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Older Adult Exam 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

does short term or long term memory remain more stable in older adults?

A

short term

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2
Q

T or F, personality changes significantly as one ages

A

F, it does not change very much

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3
Q

the response to demand or pressure

A

stress

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4
Q

negative effects of stress

A

sleep problems
chronic/high anxiety levels
use of alcohol or drugs
jumpiness/unable to sit still
new onset HTN, tachycardia, tremors, or irregular HR
depression, chronic fatigue, lack of pleasure in life
chronic pain

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5
Q

delusion

A

false belief

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6
Q

hallucination

A

false perceptions and sensations

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7
Q

what age group has the highest rate of suicide?

A

ages 65 and older

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8
Q

major risk factor for suicide in older adults

A

depression

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9
Q

significant wt loss/gain, changes in sleep patterns, agitation/slowness, fatigue/loss of energy, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, inability to concentrate and make decisions, recurrent thoughts of suicide or death

A

symptoms of depression–if 4 are identified that last at least 2 weeks and the person has changes in relationships and daily function, then they are in a major depressive state

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10
Q

how long does delirium usually last?

A

about a week

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11
Q

epilepsy

A

2 or more unprovoked seizures

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12
Q

status epilepticus

A

a seizure that lasts more than 10 mins or groups of seizures that occur in rapid succession and last a combined time of 30 mins–neuro emergency

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13
Q

chorea

A

involuntary twitching of the limbs or facial muscles

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14
Q

dystonia

A

involuntary muscle contractions forcing unusual or painful positions

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15
Q

a chronic, progressive disease characterized by abnormal movements and extrapyramidal sxs

A

parkinson’s disease

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16
Q

the only way to definitively diagnose alzheimer’s

A

autopsy after death

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17
Q

stages of dementia

A

stage 1: early-mild
stage 2: middle-moderate
stage 3: late-severe
terminal

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18
Q

cholinesterase inhibitors

A

block the enzymes that destroy acetylcholine in dementia pts
donepezil (aricept)
rivastigmine (exelon)
galantamine (reminyl)

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19
Q

major side effects of cholinesterase inhibitors

A

GI disturbances

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20
Q

NMDA antagonist

A

memantine (namenda), works on glutamate to improve fxn in dementia pts

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21
Q

memory, personality, spatial, and disorientation: what stage of AD?

A

stage 1: mild

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22
Q

aphasia, apraxia, confusion, agitation, insomnia: what stage of AD?

A

stage 2: moderate

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23
Q

resistiveness, incontinence, eating difficulties, motor impairment: what stage of AD?

A

stage 3: severe

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24
Q

bedfast, mute, dysphagia, intercurrent infections: what stage of AD?

A

terminal

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25
agnosia
inability to recognize objects
26
anomia
problems naming objects or finding words
27
apraxia
inability to carry out learned and purposeful movements
28
frontal lobe
language, motor fxn, judgment, problem solving, impulse control, reasoning, memory, executive fxn
29
executive function
ability to plan and think abstractly
30
temporal lobe
language, memory, hearing, perception, recognition
31
occipital lobe
visual
32
parietal
sensory
33
neurons
communicate messages through neurotransmitters
34
neurotransmitters
acetylcholine, dopamine, serotonin, norepinepherine
35
consists of cranial nerves, spinal nerves, autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system, and reflex arc
peripheral nervous system
36
consists of cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, diencephalon, cerebellum, brain stem, and spinal cord
central nervous system
37
link between the brain through the spinal cord to the muscles and sensory receptors: responsible for movement and receiving messages
somatic nervous system
38
maintains homeostasis within the body and is divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic: controls HR, BP, and more
autonomic nervous system
39
acute renal failure
sudden onset, can be cured
40
chronic renal failure
irreversible damage occurs over time
41
is acute or chronic renal failure more common?
chronic
42
risk factors for chronic renal failure
DM, benign prostatic hyperplasia, HTN, long term use of NSAIDs
43
presence of bacteria in the urethra, bladder or kidney
UTI
44
urinary frequency
more than 7 voids per 24 hr period
45
stress incontinence
involuntary loss of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased (coughing, laughing)
46
urge incontinence
internal sphincter weakness, muscles contract forcefully and unexpectedly
47
overflow incontinence
bladder gets overfilled and stretched over time (dribbling, enlarged prostate)
48
functional incontinence
physical reason causing one to be unable to get to the toilet in time
49
4 types of incontinence
stress, urge, overflow, functional
50
primary HTN
cause is unknown
51
secondary HTN
cause can be determined
52
symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia
difficulty starting urination, weak stream, straining to urinate, longer time needed to urinate, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying
53
most common GU malignancies
bladder cancer--4x more likely in men | prostate cancer
54
biggest risk factor for bladder cancer
smoking
55
which cancer is more common in younger women?
cervical cancer
56
most common symptom of uterine cancer
bleeding after menopause
57
painful intercourse
dyspareunia
58
type I bone loss
menopausal bone loss (no period for at least 1 year), occurs first 5-10 years after menopause, rapid
59
type II bone loss
senescent bone loss, slower phase, affects men and women after midlife
60
sarcopenia
loss of muscle mass, strength, and function that occurs in a progressive manner
61
metabolic bone diseases
osteoporosis, osteomalacia, paget's disease
62
bone disease most common in women of an increased age
osteoporosis
63
low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue that leads to compromised bone strength--increased risk for fracture
osteoporosis
64
metabolic disease in which there is inadequate mineralization of newly formed bone matrix--usually results from vitamin D deficiency
osteomalacia
65
results from vit D deficiency
osteomalacia
66
chronic disorder in which normal bone is removed and replaced with abnormal bone
paget's disease
67
what is the 1st most common bone remodeling disease
osteoporosis
68
what is the 2nd most common bone remodeling disease
paget's disease
69
most common form of arthritis in the US
osteoarthritis (DJD)
70
a diet high in what can cause gout
purine
71
meds used to treat osteoporosis
bisphosphonates: alendronate (fosamax) & ibandronate (boniva)
72
which osteoporosis med allows for once a month dosing or IV dose every 3 months?
boniva
73
what should not be taken with bisphosphonates?
calcium
74
teaching when taking fosamax
take on empty stomach first thing in the morning with water, remain upright for 30 mins, don't drink/eat anything else for 30 mins
75
meds used to treat paget's
bisphosphonates: alendronate (fosamax) | calcitonin (miacalcin)
76
tx for osteomalacia
vitamin D replacement
77
tx for osteoarthritis
pain relief measures, Capsaicin (topical cream), NSAIDs, intra-articular hyaluronic acid (supports lubrication of joints)
78
tx for RA
prednisone, NSAIDs, DMARDs
79
tx of gout
steroids
80
difficulty in any part of the process of swallowing
dysphagia
81
sxs of GERD
heartburn, indigestion, belching, hiccups, regurgitation
82
complications of GERD
disturbed sleep, social isolation, Barrett's esophagus, hemorrhage
83
tx of c. diff
metronidazole

Older Adult Exam 2 (1 decks)

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