of emotions, which specific emotions are basic, or even if the concept itself is valid.

A

Basic Emotion

104
Q

Paul Ekman’s coding scheme of the facial muscle configurations which create expressions of basic emotion.

A

Facial Action Coding System

105
Q

A smile of genuine enjoyment or pleasure, characterized by contraction of the orbicularis oculi muscle surrounding the eye. This muscle is extremely difficult to contract at will.

A

Duchenne Smile

106
Q

Implicit cultural standards and expectations which regulate the way emotion is displayed.

A

Display Rules

107
Q

The theory proposed by Carl Lange and William James which states that thoughts or the perception of events trigger direct autonomic nervous system changes; awareness of these changes reaches the cerebral cortex; and only then is there and experience of emotion.

A

James-Lange Theory of Emotion

108
Q

The theory proposed by Walter Cannon and Phillip Bard which states that during the perception of an event, sensory impulses are first relayed to the thalamus. From there the impulses are relayed to the autonomic nervous system and the cerebral cortex at about the same time, rather than to the autonomic nervous system first and secondly to the cerebral cortex, as proposed in the James-Lange theory.

A

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

109
Q

The theory proposed by Stanley Scharchter and Jerome Singer which states that thoughts or perceptions of events directly trigger autonomic nervous system arousal—in agreement with the James-Lange theory. However, according to the two-factor theory, emotion will emerge only after a cognitive label is attached to the arousal to explain it.

A

Two-Factor Theory of Emotion

110
Q

The theory proposed by Richard Lazarus. This theory states that autonomic nervous system arousal occurs not directly, as stated in the James-Lange and two-factor theories, but only after the thought or event has been appraised so that the meaning of the event is interpreted by the person. In this theory, cognition always comes first.

A

Cognitive-Motivational-Relational Theory of Emotion

111
Q

These theories assume that emotions are “captured” as body memories. Each time an emotion is experienced, the sights, sounds, physiological processes, and patterns of motor activity that occur are encoded in clusters of neurons assigned to the various sensory and motor modalities of the body. Over time, these experiences build a conception of particular emotion in question, which a person may reactivate by thinking about or re-experiencing the emotion.

A

Embodied Emotion

112
Q

The idea that the facial expression associated with a basic emotion increases the intensity of the experience of that emotion; and that purposely activating the muscles which form a facial expression of basic emotion may actually result in a person experiencing the emotion itself—or at least experiencing a mood change in a positive or negative direction (depending on the specific expression).

A

Facial Feedback Hypothesis

113
Q

A difficult-to-define basic emotion involving feelings of antagonism toward something of someone.

A

Anger

114
Q

From the Greek work for cleansing, this refers to the relief one may experience by expressing emotion.

A

Catharsis

115
Q

An interdisciplinary field which examines the ways that health and illness interact with psychology, biology, and society. These psychologists work in clinical settings alongside medical doctors, or in academic settings teaching and conducting research.

A

Health Psychology

116
Q

Biologists and psychologists define stress differently. Biologists usually define this as any event that threaten homeostasis of an organism. Psychologists usually define this as the psychological and physiological consequence of events which challenge a person’s ability to cope and which threaten well-being or interfere with important goals. Each specific event is termed a stressor.

A

Stress

117
Q

Walter Cannon’s term to describe the initial mammalian response to stress: activation of the sympathetic nervous system, suppression of the parasympathetic nervous system, and release of hormones adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis (HPA) of the endocrine system.

A

Fight or Flight

118
Q

Any process which functions as the antagonist of another process. The autonomic nervous system consists of two opponent process subsystems: the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. If the sympathetic nervous system is activated, the parasympathetic system is suppressed. If the parasympathetic system is activated, the sympathetic system is suppressed.

A

Opponent Processes

119
Q

Hans Selye’s model for mammalian response to chronic stress. GAS consists of three phases: Phase 1 (alarm), Phase 2 (resistance), and Phase 3 (exhaustion).

A

General Adaptation System (GAS)

120
Q

Shelly Taylor’s term which describes a response to stress that utilizes a strategy different from “fight or flight.” In tend and befriend the adult affiliates with others and provides care to offspring. According to Taylor, women are far more likely than men to choose this alternate strategy for coping with stressful situations.

A

Tend and Befriend

121
Q

A stressful pressure to behave in a manner that a given ethnic group community believes is appropriate for one of its own.

A

Own-Group Conformity Pressure

122
Q

The scientific study of the interactions of psychology, nervous and endocrine systems, and immune systems.

A

Psychoneuroimmunology

123
Q

The result of buildup of plaque along the walls of arteries, impairing their ability to supply oxygen and nutrients to muscles of the heart. Plaque consists largely of fatty acids, cholesterol, and calcium deposits.

A

Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)

124
Q

A personality type characterized (a) an exaggerated sense of urgency about time; (b) intense ambition and competitiveness; and (c) a tendency toward irritability, hostility, and a short anger fuse.

A

Type-A Personality

125
Q

Any bogus procedure or inactive (inert) substance—corn starch or milk sugar, for example—administered to a patient who believes the substance or procedure is a genuine treatment. Although these are sometimes given to patients whose symptoms have no organic cause—to satisfy the patient’s desire to be “treated”—research has shown that placebos can sometimes trigger physiological events which actually reduce symptoms.

A

Placebo

126
Q

In medical terminology, is a patient complaint of a problem. This is contrasted with a sign, which is an objective indication of the presence of disease that the physician can observe or measure by test.

A

Symptom

127
Q

In medical terminology, is an objective indication of the presence of disease that the physician can observe or measure by test (e.g., broken bone, fever, swelling, abnormal cardiogram, skin eruptions, etc.). This is contrasted with a symptom, which is a patient complaint (“I’ve been feeling dizzy and easily fatigued”).

A

Signs

128
Q

Any process by which an organism attempts to manage stress—to ensure that the demands of potentially stressful situations do not overwhelm psychological or material resources.

A

Coping

129
Q

How people explain the good and bad events of their lives and make predictions about future events based upon these explanations. One way of categorizing explanatory styles is the dimension optimism vs. pessimism.

A

Explanatory Style

130
Q

Physical exercise involving large muscle groups which increases oxygen consumption and elevates heart rate.

A

Aerobic Exercise

131
Q

Herbert Benson’s term to describe an alteration in consciousness that results in consciousness that results in decreased physiological and psychological arousal and increases attention to the moment.

A

Relaxation Response

132
Q

A form of meditation training developed by Dr. Jon Kabat-Zinn at University of Massachusetts Medical School. MBSR is based upon Buddhist meditation and psychology, but it lacks the emphasis on insight. The key to MBSR is mindfulness—maintaining a concentrative nonjudgmental attention to the present moment.

A

Mindfulness-Base Stress Reduction (MBSR)

133
Q

The perception or experience that one is loved, esteemed, and cared for by others, and is part of a network of people who engage in mutual assistance and accept mutual obligations to one another.

A

Social Support