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LAM 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the tx for interstitial pneumonia?

A

None

Supportive care only

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2
Q

Etiology of IAD?

A

Irritants of the airway

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3
Q

What would you use to flush the gutteral pouch? What if there are chondroids or pus?

A

Saline or LRS

Acetylcysteine to try to dissolve chondroids and pus

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4
Q

What breed is associated with post-anesthetic myopathy?

A

Draft horses

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5
Q

What drug is associated with causing a progressive granulomatous pneumonia due to repeated injections?

A

Equimmune

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6
Q

If a horse is lying in dorsal recumbency, what is this a sign of?

A

Gastric ulcers

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7
Q

What radiographic patterns are specific to R. equi infections?

A

Perihilar abscessation pattern

Miliary pattern

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8
Q

Classify the colic: Kicking at belly, pawing, up and down quietly, mild rolling

A

Moderate

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9
Q

What PCV is associated with IMHA?

A

10-20%

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10
Q

Tx for LH?

A

Laryngoplasty (tie-back)

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11
Q

If you see this on echo of a mitral valve insufficiency, it means the horse is unsafe to ride due to sudden death and possible rupture

A

Dilated pulmonary artery

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12
Q

What action in the heart creats the first heart sound (lub)?

A

Closing of the AV valves

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13
Q

What clinical signs are associated with severe mitral insufficiency?

A

Sudden death

Cordae tendinae rupture

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14
Q

At what age can horses that are homozygous for HYPP begin to develop clinical signs? Heterozygous?

A

Homozygous = 6 months

Heterozygous = 1 year

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15
Q

Tx for babesiosis/piroplasmosis in non-endemic areas?

A

Imidocarb

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16
Q

When treating RAO, what antibiotic might you add on to your primary antibiotic and what agent is it targeting

A

TMS

Actinobacillus

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17
Q

How is serum ferritin affected with anemia of chronic disease (ACD) and iron deficiency?

A

ACD = normal to increased

Iron deficiency = normal to decreased

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18
Q

Is persistent or intermittent DDSP more common?

A

Intermittent

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19
Q

What is the most common site for bacterial endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve

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20
Q

How are the retropharyngeal LNs affected by strangles?

A

Can rupture and cause respiratory distress

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21
Q

When is hyper immune serum most effective against R. equi?

A

First week of life

More of a preventitive than a tx

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22
Q

What is the conversion rate and recurrence rate of Afib of <4 month duration compared to >4 month duration?

A

95% conversion and 25% recurrence if <4 months

80% conversion and 60% recurrence if >4 months

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23
Q

What are the common clinical signs od DDSP?

A

Quitting

Choking down

Cheek puffing

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24
Q

When will the PCV begin to decrease with blood loss?

A

12-24 hours

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25
Q

What is the lowest PCV that you will see with anemia of chronic/inflammatory disease?

A

18-19%

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26
Q

What is the heart rate in a refluxing horse?

A

>60

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27
Q

BAL or TTW to help diagnose IAD?

A

BAL

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28
Q

When is the best time to collect a blood culture to diagnose vegetative endocarditis and why?

A

On upswing of fever because you can have a false + at peak of fever

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29
Q

If a horse has colic with a fever, whats the cause?

A

Infectious agent

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30
Q

What is usually the problem with cranial abdominal distension?

A

SI

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31
Q

What tends to be the presenting complaint with vegetative endocarditis?

A

Fever of unknown origin

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32
Q

Grading LH: Asynchronous movement of left arytenoid, incomplete abduction

A

Grade 3

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33
Q

What is the difference between mobitz 1 and 2?

A

PR interval increases with type 1 but stays the same with type 2

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34
Q

In what part of the lung field do you hear noise with RAO?

A

Entire lung field because its a diffuse disease

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35
Q

Seeing a mucus trail in the tracheobronchial tree helps in the diagnosis of what condition?

A

IAD

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36
Q

Is respiratory distress seen with horses that are heterozygous or homozygous for HYPP?

A

Young homozygotes

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37
Q

In the case of arthralgia/myalgia associated with viral respiratory disease, how would you know when to give phenylbutazone vs flunixin meglumine?

A

Phenylbutazone if arthralgia/myalgia is the only thing you are giving the NSAID for

Flunixin if there are other things going on that require an NSAID such as fever

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38
Q

Describe the abdominocentesis for a non-strangulating lesion

A

No change initially

Then increase in TP

Then increase in WBC

Then increase in RBC

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39
Q

What type of IAD and tx: >2% mast cells on BAL

A

Type 2

Tx with cromolyn sodium (mast cell stabilizer)

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40
Q

If a horse with strangles is not depressed and is eating ok, what is the best treatment?

A

No need to treat

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41
Q

What is the most important thing to consider with increased red cell destruction?

A

Infectious diseases

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42
Q

What type of IAD and tx: mild neutrophilia (5-20%)

A

Type 1

Tx with alpha-interferon

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43
Q

T/F: Clinical signs of HYPP are seen during exercise

A

False

Atypical to see with exercise

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44
Q

Severity of regurgitation in aortic insufficiency is best determined by what?

A

Arterial pulse quality rather than grade of the murmur

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45
Q

What type of IAD and tx: >3% EØ

A

Type 3

Tx with corticosteroids

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46
Q

What odor is associated with NG tube reflux?

A

Fermented

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47
Q

Do you see inspiratory or expiratory noise with epiglottic entrapment?

A

Both

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48
Q

Tx goal for babesiosis/piroplasmosis in non-endemic areas?

A

Completely eradicate organism

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49
Q

If you see vegetative endocardiosis affecting the tricuspid valve in the horse, what should you check?

A

Jugular catheter

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50
Q

What is the most likely valvular dysfunction leading to cardiac failure?

A

Mitral insufficiency

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51
Q

Grading LH: Complete paralysis

A

Grade 4

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52
Q

Management of HYPP?

A

Avoid high K feeds (alfalfa)

Feed frequently to avoid fasting episodes

Exercise

Avoid stress

Acetazolamide (not used as K wasting diuretic)

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53
Q

What drug can you use to limit muscle damage in a horse with an acute episode of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Dantrolene

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54
Q

What is the most common pathologic murmur?

A

Mitral insufficiency

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55
Q

Describe the following parameters for non-strangulating lesions:

Pain, HR, CV compromise, Distension, Rectal, Reflux

A

Pain - mild-moderate

HR - <70 (60-80)

CV compromise - none

Distension - none-minimal

Rectal - mild-moderate distension

Reflux - non-minimal

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56
Q

When do rou hear the “roar” at rest for laryngeal hemiplasia?

A

Only when its bilateral

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57
Q

When treating RAO, whats the first antibiotic you would give and what agent is it targeting?

A

Penicillin

Strep

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58
Q

What is the most common physiologic arrythmia seen in horses?

A

2nd degree AV block (mobitz 1)

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59
Q

Why is arytenoid chondritis difficult to tx?

A

Its cartilage and avascular

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60
Q

What does it mean if a horse’s shoulder or neck is marked with an A?

A

They have EIA

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61
Q

What is the DOC for complicated strangles?

A

Penicillin

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62
Q

When is strangles most infectious?

A

Day 7-14 when the affected LN ruptures

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63
Q

What disease is associated with accumulation of glycogen and abnormal polysaccharides in muscle cells?

A

PSSM

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64
Q

What heart condition is associated with a loud honking murmur?

A

Mitral insufficiency

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65
Q

At what grade of rhabdomyolysis do you see myoglobinuria?

A

Grade 3

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66
Q

What segment of the intestines is most commonly strangulating?

A

SI

67
Q

What is the most frequently diagnosed disease of the upper airway?

A

Laryngeal hemiplagia

68
Q

What action in the heart causes the “bah” sound (S4)?

A

Atrial contraction

69
Q

Polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM) affects what breeds?

A

Quarter horse

Draft horse

70
Q

What are the major presenting complaints for racehorses and performance horses with IAD?

A

Racehorses = slightly slowed racing times, cough

Performance = prolonged recovery, cough

71
Q

What is the minimum amount of time a farm is isolated with a case of strangles?

A

6 months

72
Q

What are the predisposing factors to colic?

A

Previous colic

Change in diet

Change in exercise

73
Q

Which nerve is damaged with ILH?

A

LEFT laryngeal nerve

74
Q

Why does sedation make it more difficult to place an NG tube?

A

Cant swallow

75
Q

What action in the heart causes the “ahhh” sound (S3)?

A

Rapid ventricular filling

76
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat gutteral pouch empyema?

A

Penicillin +/- TMS

77
Q

How are the submandibular LNs affected by strangles?

A

Swell, drain, and can abscess

78
Q

Classify the colic: Rolling severely, throwing itself down

A

Severe

79
Q

What will you see on endoscopy in a horse with arytenoid chondritis?

A

Granuloma lesion associated with draining tract

80
Q

What disease is associated with high RR, weakness, and tendon contracture of all 4 limbs?

A

Glycogen branching enzyme deficiency

81
Q

Clinical signs associated with pleuropneumonia?

A

Fever

Absence of lung sounds ventrally

Louder cardiac ascultation caudodorsally

Weight loss

Pectoral edema

82
Q

What disease has both inspiratory and expiratory noise but is more expiratory?

A

DDSP

83
Q

Protracted exercise is associated with what type of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Type 2

84
Q

How is Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) affected with anemia of chronic disease (ACD) and iron deficiency?

A

ACD = normal to decreased

Iron deficiency = normal to increased

85
Q

How does the resting membrane potential in a HYPP horse differ from a normal horse?

A

Normal = 70

HYPP = 55

86
Q

When is tie-back indicated for LH?

A

Grades 3B,C, and 4

87
Q

Surgical tx for epiglotic entrapment?

A

Laser - Nd:YAG laser

88
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac defect in the foal?

A

VSD

89
Q

Clinical signs of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Fasciculations

Strained look (pulled back nares and lips)

Drop down from pain when palpate back

Hard muscles

Do not want to move

Myoglobinuria

90
Q

What is the most common anemia in the horse?

A

Anemia of chronic/inflammatory disease

91
Q

Describe the following parameters for strangulating lesions:

Pain, HR, CV compromise, Distension, Rectal, Reflux

A

Pain - moderate-severe

HR - >70-80

CV compromise - moderate-severe

Distension - typically present

Rectal - moderate-severe distension

Reflux - mild-severe

Usually the small intestine

92
Q

What anti-inflammatory should you give if there are more severe signs of systemic involvement with viral respiratory disease?

A

Flunixin meglumine

93
Q

What is the underlying cause of RAO?

A

Inhalation of molds in hay, irritants, or endotoxins

Hereditary predisposition

94
Q

What are some causes of VPCs?

A

Electrolyte alterations

Endotoxemia

Myocardial inflammation

Hypoxia

95
Q

When will the PCV bottom out with blood loss?

A

48 hours

96
Q

What blood value indicates cardiac muscle disease and compromise?

A

Cardiac Troponin I

97
Q

What is the gold standard for evaluating a regenerative anemia?

A

Bone marrow evaluation

98
Q

How many bands can be palpated in the ventral colon, pelvic flexure, dorsal colon, small colon?

A

Ventral = 3

Pelvic flexure = 0

Dorsal = 2

Small colon = 1

99
Q

Whats the best test for anemia of chronic/inflammatory disease? Second test?

A

Fibrinogen

Iron kinetic test

100
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing EIA?

A

Coggins test

101
Q

What type of diet do you want to use when managing a horse with chronic rhabdomyolysis?

A

High fat (rice bran), avoid high grain

Can use vegetable oil - not mineral oil

102
Q

How many blood cultures should you do when trying to diagnose vegetative endocarditis?

A

2-3

103
Q

Grading LH: Asynchronous movement of left arytenoid, full abduction of left arytenoid cartilages

A

Grade 2

104
Q

How are marrow iron stores affected with anemia of chronic disease (ACD) and iron deficiency?

A

ACD = normal to increased

Iron deficiency = normal to decreased

105
Q

Which valve is most frequently affected by vegetative endocarditis and what is the cause?

A

Mitral

Abscess hiding in the lungs

106
Q

What is the normal temp range in a horse?

A

99-101

107
Q

What muscle is responsible for abduction of the arytenoids?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle

108
Q

At what grade of rhabdomyolysis do horses become recumbant?

A

Grade 4 = transient

Grade 5 = rapid

109
Q

Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis (RER) affects what breed?

A

Thoroughbreds

110
Q

What anti-inflammatory is important to use for vegetative endocarditis and why?

A

Asprin

Reduces platelet aggregation and minimizes growth of lesion

111
Q

What are the prognostic factors specific to aortic insufficiency?

A

Size of aortic root

Presence/abscence of concurrent left AV insufficiency

112
Q

Classify the colic: Playing in water, looking at flanks, pawing, stretching out

A

Mild

113
Q

Chondroids are associated with what disease?

A

Long term gutteral pouch infection

114
Q

Why do you treat guttural pouch empyema as an isolation case?

A

Because you are worried about the agent being strep equi which causes strangles and is highly contagious

115
Q

If you are having trouble passing the cardiac sphincter, what can you give the horse?

A

Mepivicaine (Carbocaine) - relaxes the sphincter

116
Q

What is the first clinical sign of strangles? 2nd?

A

Fever

Swelling of LNs

117
Q

What is the most common pathologic arrhythmia?

A

A Fib

118
Q

What are signs of more severe systemic involvement with viral respiratory disease?

A

Depression, off feed, excessive fever (>104)

119
Q

What are the most important contributing factors associated with post-anesthetic myopathy?

A

Muscle mass

Need to keep MABP > 60

120
Q

What is the best way to diagnose RER?

A

Muscle biopsy - central nuclei

121
Q

Prognostic factors of pleuralpneumonia?

A

Systemic fibrinogen (>1000 - poor)

E. coli

Amount of fibrin in pleural space

Foul odor to pleural fluid or breath (anaerobes)

Gas bubbles on US (anaerobes)

122
Q

Which pathologic murmur leads to Afib that is resistant to quinidine conversion?

A

Mitral insufficiency

123
Q

What drugs can cause IMHA?

A

Penicillin

Sulphas

Phenylbutazone

124
Q

What is the only valve heard on the right side of the horse?

A

Tricuspid

125
Q

How many VPCs do you need to diagnose Vtach?

A

4 or more

126
Q

If a colicy horse presents depressed, whats the issue?

A

Inflammatory disease

Rupture

127
Q

Endurance horses and high competition horses are associated with what type of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Type 2

128
Q

Tx for VPCs?

A

Lidocaine IV bolus

129
Q

Tx for heart failure?

A

Furosemide

Digoxin

Enalapril

Hydralazine

130
Q

What complications are associated with strangles?

A

Dyspnea/distress d/t retro[pharyngeal LN enlargement

Gutteral pouch empyema

Purpura hemorrhagica (aseptic vasculitis)

131
Q

How does the values in an abdominocentesis in strangulating lesions differ from non-strangulating lesions?

A

TP, WBC, and RBC increase at the same time to the same degree

132
Q

What are the signs associated with a secondary bacterial infection of viral respiratory disease?

A

Fever > 72 hours

Mucopurulent nasal discharge

Crackles and wheezes in cranioventral lung fields

133
Q

What should you do on a follow-up of a horse with vegetative endocarditis?

A

Blood culture 60 days after cessation of antimicrobials

134
Q

What bacteria are most common with vegetative endocarditis?

A

Strep

Actino

E. coli

135
Q

What tests do you want to run on the reflux?

A

Ph of the fluid

Culture

136
Q

Tx for R. equi?

A

Erythromycin estolate + Rifampin

137
Q

Is there inspiratory or expiratory difficulty with RAO?

A

Expiratory

138
Q

Why should you freeze and thaw samples you send for R. equi?

A

Its intracellular

139
Q

What has a better prognosis, degenerate or inflammatory valvular disease?

A

Degenerate

140
Q

Tx goals of babesiosis/piroplasmosisin endemic areas?

A

Alleviate clinical signs

DO NOT CLEAR ORGANISM - presence of organism is required for maintenance of immunity

141
Q

Is aortic insufficiency a systolic or diastolic murmur?

A

Diastolic

142
Q

T/F: Cough is diagnostic for IAD

A

False

Its an insensitive indicator

143
Q

What risk factors are associated with pleuropneumonia?

A

Long distance travel (>2hrs)

Exposure to viral respiratory disease pathogens

Eating while trailering (especially with head tied)

144
Q

What risk factors are associated with IAD?

A

Stabling

Age (young)

Exposure to airway irritants

Deep inhalation of foreign material

Long distance transport

145
Q

Etiology of HYPP?

A

Point mutation of alpha subunit of the voltage dependent sodium channel

146
Q

Does arytenoid chondritis cause distress?

A

Depends on severity and progression

147
Q

Surgical tx for DDSP?

A

Laryngeal tie-forward

148
Q

What is the source of monensin and lasalocid toxicities in horses?

A

Monensin - cattle feed

Lasalocid - poultry feed

149
Q

Limited exercise is associated with what type of rhabdomyolysis?

A

Type 1

150
Q

Where do you measure the NG tube to in order to make sure you are in the right place?

A

13th rib

151
Q

What action in the heart creates the second heart sound (dub)?

A

Closing of the semilunar valves

152
Q

What is the cause of anemia of chronic/inflammatory disease?

A

Iron sequestration

153
Q

How soon after blood loss will the PCV start to increase?

How long does it take the PCV to return to normal?

A

3-4 days

4-6 weeks

154
Q

Which antimicrobials are used to tx vegetative endocarditis?

A

Penecillin IV

Gentamycin IV

155
Q

Is mitral insufficiency a systolic or diastolic murmur?

A

Systolic

156
Q

Tx for effesive and constrictive pericarditis?

A

Effusive - drainage

Constrictive - pericardectomy

157
Q

What is the criteria to determine the need for a blood transfusion?

A

Absolute PCV

Severity of loss - rapidity with which PCV decreases

Time - acute vs chronic

158
Q

What segment of the intestines is most commonly non-strangulating?

A

LI

159
Q

What prognostic factor is specific to mitral insufficiency?

A

Size of pulmonary artery

160
Q

When will you see a decrease in TP with blood loss?

A

4-6 hours

161
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency? Rare cause?

A

Common = blood loss

Rare = nutritional deficiency

162
Q

What is the cause of a functional obstruction?

A

Ileus

163
Q

What breed is associated with HYPP?

A

Quarter horses

164
Q

Tx for HYPP during an episode?

A

IV calcium gluconate

Dextrose/insulin

LAM 1 (3 decks)

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